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  • Why is my rsync so slow?

    - by iblue
    My Laptop and my workstation are both connected to a Gigabit Switch. Both are running Linux. But when I copy files with rsync, it performs badly. I get about 22 MB/s. Shouldn't I theoretically get about 125 MB/s? What is the limiting factor here? EDIT: I conducted some experiments. Write performance on the laptop The laptop has a xfs filesystem with full disk encryption. It uses aes-cbc-essiv:sha256 cipher mode with 256 bits key length. Disk write performance is 58.8 MB/s. iblue@nerdpol:~$ LANG=C dd if=/dev/zero of=test.img bs=1M count=1024 1073741824 Bytes (1.1 GB) copied, 18.2735 s, 58.8 MB/s Read performance on the workstation The files I copied are on a software RAID-5 over 5 HDDs. On top of the raid is a lvm. The volume itself is encrypted with the same cipher. The workstation has a FX-8150 cpu that has a native AES-NI instruction set which speeds up encryption. Disk read performance is 256 MB/s (cache was cold). iblue@raven:/mnt/bytemachine/imgs$ dd if=backup-1333796266.tar.bz2 of=/dev/null bs=1M 10213172008 bytes (10 GB) copied, 39.8882 s, 256 MB/s Network performance I ran iperf between the two clients. Network performance is 939 Mbit/s iblue@raven $ iperf -c 94.135.XXX ------------------------------------------------------------ Client connecting to 94.135.XXX, TCP port 5001 TCP window size: 23.2 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [ 3] local 94.135.XXX port 59385 connected with 94.135.YYY port 5001 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth [ 3] 0.0-10.0 sec 1.09 GBytes 939 Mbits/sec

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  • Oracle Linux screen freezes during installation

    - by Fearless
    I was installing Oracle Linux 6.4 on a server, and the screen suddenly froze. Here were the previous steps: I put in the disk, clicked install, checked the disk (no errors), did pre-install setup (clock, root password, host+domain name, etc.), configured two 40GB hard drives in a RAID1 array (no swap, 3100mb encrypted raid partitions, ~100mb ext4 partition mounting to /boot, encrypted ext4 RAID device with mounting to /), selected packages, hit continue. The system did its short preinstall processes, then when to the main installation screen with the long status bar. The installer proceeded like always, but around package 250 out of ~1000, the screen suddenly went black with a text cursor in the upper left corner of the screen and the mouse cursor in its previous place. Neither cursor moved and the only thing that triggered a response was a ctrl-alt-delete that rebooted it. I have run this in VMs before without this issue. Memtest hasn't reported anything, and the media check went smoothly. The machine has supported Ubuntu server without issues before. Any ideas? I have tried booting after that, but the grub bootloader tries to find fd0 for some reason (I have no idea why it would search for the floppy disk). UPDATE My server successfully installed, but won't boot up. I think that, for some reason, it is still using the old bootloader from the previous installation. Any ideas on how to fix that?

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  • How to make a redundant desktop system with daily snapshots? (Is btrfs ready for use?)

    - by TestUser16418
    I want to configure a desktop system in which the home filesystem would be redundant (e.g. RAID-1), and would have weekly snapshots taken. I've already done this with ZFS, the snapshot system is wonderful, and with send/recv you can easily create backups on external media. Unfortunately, at that point, I want GNU+Linux and not FreeBSD or Solaris, so I'm looking for suggestions for good alternatives. I reckon that my alternatives are: btrfs - it seems to be exactly what I need, it has snapshots and commands that allow you to easily replicate zfs send. Yet all documentation mentions that it's still experimental. I can't seem to find any actual reports on its reliability or usability issues. Can you point me to any information on that issue that could clarify whether it would be a possible choice? I have a large preference for this option, mostly because I don't want to reformat the drives when btrfs becomes ready, but I there's no information on whether it's usable at all, whether it's a silly idea to use it, etc. The question that I cannot get the answer to is what does "experimental" mean. lvm snapshots and ext4 - preferably not, since it can consume an awful amount of space when new files are created. Creating 200 GB files requres 200 GB free space and 200 GB additionally for snapshots. I also have found it unreliable -- failed metadata rewrite results in an unreadable PV. I'm wondering how btrfs would compare here. A single filesystem (ext4) on a RAID-1 array with custom COW snapshots with hardlinks (like cp -al). That's my current preference if I can't use btrfs. So how experimental btrfs is, which should I choose, and do I have any other options? What if I don't keep external incremental backups, would that affect my choice?

