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  • Can LINQ-to-SQL omit unspecified columns on insert so a database default value is used?

    - by Todd Ropog
    I have a non-nullable database column which has a default value set. When inserting a row, sometimes a value is specified for the column, sometimes one is not. This works fine in TSQL when the column is omitted. For example, given the following table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Table1]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [col1] [nvarchar](50) NOT NULL, [col2] [nvarchar](50) NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Table1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([id] ASC) ) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Table1] ADD CONSTRAINT [DF_Table1_col1] DEFAULT ('DB default') FOR [col1] The following two statements will work: INSERT INTO Table1 (col1, col2) VALUES ('test value', '') INSERT INTO Table1 (col2) VALUES ('') In the second statement, the default value is used for col1. The problem I have is when using LINQ-to-SQL (L2S) with a table like this. I want to produce the same behavior, but I can't figure out how to make L2S do that. I want to be able to run the following code and have the first row get the value I specify and the second row get the default value from the database: var context = new DataClasses1DataContext(); var row1 = new Table1 { col1 = "test value", col2 = "" }; context.Table1s.InsertOnSubmit(row1); context.SubmitChanges(); var row2 = new Table1 { col2 = "" }; context.Table1s.InsertOnSubmit(row2); context.SubmitChanges(); If the Auto Generated Value property of col1 is False, the first row is created as desired, but the second row fails with a null error on col1. If Auto Generated Value is True, both rows are created with the default value from the database. I've tried various combinations of Auto Generated Value, Auto-Sync and Nullable, but nothing I've tried gives the behavior I want. L2S does not omit the column from the insert statement when no value is specified. Instead it does something like this: INSERT INTO Table1 (col1, col2) VALUES (null, '') ...which of course causes a null error on col1. Is there some way to get L2S to omit a column from the insert statement if no value is given? Or is there some other way to get the behavior I want? I need the default value at the database level because not all row inserts are done via L2S, and in some cases the default value is a little more complex than a hard coded value (e.g. creating the default based on another field) so I'd rather avoid duplicating that logic.

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  • Re-using aggregate level formulas in SQL - any good tactics?

    - by Cade Roux
    Imagine this case, but with a lot more component buckets and a lot more intermediates and outputs. Many of the intermediates are calculated at the detail level, but a few things are calculated at the aggregate level: DECLARE @Profitability AS TABLE ( Cust INT NOT NULL ,Category VARCHAR(10) NOT NULL ,Income DECIMAL(10, 2) NOT NULL ,Expense DECIMAL(10, 2) NOT NULL ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 1, 'Software', 100, 50 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 2, 'Software', 100, 20 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 3, 'Software', 100, 60 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 4, 'Software', 500, 400 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 5, 'Hardware', 1000, 550 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 6, 'Hardware', 1000, 250 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 7, 'Hardware', 1000, 700 ) ; INSERT INTO @Profitability VALUES ( 8, 'Hardware', 5000, 4500 ) ; SELECT Cust ,Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability GROUP BY Cust SELECT Category ,Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability GROUP BY Category SELECT Profit = SUM(Income - Expense) ,Margin = SUM(Income - Expense) / SUM(Income) FROM @Profitability Notice how the same formulae have to be used at the different aggregation levels. This results in code duplication. I have thought of using UDFs (either scalar or table valued with an OUTER APPLY, since many of the final results may share intermediates which have to be calculated at the aggregate level), but in my experience the scalar and multi-statement table-valued UDFs perform very poorly. Also thought about using more dynamic SQL and applying the formulas by name, basically. Any other tricks, techniques or tactics to keeping these kinds of formulae which need to be applied at different levels in sync and/or organized?

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  • Select XML nodes as rows

    - by Bjørn
    I am selecting from a table that has an XML column using T-SQL. I would like to select a certain type of node and have a row created for each one. For instance, suppose I am selecting from a people table. This table has an XML column for addresses. The XML is formated similar to the following: <address> <street>Street 1</street> <city>City 1</city> <state>State 1</state> <zipcode>Zip Code 1</zipcode> </address> <address> <street>Street 2</street> <city>City 2</city> <state>State 2</state> <zipcode>Zip Code 2</zipcode> </address> How can I get results like this: Name         City         State Joe Baker   Seattle      WA Joe Baker   Tacoma     WA Fred Jones  Vancouver BC

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  • How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state?