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  • Seeking faster access/transfer times for accounting application

    - by Markaway
    Our accounting software, Sage 50, has been getting slower to open on workstations and reading the company file. The company file only contains 2 years worth of transactions, and we just cleared out 2011 so the file size has gotten a lot smaller. There are 10 users, 6 of which are on it all day, 4 are on and off throughout the day. Our network is entirely GbE and the switches are set to prioritize traffic on that port number. Watching network traffic, we barely use 40% of the network capability on the workstation, so I don't think that is our bottleneck. Our server contains two older Raptors Sata 2(3GB/s) 150GB in RAID 1. We were considering switching to SSD's, but a lot of what I read says to stay away from MLC's, especially for production environment and definitely avoid putting them in a RAID config. So would upgrading to newer Raptors with SATA 3(6GB/s) offer noticable benefits? What other options are out there that aren't so expensive? Trying to keep it to 200-300 per drive. We need at least 150GB, but going to 250-300GB would be better as it gives us more room to grow. We have about 30% space remaining on what we have now.

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  • Play audio file data - Spring MVC

    - by Vijay Veeraraghavan
    In my web-application, I have various audio clips uploaded by the users in the database stored in the BLOB column. The audio files are low bit rate WAV files. The clips are secured, one can see only those clips he has uploaded. Instead of user downloading the clip and playing it in his player, I need it be steamed online in the web page itself. In the jsp I use the <audio> tag with the source mapping to the controller mappping url. <td> <audio controls><source src="recfile/${au.id}" type="audio/mpeg" /></audio> </td> Where, the recfile is the request mapping and the au.id is the audio id. In the controller I process the request like below @RequestMapping(value = "/recfile/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET, produces = { MediaType.APPLICATION_OCTET_STREAM_VALUE }) public HttpEntity<byte[]> downloadRecipientFile(@PathVariable("id") int id, ModelMap model, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { LOGGER.debug("[GroupListController downloadRecipientFile]"); VoiceAudioLibrary dGroup = audioClipService.findAudioClip(id); if (dGroup == null || dGroup.getAudioData() == null || dGroup.getAudioData().length <= 0) { throw new ServletException("No clip found/clip has not data, id=" + id); } HttpHeaders header = new HttpHeaders(); I tried this too //header.setContentType(new MediaType("audio", "mp3")); header.setContentType(new MediaType("audio", "vnd.wave"); header.setContentLength(dGroup.getAudioData().length); return new HttpEntity<byte[]>(dGroup.getAudioData(), header); } When the jsp loads, the controller get the request, it serves back the audio data fetched from the database, the jsp too shows the player with the controls. But when I play it nothing happens. Why is it? Am I missing anything in the configuration? Am I doing it right?

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  • Ajax call from a form rendered as Ajax response (jQuery + Grails: chaining ajax requests)

    - by bsreekanth
    Hello, I was expecting the below scenario common, but couldn't find much help online. I have a form loaded through Ajax (say, create entity form). It is loaded through a button click (load) event $("#bt-create").click(function(){ $ ('#pid').load('/controller/vehicleModel/create3'); return false; }); the response (a form) is written in to the pid element. The name and id of the form is ajax-form, and the submit event is attached to an ajax post request $(function() { $("#ajax-form").submit(function(){ // do something... var url = "/app/controller/save" $.post(url, $(this).serialize(), function(data) { alert( data ) ; /// alert data from server }); I could make the above ajax operations individually. That is the ajax post operation succeeds if it calls from a static html file. But if I chain the requests (after completing the first), so that it calls from the output form generated by the first request, nothing happens. I could see the post method is called through firebug. Is there a better way to handle above flow? One more interesting thing I noticed. As you could see, I use grails as my platform. If I keep the javascripts in the main.gsp (master layout), the submit event would not register as the breakpoint is not hit in firebug. But, if I define the javascript in the template file (which renders the form above), the breakpoint is hit, but as I explained, the action is not called at the controller. I changes the javascript to the head section but same result. any help greatly appreciated. thanks, Babu.