    - by littlegreen
    I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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  • broken SQL 2008 SP1 Web Edition (can not login with SSMS)

    - by gerryLowry
    Scenario: My installation of SQL Server 2008 Web Edition SP1 was working properly. Since I've recently joined Microsoft's Website Spark*, I removed SQL2008 and installed SQL 2008 again using my Website Spark edition and license from the MSDN download site. Next, I updated SQL 2008 to SP1 (this is required because I'm running Windows 2008 Server R2 Web edition). When I launch SSMS (SQL Server Management Studio), "User name" is "myhost\Administrator" and is greyed out so it can not be changed. When I installed my Website Spark version, I did not include "myhost\Administrator" when I was configuring SQL 2008 service accounts. Instead I created an administrator account "myhost\mySQLaccount". ERROR MESSAGE: Connect to Server (X) Cannot connect to (local) Additional information: Login failed for user 'myhost'Admistrator' (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18456) I tried to use the SQL Server Configuration Manager to correct this problem but could not find any useful way to fix this issue. How to I fix this problem? Connect to Server ... Server type: Database Engine Server name: (local) Authentication: Windows Authentication Please advise. Thank you. Gerry * http://www.microsoft.com/web/websitespark/default.aspx

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  • Combining multiple rows into one row, Oracle

    - by Torbjørn
    Hi. I'm working with a database which is created in Oracle and used in a GIS-software through SDE. One of my colleuges is going to make some statistics out of this database and I'm not capable of finding a reasonable SQL-query for getting the data. I have two tables, one with registrations and one with registrationdetails. It's a one to many relationship, so the registration can have one or more details connected to it (no maximum number). table: Registration RegistrationID Date TotLenght 1 01.01.2010 5 2 01.02.2010 15 3 05.02.2009 10 2.table: RegistrationDetail DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance 1 1 TD UB 1,5 2 1 AB US 2 3 1 TD UQ 4 4 2 AB UQ 13 5 2 AB UR 13,1 6 3 TD US 5 I want the resulting selection to be something like this: RegistrationID Date TotLenght DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance DetailID RegistrationID Owner Type Distance 1 01.01.2010 5 1 1 TD UB 1,5 2 1 AB US 2 3 1 TD UQ 4 2 01.02.2010 15 4 2 AB UQ 13 5 2 AB UR 13,1 3 05.02.2009 10 6 3 TD US 5 With a normal join I get one row per each registration and detail. Can anyone help me with this? I don't have administrator-rights for the database, so I can't create any tables or variables. If it's possible, I could copy the tables into Access.

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  • Can I store SQL Server sort order in a variable?

    - by Steve Weet
    I have the following SQL within a stored procedure. Is there a way to remove the IF statement and pass the 'ASC'/'DESC' option as a variable? I know I could do the query a number of different ways, or return a table and sort it externally etc. I would just like to know if I can avoid duplicating the CASE statement. IF @sortOrder = 'Desc' BEGIN SELECT * FROM #t_results ORDER BY CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'surname' THEN surname END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'forename' THEN forename END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'fullName' THEN fullName END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'userId' THEN userId END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'MobileNumber' THEN MSISDN END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'DeviceStatus' THEN DeviceStatus END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPosition' THEN LastPosition END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastAlert' THEN LastAlert END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastCommunication' THEN LastCommunication END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPreAlert' THEN LastPreAlert END DESC END ELSE BEGIN SELECT * FROM #t_results ORDER BY CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'surname' THEN surname END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'forename' THEN forename END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'fullName' THEN fullName END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'userId' THEN userId END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'MobileNumber' THEN MSISDN END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'DeviceStatus' THEN DeviceStatus END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPosition' THEN LastPosition END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastAlert' THEN LastAlert END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastCommunication' THEN LastCommunication END DESC, CASE WHEN @OrderBy = 'LastPreAlert' THEN LastPreAlert END DESC END END

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  • Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

    - by Anonymouslemming
    Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to have a where clause on an insert or an update in Linq to Sql?

    - by Kelsey
    I am trying to convert the following stored proc to a LinqToSql call (this is a simplied version of the SQL): INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([Name], [Value]) SELECT @name, @value WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT [Value] FROM [MyTable] WHERE [Value] = @value) The DB does not have a constraint on the field that is getting checked for so in this specific case the check needs to be made manually. Also there are many items constantly being inserted as well so I need to make sure that when this specific insert happens there is no dupe of the value field. My first hunch is to do the following: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { if (Context.MyTables.SingleOrDefault(t => t.Value == in.Value) != null) { MyLinqModels.MyTable t = new MyLinqModels.MyTable() { Name = in.Name, Value = in.Value }; // Do some stuff in the transaction scope.Complete(); } } This is the first time I have really run into this scenario so I want to make sure I am going about it the right way. Does this seem correct or can anyone suggest a better way of going about it without having two seperate calls? Edit: I am running into a similar issue with an update: UPDATE [AnotherTable] SET [Code] = @code WHERE [ID] = @id AND [Code] IS NULL How would I do the same check with Linqtosql? I assume I need to do a get and then set all the values and submit but what if someone updates [Code] to something other than null from the time I do the get to when the update executes? Same problem as the insert...