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  • How to make facebox popup remain open and the content inside the facebox changes after the submit

    - by Leonardo Dario Perna
    Hi, I'm a jQuery total n00b. In my rails app this what happen: I'm on the homepage, I click this link: <a href='/betas/new' rel='facebox'>Sign up</a> A beautiful facebox popup shows up and render this views and the containing form: # /app/views/invites/new <% form_tag({ :controller => 'registration_code', :action => 'create' }, :id => 'codeForm') do %> <%= text_field_tag :code %> <br /> <%= submit_tag 'Confirm' %> <% end %> I clink on submit and if the code is valid the user is taken on another page in another controller: def create # some stuff redirect_to :controller => 'users', :action => 'type' end Now I would like to render that page INSIDE the SAME popup contains the form, after the submit button is pressed but I have NO IDEA how to do it. I've tried FaceboxRender but this happens: Original version: # /controllers/users_controller def type end If I change it like that nothing happens: # /controllers/users_controller def type respond_to do |format| format.html format.js { render_to_facebox } end end If I change it like that (I know is wrong but I'm a n00b so it's ok :-): # /controllers/users_controller def type respond_to do |format| format.html { render_to_facebox } format.js end end I got this rendered: try { jQuery.facebox("my raw HTML from users/type.html.erb substituted here")'); throw e } Any solutions? THANK YOU SO MUCH!!

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  • ASP.NET MVC in a subfolder (only) on godaddy

    - by Anthony Potts
    Okay, I have read many of the routing posts concerning putting asp.net mvc on godaddy. However, I have not come to a solution to my current problem. I am trying to publish an ASP.NET MVC application to a subfolder on godaddy. I have upgraded the account to use IIS 7 and I have included the MVC dlls in \bin\ deployment method. However, I suspect that my route is not correct. Currently, my routes are set up with the standard out of the box route: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I have a subdomain set up so that it looks like office.domain.com. The subdomain is pointing at a folder "/office/" which is right off the root folder. (There is not an MVC application installed in the root folder). All of my application has been placed in this 'office' folder. When I hover over the links however, the 'office' portion shows up in the link as well. e.g. Hovering over a link to the customer controller, index action yields "office.domain.com/office/Customer" as the target. This link then gets a 404 when I attempt to go to it. What should my route be to fix this? Is there something I have neglected in setting up the subdomain in godaddy? Is this something I just can't do in godaddy's domain management "tool". Do I need to set up a virtual directory for this instead of just a directory? Update: I changed the IIS settings in godaddy to use integrated pipeline mode, per this discussion and I am no longer getting 404 errors. The application worked just fine as suggested it would.

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  • UIImagePickerController in landscape on iPhone OS >= 3.2

    - by Mike
    Here is the problem. I have to open the UIImagePickerController in landscape. At this phase I am doing the app for iPhone but it will be soon adjusted for iPad. The classical way to force the UIImagePickerController to open in landscape would be to use this solution. But this solution has a problem, specially for iPad, that is the line, [[UIDevice currentDevice] setOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; because Apple rejects an application for doing that, as they don't want you to set an orientation, because if the user is holding the iPad on landscapeLeft the controller will appear upside down. Apple want you to use your paranormal powers and open the controller the right way for the user. The only problem is this: My controller is to appear when the application starts At this time, the orientation information is not yet available, because it takes a while for the device to discover its orientation; I've tried to get around this using the accelerometer to discover the orientation, but the accelerometer data is not yet available too when the app starts. I could make a routine to delay the application until the orientation is available, showing a black screen to the user in the mean time, or a beach ball, but I wonder if there's a more elegant way to do that! thanks.

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  • Calling a MVC2 partial view using jquery returns empty string problem

    - by Jason
    I have an issue where I have a partial view that returns some HTML to be displayed. Its called when something is clicked on the page using jquery. The problem is that no matter how I call it, i get back an empty string even though it reports success. This is happening to me using Chrome, going against my local machine. My controller looks like this: public ActionResult MyPartialView() { return PartialView(model); } I have tried jquery using .get(), .post() and .load() and all have the same results. Here is an example using .post(): $.post(url, function (data) { alert(data); }); The result always comes back as an empty string. I can navigate to the partial view in the browser manually and i get back the desired HTML. The URL I am using to call it I resolved fully so it looks like "http://localhost/controller/mypartialview" rather than using the relative path of "/controller/mypartialview" which I thought was the original problem. Any idea what may cause this?

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  • Autorotate works for iOS 6 but gives weird behavior in iOS 5

    - by Jeanne
    I seem to be having the opposite problem from this post: Autorotate in iOS 6 has strange behaviour When I submitted my paid app to Apple, XCode made me update to iOS 6 on my test devices. I used the GUI in XCode to set my app to display only in portrait mode on the iPhone and only in landscape mode on the iPad. This works great on my iOS 6 iPhone and iPad. In iOS 5, however, the iPad is allowing the app to rotate to portrait, displaying my buttons in a letterbox-like black area that shouldn't be there, and crashing repeatedly. I am using a Navigation Controller and storyboards. I know shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation is deprecated in iOS 6, but figuring it should still be called in iOS 5, I tried this: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) { if ((UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft))||(UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight))) { return YES; } else return NO; } else { if ((UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationPortrait))||(UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown))) { return YES; } else return NO; } // Return YES for supported orientations } The above code seems to have done nothing. I am putting it in each of my view controllers; it seems I should really be putting it in my navigation controller, but because I set that up graphically, I'm not sure how to do that. Do I have to subclass my navigation controller and do everything in code? There must be a way to use the storyboard settings for this! (Note: I am not using AutoLayout and apparently can't because of some older components I am including my software that just plain don't like it.) What might be causing this? I'd like to fix it before too many people buy the app and complain! Thanks in advance...

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  • Getting fields_for and accepts_nested_attributes_for to work with a belongs_to relationship

    - by Billy Gray
    I cannot seem to get a nested form to generate in a rails view for a belongs_to relationship using the new accepts_nested_attributes_for facility of Rails 2.3. I did check out many of the resources available and it looks like my code should be working, but fields_for explodes on me, and I suspect that it has something to do with how I have the nested models configured. The error I hit is a common one that can have many causes: '@account[owner]' is not allowed as an instance variable name Here are the two models involved: class Account < ActiveRecord::Base # Relationships belongs_to :owner, :class_name => 'User', :foreign_key => 'owner_id' accepts_nested_attributes_for :owner has_many :users end class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account end Perhaps this is where I am doing it 'rong', as an Account can have an 'owner', and may 'users', but a user only has one 'account', based on the user model account_id key. This is the view code in new.html.haml that blows up on me: - form_for :account, :url => account_path do |account| = account.text_field :name - account.fields_for :owner do |owner| = owner.text_field :name And this is the controller code for the new action: class AccountsController < ApplicationController # GET /account/new def new @account = Account.new end end When I try to load /account/new I get the following exception: NameError in Accounts#new Showing app/views/accounts/new.html.haml where line #63 raised: @account[owner] is not allowed as an instance variable name If I try to use the mysterious 'build' method, it just bombs out in the controller, perhaps because build is just for multi-record relationships: class AccountsController < ApplicationController # GET /account/new def new @account = Account.new @account.owner.build end end You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! The error occurred while evaluating nil.build If I try to set this up using @account.owner_attributes = {} in the controller, or @account.owner = User.new, I'm back to the original error, "@account[owner] is not allowed as an instance variable name". Does anybody else have the new accepts_nested_attributes_for method working with a belongs_to relationship? Is there something special or different you have to do? All the official examples and sample code (like the great stuff over at Ryans Scraps) is concerned with multi-record associations.

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  • What's the best way to refresh a UITableView within a UINavigationController hierarchy

    - by Steve Neal
    Hi, I'm pretty new to iPhone development and have struggled to find what I consider to be a neat way around this problem. I have a user interface where a summary of record data is displayed in a table inside a navigation controller. When the user clicks the accessory button for a row, a new view is pushed onto the navigation controller revealing a view where the user can edit the data in the corresponding record. Once done, the editing view is popped from the navigation controller's stack and the user is returned to the table view. My problem is that when the user returns to the table view, the table still shows the state of the data before the record was edited. I must therefore reload the table data to show the changes. It doesn't seem possible to reload the table data before it is displayed as the call only updates displayed records. Reloading it after the table has been displayed results in the old data changing before the user's eyes, which I'm not too happy with. This seems to me like a pretty normal thing to want to do in an iPhone app. Can anyone please suggest the best practice approach to doing this? I feel like I'm missing something. Cheers - Steve.

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  • Routing in php vs routing in rails..