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  • Can you add identity to existing column in sql server 2008?

    - by bmutch
    In all my searching I see that you essentially have to copy the existing table to a new table to chance to identity column for pre-2008, does this apply to 2008 also? thanks. most concise solution I have found so far: CREATE TABLE Test ( id int identity(1,1), somecolumn varchar(10) ); INSERT INTO Test VALUES ('Hello'); INSERT INTO Test VALUES ('World'); -- copy the table. use same schema, but no identity CREATE TABLE Test2 ( id int NOT NULL, somecolumn varchar(10) ); ALTER TABLE Test SWITCH TO Test2; -- drop the original (now empty) table DROP TABLE Test; -- rename new table to old table's name EXEC sp_rename 'Test2','Test'; -- see same records SELECT * FROM Test;

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  • How can I automatically generate sql update scripts when some data is updated ?

    - by Brann
    I'd like to automatically generate an update script each time a value is modified in my database. In other words, if a stored procedure, or a query, or whatever updates column a with value b in table c (which as a pk column (i,j...k), I want to generate this : update c set a=b where i=... and j=... and k=... and store it somewhere (for example as a raw string in a table). To complicate things, I want the script to be generated only if the update has been made by a specific user. Good news is that I've got a primary key defined for all my tables. I can see how to do this using a trigger, but I would need to generate specific triggers for each table, and to update them each and every-time my schema changes. I guess there are some built-in ways to do this as SQL server sometimes need to store this kind of things (while using transactional replication for example), but couldn't find anything so far ... any ideas ? I'm also interested in ways to automatically generate triggers (probably using triggers - meta triggers, huh? - since I will need to update triggers automatically when the schema change)

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  • Type or namespace could not be found

    - by Jason Shultz
    I'm using LINQ to SQL to connect my database to my home page. I created my datacontext (named businessModel.dbml) In it I have two tables named Category and Business. In home controller I reference the model and attempt to return to the view the table: var dataContext = new businessModelDataContext(); var business = from b in dataContext.Businesses select b; ViewData["WelcomeMessage"] = "Welcome to Jerome, Arizona!"; ViewData["MottoMessage"] = "Largest Ghost Town in America!"; return View(business); and in the view I have this: <%@ Import Namespace="WelcomeToJerome.Models" %> and <% foreach (business b in (IEnumerable)ViewData.Model) { %> <li><%= b.Title %></li> <% } %> Yet, in the view business is cursed with the red underline and say's that The type or namespace name 'business' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) What am I doing wrong? This has had me stumped all afternoon. link to all the code in pastebin: http://pastebin.com/es4RnS2q

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  • How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state without waiting half a day?

    - by littlegreen
    I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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  • SQL: without a cursor, how to select records making a unique integer id (identity like) for dups?

    - by Dr. Zim
    If you have the select statement below where the PK is the primary key: select distinct dbo.DateAsInt( dateEntered) * 100 as PK, recordDescription as Data from MyTable and the output is something like this (the first numbers are spaced for clarity): PK Data 2010 01 01 00 New Years Day 2010 01 01 00 Make Resolutions 2010 01 01 00 Return Gifts 2010 02 14 00 Valentines day 2010 02 14 00 Buy flowers and you want to output something like this: PK Data 2010 01 01 01 New Years Day 2010 01 01 02 Make Resolutions 2010 01 01 03 Return Gifts 2010 02 14 01 Valentines day 2010 02 14 02 Buy flowers Is it possible to make the "00" in the PK have an "identity" number effect within a single select? Otherwise, how could you increment the number by 1 for each found activity for that date? I am already thinking as I type to try something like Sum(case when ?? then 1 end) with a group by.