    - by piemesons
    I was working on php from past 1 yr and now a days i m learning rails. In rails:-- Routing takes an incoming URL and decodes it into a set of parameters that are used by Rails to dispatch to the appropriate controller and action for example rs.recognize_path "/blog/show/123" {:controller=>"blog", :action=>"show", :id=>"123"} M i right?? We mention this (written down) line of code in our routes.rb under config directory to tell rails how to handle the request like "/blog/show/123" using this line of code. map.connect "blog/show/:id", :controller => "blog", :action => "show", :id => /\d+/ Fine.. Now in php when we do something like this www.xxx.com/profile.php?profile_id=2 How the request is sent to the requested page. Means i never wrote anything for routing in php, then how this request has been handled. How the rounting is done in php (anything i missed during my learning/working in php) R u getting what i am asking. Please let me know if there is any problem.

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  • UpdateModel() fails after migration from MVC 1.0 to MVC 2.0

    - by Alastair Pitts
    We are in the process of migrating our ASP.NET MVC 1.0 web app to MVC 2.0 but we have run into a small snag. In our report creation wizard, it is possible leave the Title text box empty and have it be populated with a generic title (in the post action). The code that does the update on the model of the Title is: if (TryUpdateModel(reportToEdit, new[] { "Title" })) { //all ok here try to create (custom validation and attach to graph to follow) //if title is empty get config subject if (reportToEdit.Title.Trim().Length <= 0) reportToEdit.Title = reportConfiguration.Subject; if (!_service.CreateReport(1, reportToEdit, SelectedUser.ID, reportConfigID, reportCategoryID, reportTypeID, deviceUnitID)) return RedirectToAction("Index"); } In MVC 1.0, this works correctly,the reportToEdit has an empty title if the textbox is empty, which is then populated with the Subject property. In MVC 2.0 this fails/returns false. If I add the line above: UpdateModel(reportToEdit, new[] { "Title" }); it throws System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled by user code Message="The model of type 'Footprint.Web.Models.Reports' could not be updated." Source="System.Web.Mvc" StackTrace: at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.UpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String prefix, String[] includeProperties, String[] excludeProperties, IValueProvider valueProvider) at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.UpdateModel[TModel](TModel model, String[] includeProperties) at Footprint.Web.Controllers.ReportsController.Step1(FormCollection form) in C:\TFS Workspace\ExtBusiness_Footprint\Branches\apitts_uioverhaul\Footprint\Footprint.Web\Controllers\ReportsController.cs:line 398 at lambda_method(ExecutionScope , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.<>c__DisplayClassd.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__a() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) InnerException: Reading the MVC2 Release notes I see this breaking change: Every property for model objects that use IDataErrorInfo to perform validation is validated, regardless of whether a new value was set. In ASP.NET MVC 1.0, only properties that had new values set would be validated. In ASP.NET MVC 2, the Error property of IDataErrorInfo is called only if all the property validators were successful. but I'm confused how this is affecting me. I'm using the entity framework generated classes. Can anyone pinpoint why this is failing?

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  • How to handle payment types with varying properties in the most elegant way.

    - by Byron Sommardahl
    I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2. Keeping it simple, I have three payment types: credit card, e-check, or "bill me later". I want to: choose one payment type display some fields for one payment type in my view run some logic using those fields (specific to the type) display a confirmation view run some more logic using those fields (specific to the type) display a receipt view Each payment type has fields specific to the type... maybe 2 fields, maybe more. For now, I know how many and what fields, but more could be added. I believe the best thing for my views is to have a partial view per payment type to handle the different fields and let the controller decide which partial to render (if you have a better option, I'm open). My real problem comes from the logic that happens in the controller between views. Each payment type has a variable number of fields. I'd like to keep everything strongly typed, but it feels like some sort of dictionary is the only option. Add to that specific logic that runs depending on the payment type. In an effort to keep things strongly typed, I've created a class for each payment type. No interface or inherited type since the fields are different per payment type. Then, I've got a Submit() method for each payment type. Then, while the controller is deciding which partial view to display, it also assigns the target of the submit action. This is not elegant solution and feels very wrong. I'm reaching out for a hand. How would you do this?

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  • Zend Studio Debugger returns Application Error

    - by Keyne
    When I run debug for my public/index.php I got an application error as output. I've seen that it occurs at this line: foreach($feed->findFeedEntries($entriesLimit) as $entry) If I put a breakpoint before this, all works as expected, I mean, the error is after the line above. If I remove findFeedEntries() method, I can perform debugging without erros. To clarify, this method is in my row object as described bellow: This is the error <?php class Model_DbTable_FeedEntries extends Zf_Db_Table { public function fetchNewEntries($feed_id) { $Feeds = new Model_DbTable_Feeds(); $Feed = $Feeds->getById($feed_id); // ERROR IS HERE! The colum doesn't exists! // And this is only on zend-debugger!!! var_dump($Feed->link) // ... } } I'm completely lost about what's happening, once my application has no errors, the problem is with zend-debugger. The error is: An error occurred Application error Exception information: Message: Specified column "link" is not in the row Stack trace: #0 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\FeedEntries.php(75): Zend_Db_Table_Row_Abstract->__get('link') #1 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\FeedEntries.php(50): Model_DbTable_FeedEntries->fetchNewEntries('1') #2 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\models\DbTable\Row\Feed.php(15): Model_DbTable_FeedEntries->getAllByFeedId('1', 1) #3 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\application\modules\default\controllers\IndexController.php(41): Model_DbTable_Row_Feed->findFeedEntries(1) #4 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): IndexController->indexAction() #5 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action->dispatch('indexAction') #6 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #7 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #8 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\ZendFramework-1.10.0-minimal\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #9 C:\Program Files\xampp\htdocs\desenvolvimentistas\public\index.php(54): Zend_Application->run() #10 C:\Users\RAPOSO\AppData\Local\Temp\dummy.php(1): include('C:\Program File...') #11 {main} I've notice that when I get the row object my colums names are not right. Instead of have "title", "link", ... I have "feeds", "desenvolvimentistas" (projectname), and so on...

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  • Pop-up modal with UITableView on iPhone

    - by Meltemi
    I need to pop up a quick dialog for the user to select one option in a UITableView from a list of roughly 2-5 items. Dialog will be modal and only take up about 1/2 of screen. I go back and forth between how to handle this. Should I subclass UIView and make it a UITableViewDelegate & DataSource? I'd also prefer to lay out this view in IB. So to display I'd do something like this from my view controller (assume I have a property in my view controller for DialogView *myDialog;) NSArray* nibViews = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"DialogView" owner:myDialog options:nil]; myDialog = [nibViews objectAtIndex:0]; [self.view addSubview:myDialog]; problem is i'm trying to pass owner:myDialog which is nil as it hasn't been instantiated...i could pass owner:self but that would make my view controller the File's Owner and that's not how that dialog view is wired in IB. So that leads me to think this dialog wants to be another full blown UIViewController... But, from all I've read you should only have ONE UIViewController per screen so this confuses me because I could benefit from viewDidLoad, etc. that come along with view controllers... Can someone please straighten this out for me?

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  • Selection Highlight in NSCollectionView

    - by Hooligancat
    On some occasions my head just hurts from banging it against the Cocoa wall. Today is one of those days. I have a working NSCollectionView with one minor, but critical, exception. Getting and highlighting the selected item within the collection. I've had all this working prior to Snow Leopard, but something appears to have changed and I can't quite place my finger on it, so I took my NSCollectionView right back to a basic test and followed Apple's documentation for creating an NSCollectionView here: http://developer.apple.com/mac/library/DOCUMENTATION/Cocoa/Conceptual/CollectionViews/Introduction/Introduction.html The collection view works fine following the quick start guide. However, this guide doesn't discuss selection other than "There are such features as incorporating image views, setting objects as selectable or not selectable and changing colors if they are selected". Using this as an example I went to the next step of binding the Array Controller to the NSCollectionView with the controller key selectionIndexes, thinking that this would bind any selection I make between the NSCollectionView and the array controller and thus firing off a KVO notification. I also set the NSCollectionView to be selectable in IB. There appears to be no selection delegate for NSCollectionView and unlike most Cocoa UI views, there appears to be no default selected highlight. So my problem really comes down to a related issue, but two distinct questions. How do I capture a selection of an item? How do I show a highlight of an item? NSCollectionView's programming guides seem to be few and far between and most searches via Google appear to pull up pre-Snow Leopard implementations, or use the view in a separate XIB file. For the latter (separate XIB file for the view), I don't see why this should be a pre-requisite otherwise I would have suspected that Apple would not have included the view in the same bundle as the collection view item. I know this is going to be a "can't see the wood for the trees" issue - so I'm prepared for the "doh!" moment. As usual, any and all help much appreciated.