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  • Converting rows to Columns in SQL

    - by Ram
    I have a table (actually a view, but simplified my example to a table) which gives me some data like this id CompanyName website 1 Google google.com 2 Google google.net 3 Google google.org 4 Google google.in 5 Google google.de 6 Microsoft Microsoft.com 7 Microsoft live.com 8 Microsoft bing.com 9 Microsoft hotmail.com I am looking to convert it to get a result like this CompanyName website1 website2 website3 website 4 website5 website6 ----------- ------------- ---------- ---------- ----------- --------- -------- Google google.com google.net google.org google.in google.de NULL Microsoft Microsoft.com live.com bing.com hotmail.com NULL NULL I have looked into pivot but looks like the record(row values) cannot be dynamic (i.e can only be certain predefined values). Also, if there are more than 6 websites, I want to limit it to the first 6 Dynamic pivot makes sense, but I would have to incorporate it into my view ?? Is there a simpler solution for this ? Here are the SQL scripts CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Company]( [id] [int] NULL, [CompanyName] [varchar](50) NULL, [website] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into company values (1,'Google','google.com') insert into company values (2,'Google','google.net') insert into company values (3,'Google','google.org') insert into company values (4,'Google','google.in') insert into company values (5,'Google','google.de') insert into company values (6,'Microsoft','Microsoft.com') insert into company values (7,'Microsoft','live.com') insert into company values (8,'Microsoft','bing.com') insert into company values (9,'Microsoft','hotmail.com')

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  • Using Linq-To-SQL I'm getting some weird behavior doing text searches with the .Contains method. Loo

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a table, where I need to do a case insensitive search on a text field. If I run this query in LinqPad directly on my database, it works as expected Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase")) // also, adding in the same constraints I'm using in my repository works in LinqPad // Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase") && tbl.IsActive == true) In my application, I've got a repository which exposes IQueryable objects which does some initial filtering and it looks like this var dc = new MyDataContext(); public IQueryable<Table> GetAllTables() { var ret = dc.Tables.Where(t => t.IsActive == true); return ret; } In the controller (its an MVC app) I use code like this in an attempt to mimic the LinqPad query: var rpo = new RepositoryOfTable(); var tables = rpo.GetAllTables(); // for some reason, this does a CASE SENSITIVE search which is NOT what I want. tables = tables.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase"); return View(tables); The column is defiend as an nvarchar(50) in SQL Server 2008. Any help or guidance is greatly appreciated!

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  • Sum two rows in one - My Sql

    - by user303832
    I have found some similar posts, but I didn't find them useful. But I didn't know how to group them. I would like to Sum 'No' and 'Not Set' to one row, and to lose 'Not Set' row. So : 'No' = 'No' + 'Not Set' I have something like this : TEST TestCount Month 'Yes' 123 March 'No' 432 March 'Not Set' 645 March 'Yes' 13 April 'No' 42 April 'Not Set' 45 April 'Yes' 133 May 'No' 41 May 'Not Set' 35 May .... And I would like something like this : TEST TestCount Month 'Yes' 423 March 'No' 410 March 'Yes' 154 April 'No' 192 April 'Yes' 130 May 'No' 149 May .... Can anybody help me with this, tnx in advance

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  • LINQ to SQL - Lightweight O/RM?

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I've heard from some that LINQ to SQL is good for lightweight apps. But then I see LINQ to SQL being used for Stackoverflow, and a bunch of other .coms I know (from interviewing with them). Ok, so is this true? for an e-commerce site that's bringing in millions and you're typically only doing basic CRUDs most the time with the exception of an occasional stored proc for something more complex, is LINQ to SQL complete enough and performance-wise good enough or able to be tweaked enough to run happily on an e-commerce site? I've heard that you just need to tweak performance on the DB side when using LINQ to SQL for a better approach. So there are really 2 questions here: 1) Meaning/scope/definition of a "Lightweight" O/RM solution: What the heck does "lightweight" mean when people say LINQ to SQL is a "lightweight O/RM" and is that true??? If this is so lightweight then why do I see a bunch of huge .coms using it? Is it good enough to run major .coms (obviously it looks like it is) and what determines what the context of "lightweight" is...it's such a generic statement. 2) Performance: I'm working on my own .com and researching different O/RMs. I'm not really looking at the Entity Framework (yet), just want to figure out the LINQ to SQL basics here and determine if it will be efficient enough for me. The problem I think is you can't tweak or control the SQL it generates...

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  • Can a T-SQL variable represent an entire row?

    - by elbillaf
    I'm coding for MS SQL Server 10. I have two databases that contain dozens of tables. Each table in one database contains a table with the same name in the other database. Tables with the same name have identical format (fields and data types). The contents of the two tables are similar but not identical. I need to update one based on changes made to the other, but only under certain circumstances. I think I want to use a cursor for this, but I can't find a good example to go by. So far, the MSDN examples are reading one field at a time into a variable. I do need to be able to read /modify two fields which are identical in each table, but I gotta believe there's something less tedious than declaring variables for every field of every table. I would like to be able to FETCH an entire row, check a couple of fields and then make a decision of whether I want to write the entire row to the other table after changing two fields - but do I have to declare variables for EVERY field I want to fetch / write? There's no way to just FETCH an entire row and write an entire row?