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  • Naming of ASP.NET controls inside User Controls with ASP.NET MVC

    - by skb
    I am wondering if there is a way to make ASP.NET controls play nicely with my ASP.NET MVC app. Here is what I am doing. I have an order page which displays info about a single Order object. The page will normally have a bunch of rows of data, each row representing an OrderItem object. Each row is an ASP.NET User Control. On the user control there is a form element with two text boxes (Quantity and Price), and an update button. When I click the update button, I expect the form to post the data for that individual OrderItem row to a controller method and update the OrderItem record in the database. Here is my problem: When the post happens, the framework complains because the fields on the form don't match the parameters on the controller method. Each form field is something like "OrderItem_1$Quantity" or "OrderItem_2$Price" instead of just "Quantity" or "Price" which would match my method parameters. I have been told that I can overcome this by making sure that the IDs of all my controls are unique for the page, but allow the NAMEs to be repeated between different forms, so that if a form for an individual row is posted, the name can be something that will match what is on my controller method. The only problem is that I am using ASP.NET controls for my text boxes (which I REALLY want to continue doing) and I can't find any way to override the name field. There is no Name propery on an ASP.NET control, and even when I try to set it using the Attributes accessor property by saying "control.Attributes["Name"] = "Price";" it just adds another name= attribute to the HTML tag which doesn't work. Does any one know how I can make this work? I really don't like all of the HtmlHelper functions like TextBox and DropDown because I hate having my .aspx be so PHP or ASP like with the <%% tags and everything. Thanks!

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  • Codeigniter + TankAuth + Swfupload not able to get the logger user id

    - by Manny Calavera
    Hello. I am using Codeigniter with the TankAuth library installed and trying to upload to index.php/reuqests/doUpload from swfupload but can't access the page as authenticated. I have read many posts around the net about similar problem and tried to set $config['sess_match_useragent'] = FALSE; but still no difference. I have ended up skipping the login check in my controller for testing purposes. But now I need to access tankAuth library from my controller to get the current logged in user ID. It is requested in my application and cannot skip it, I really need to pass the logged in user id to that doUpload model. I have setup controller like this: function doUploadFileFn() { if (!$this->tank_auth->is_logged_in()) { return; } else { $user_id = $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(); $this->load->model('requests/doUploadFile'); $this->doUploadFile->uploadData($user_id); } } Now, it does not pass the is_logged_in() check, as I learned from other posts, CI deletes the session but I have setup the config not to match the user agent but still not working. Is there any solution to this out there ? Thank you.

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  • Sharp architecture; Accessing Validation Results

    - by nabeelfarid
    I am exploring Sharp Architecture and I would like to know how to access the validation results after calling Entity.IsValid(). I have two scenarios e.g. 1) If the entity.IsValid() return false, I would like to add the errors to ModelState.AddModelError() collection in my controller. E.g. in the Northwind sample we have an EmployeesController.Create() action when we do employee.IsValid(), how can I get access to the errors? public ActionResult Create(Employee employee) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid && employee.IsValid()) { employeeRepository.SaveOrUpdate(employee); } // .... } [I already know that when an Action method is called, modelbinder enforces validation rules(nhibernate validator attributes) as it parses incoming values and tries to assign them to the model object and if it can't parse the incoming values  then it register those as errors in modelstate for each model object property. But what if i have some custom validation. Thats why we do ModelState.IsValid first.] 2) In my test methods I would like to test the nhibernate validation rules as well. I can do entity.IsValid() but that only returns true/ false. I would like to Assert against the actual error not just true/ false. In my previous projects, I normally use a wrapper Service Layer for Repositories, and instead of calling Repositories method directly from controller, controllers call service layer methods which in turn call repository methods. In my Service Layer all my custom validation rules resides and Service Layer methods throws a custom exception with a NameValueCollection of errors which I can easily add to ModelState in my controller. This way I can also easily implement sophisticated business rules in my service layer as well. I kow sharp architecture also provides a Service Layer project. But what I am interested in and my next question is: How I can use NHibernate Vaidators to implement sophisticated custom business rules (not just null,empty, range etc.) and make Entity.IsValid() to verify those rules too ?

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  • How to extend an 'unloadable' Rails plugin?