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  • SELECT SQL Variable - should i avoid using this syntax and always use SET?

    - by Sholom
    Hi All, This may look like a duplicate to here, but it's not. I am trying to get a best practice, not a technical answer (which i already (think) i know). New to SQL Server and trying to form good habits. I found a great explanation of the functional differences between SET @var = and SELECT @var = here: http://vyaskn.tripod.com/differences_between_set_and_select.htm To summarize what each has that the other hasn't (see source for examples): SET: ANSI and portable, recommended by Microsoft. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) fails when the select returns more then one value, eliminating the possibility of unpredictable results. SET @var = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) will set @var to NULL if that's what SELECT column_name FROM table_name returned, thus never leaving @var at it's prior value. SELECT: Multiple variables can be set in one statement Can return multiple system variables set by the prior DML statement SELECT @var = column_name FROM table_name would set @var to (according to my testing) the last value returned by the select. This could be a feature or a bug. Behavior can be changed with SELECT @j = (SELECT column_name FROM table_name) syntax. Speed. Setting multiple variables with a single SELECT statement as opposed to multiple SET/SELECT statements is much quicker. He has a sample test to prove his point. If you could design a test to prove the otherwise, bring it on! So, what do i do? (Almost) always use SET @var =, using SELECT @var = is messy coding and not standard. OR Use SELECT @var = freely, it could accomplish more for me, unless the code is likely to be ported to another environment. Thanks

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  • How to close and open access to SQL Server 2008 in Windows application?

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have a MS Access 97 application (but the question is general) working directly with SQL Server 2008 (without application server or anything). Numbers of users can be up to 1000. Windows Authentication is used. The question is: How to handle modes, so some users will be allowed to work in read-only mode some users won't have access to db for some time My versions: Using a table with a mode id for every group of users, that will work the same way. On Form Load application will query that table for mode id. Using trigger on the tables, that must work according to that mode. The trigger will query mode value and doesn't work if access is closed or it's in read-only mode I know these are not the best solutions, that's why I'm asking for your advice. There's one more point. If the mode is changed to "access-is-closed" for a group of users, that group must not be able to query to DB starting that moment. With first solution I wrote it won't work, because user can be in application at that moment and no form load event will work. How can I do this? Is there any optimal solution? Thank you. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Run SQL Scripts from C# application across domains

    - by Saravanan AR
    To run sql script files from my C# application, I referred this. http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/adodotnetdataproviders/thread/43e8bc3a-1132-453b-b950-09427e970f31 it works perfectly when my machine and DB server are in the same domain. my problem now is, i'm executing this console application from a machine (name: X, user id: abc, domain D1). the SQL server is in another machine (name: Y, domain: D2). I use VPN to connect to machine Y with user id 'abc' and work on SQL in remote desktop. how can i run sql scripts across domains? I use this in a custom activity in my TFS build template as the last step to run the scripts in the target database which is in domain D2. i'm getting this error: "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified)" is it possible to connect to the DB using the admin user ID of machine Y in domain D2?

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  • SQL Server data platform upgrade - Why upgrade and how best you can reduce pre & post upgrade problems?

    - by ssqa.net
    SQL Server upgrade, let it be database(s) or instance(s) or both the process and procedures must follow best practices in order to reduce any problems that may occur even after the platform is upgraded. The success of any project relies upon the simpler methods of implementation and a process to reduce the complexity in testing to ensure a successful outcome. Also the topic has been a popular topic that .... read more from here ......(read more)

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  • T-SQL Tuesday #24 : Dude, where's the rest of my procedure?

    - by AaronBertrand
    This month's T-SQL Tuesday is being hosted by Brad Schulz ( blog ) and the topic is one that should attract a lot of submissions: Procedures and Functions. Last week, I talked about the case against INFORMATION_SCHEMA views - I provided several examples where I feel the INFORMATION_SCHEMA views fall short of the catalog views, and expressed my belief that you are better off programming consistently against the catalog views all the time, instead of only when the INFORMATION_SCHEMA views fail. Having...(read more)

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  • SQL Server 2012 Service Pack 2 is available - but there's a catch!

    - by AaronBertrand
    Service Pack 2 is available: http://www.microsoft.com/en-us/download/details.aspx?id=43340 The build number is 11.0.5058, and this includes fixes up to and including SQL Server 2012 SP1 CU #9. (The complete list of fixes is exhaustive, including all fixes from SP1 CU #1 -> #9, but the post-CU #9 fixes are listed here: http://support.microsoft.com/KB/2958429 However, if you may be affected by the regression bug I talked about earlier today , which could lead to data loss or corruption during online...(read more)

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