    - by Vitaly Kushner
    I'm trying to write a plugin that will extend InheritedResources. Specifically I want to rewrite some default helpers. And I'd like it to "just work" once installed, w/o any changes to application code. The functionality is provided in a module which needs to be included in a right place. The question is where? :) The first attempt was to do it in my plugin's init.rb: InheritedResources::Base.send :include, MyModule It works in production, but fails miserably in development since InheritedResource::Base declared as unloadable and so its code is reloaded on each request. So my module is there for the first request, and then its gone. InheritedResource::Base is 'pulled' in again by any controller that uses it: Class SomeController < InheritedResource::Base But no code is 'pulling in' my extension module since it is not referenced anywhere except init.rb which is not re-loaded on each request So right now I'm just including the module manually in every controller that needs it which sucks. I can't even include it once in ApplicationController because InheritedResources inherites from it and so it will override any changes back. update I'm not looking for advice on how to 'monkey patch'. The extension is working in production just great. my problem is how to catch moment exactly after InheritedResources loaded to stick my extension into it :) update2 another attempt at clarification: the sequence of events is a) rails loads plugins. my plugin loads after inherited_resources and patches it. b) a development mode request is served and works c) rails unloads all the 'unloadable' code which includes all application code and also inherited_resources d) another request comes in e) rails loads controller, which inherites from inherited resources f) rails loads inherited resources which inherit from application_controller g) rails loads application_contrller (or may be its already loaded at this stage, not sure) g) request fails as no-one loaded my plugin to patch inherited_resources. plugin init.rb files are not reloaded I need to catch the point in time between g and h

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  • Extra white space, on HTML output, on PHP MVC

    - by user316841
    Hi, I'm getting extra white space, that is not CSS, or nothing like it on the view output: The HTML. I've checked for ? (removed, where I could), saved UTF8 without BOM. Checked for existent white space in the beginning of each file, even at end. This is the structure: index.php - this is the entry point; MODEL/ CONTROLLER/ VIEW/ Let's say, that trough method GET, its sent the var TPL with some value. Let's call it LIST, so it pulls the LIST model, with all data and then show the right template to the user, with the right data. I used and tested, with require_once, include_once, include, even tested with readfile (just to test). The LIST Template opens the header.tpl and footer.tpl; I also tryed to remove this both includes from LIST template, but still, the extra white space continued. This is where the extra white space is coming from. This controller is placed between controller activity runs here , this is where the extra white space is coming from: $model_works-getRows(); $rows = $model_works-rows; if ( !require_once('views/list_works.tpl.php') ) { echo "Error."; } // end if clause The list_works.tpl.php, is basicly HTML with tags; I've t tested by changing the extension to something else, like html. Also, just to remember that at top of this file, we are using require_once to open the header.tpl and at bottom the footer.tpl. I've tested by removing both and the extra white space was still generated. The extra white space is being generated here: EXTRA WHITE SPACE HERE Thanks a lot for looking, ;D

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  • UIAlertViewDelegate method didDismissWithButtonIndex gets called while the phone is sleeping/locked.

    - by Rob
    I have a UIAlertView who's didDismissWithButtonIndex delegate method calls pops the view controller (same class, it's the alertview delegate and the viewcontroller) to return the user to the previous screen. The issue is that when you lock the phone before the [alert show]; is called, something is calling didDismissWithButtonIndex while the phone is locked. Since the response to that is to pop the view controller, which releases and deallocs it, I crash on the callback. What is causing this phantom button press? Seems like a framework bug, but I hate jumping to that conclusion. I'm definitely not hitting the button, because I hit a breakpoint in my code right before it's displayed. Then I lock the phone. Then I continue. I see it do the show, return to the event loop, and then, while the phone is still locked, hit my breakpoint in didDismissWithButtonIndex. There are a few internet/forum postings about similar spurious delegate calls, but no concrete answers. This is on the simulator, and the device, both OS 2.2 and OS 3.0. I'm assuming I'm missing something, but what? Update: Yeah, I created a simple project with just two view controllers, where when the 2nd view controller displays it creates the alert, and shows it. Then I NSLog in the delegate method, and when the phone is locked, it fires once while locked, and then again when it's unlocked and the button is clicked...2 log messages. But when not locked, there's only one. I guess I'll open an issue, but it seems awfully obvious to have survived this long without anyone complaining. :-) I'm going to try and work around it by making an isActive flag value when the willResignActive/didBecomeActive notifications arrive, and if the app isn't active skipping the delegate body. Update I went ahead in July after I posted this and created radar 7097363 for this issue. There's been no response. The workaround in practice works quite well, checking the active status when processing the delegate, and skipping the action if the the app is inactive.

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