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  • Temporary users table or legitimate users table?

    - by John
    I have a freelance web application that lets users register for events. In my database, I have a t_events_applicants table with the column t_events_applications.user_id with a foreign key constraint linked to the t_users.user_id column. So this means only users who have registered with my web application can register for my web application's events. My client would now like to allow non-registered users, users who do not have an entry in my t_user table, to register for events. These non-registered users only need to provide their name and email address to register for events. Should I create a t_temporary_user table with columns name and email and then remove the t_events_applicants.user_id fk constraint? Or should I add un-registered users to the t_user table and then add a column called t_user.type where type can be 'registered' or 'non-registered'? How do I decide which approach to go with? A lot of times, I hesitate with either approach. I ask myself, "What if at a later time, a temporary user is allowed to become a fully registered user? Then maybe I should have only a t_user table. But then I also don't feel good about storing a lot of temporary users in t_user."

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  • Pattern/Matcher in Java?

    - by user1007059
    I have a certain text in Java, and I want to use pattern and matcher to extract something from it. This is my program: public String getItemsByType(String text, String start, String end) { String patternHolder; StringBuffer itemLines = new StringBuffer(); patternHolder = start + ".*" + end; Pattern pattern = Pattern.compile(patternHolder); Matcher matcher = pattern.matcher(text); while (matcher.find()) { itemLines.append(text.substring(matcher.start(), matcher.end()) + "\n"); } return itemLines.toString(); } This code works fully WHEN the searched text is on the same line, for instance: String text = "My name is John and I am 18 years Old"; getItemsByType(text, "My", "John"); immediately grabs the text "My name is John" out of the text. However, when my text looks like this: String text = "My name\nis John\nand I'm\n18 years\nold"; getItemsByType(text, "My", "John"); It doesn't grab anything, since "My" and "John" are on different lines. How do I solve this?

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  • How should I avoid memoization causing bugs in Ruby?

    - by Andrew Grimm
    Is there a consensus on how to avoid memoization causing bugs due to mutable state? In this example, a cached result had its state mutated, and therefore gave the wrong result the second time it was called. class Greeter def initialize @greeting_cache = {} end def expensive_greeting_calculation(formality) case formality when :casual then "Hi" when :formal then "Hello" end end def greeting(formality) unless @greeting_cache.has_key?(formality) @greeting_cache[formality] = expensive_greeting_calculation(formality) end @greeting_cache[formality] end end def memoization_mutator greeter = Greeter.new first_person = "Bob" # Mildly contrived in this case, # but you could encounter this in more complex scenarios puts(greeter.greeting(:casual) << " " << first_person) # => Hi Bob second_person = "Sue" puts(greeter.greeting(:casual) << " " << second_person) # => Hi Bob Sue end memoization_mutator Approaches I can see to avoid this are: greeting could return a dup or clone of @greeting_cache[formality] greeting could freeze the result of @greeting_cache[formality]. That'd cause an exception to be raised when memoization_mutator appends strings to it. Check all code that uses the result of greeting to ensure none of it does any mutating of the string. Is there a consensus on the best approach? Is the only disadvantage of doing (1) or (2) decreased performance? (I also suspect freezing an object may not work fully if it has references to other objects) Side note: this problem doesn't affect the main application of memoization: as Fixnums are immutable, calculating Fibonacci sequences doesn't have problems with mutable state. :)

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  • if/else statement in a function: using onclick as a switch

    - by Aurora Schmidt
    I have looked for solutions to this on google for what seems like an eternity, but I can't seem to formulate my search correctly, or nobody has posted the code I'm looking for earlier. I am currently trying to make a function that will modify one or several margins of a div element. I want to use an if/else statement within the function, so that the onclick event will switch between the two conditions. This is what I have been working on so far; function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').style.margin-left == "-250px";) { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="0px"; } else { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="-250px"; } } I have tried twisting it around a little, like switching between "marginLeft" and "margin-left", to see if I was just using the wrong terms.. I'm starting to wonder if it might not be possible to combine jQuery and regular javascript? I don't know.. It's all just guesses on my part at this point. Anyway, I have a div, which is now positioned (fixed) so almost all of it is hidden outside the borders of the browser. I want the margin to change onclick so that it will be fully shown on the page. And when it is shown, I want to be able to hide it again by clicking it. I might be approaching this in the wrong way, but I really hope someone can help me out, or even tell me another way to get the same results. Thank you for any help you can give me. You can see it in action at: http://www.torucon.no/test/ (EDIT: By the way, I am a complete javascript novice, I have no experience with javascript prior to this experiment. Please don't be too harsh, as I am aware I probably made some really stupid mistakes in this short code.) EDITED CODE: function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px') { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '0px'); } else { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px'); } }

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  • Mac vs. Windows Browser Font Height Rendering Issue

    - by cdmckay
    I'm using a custom font and the @font-face tag. In Windows, everything looks great, regardless of whether it's Firefox, Chrome, or IE. On Mac, it's a different story. For some reason, the Mac font renderer thinks the font is a lot shorter than it is. For example, consider this test code (live example here): <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Webble</title> <style type="text/css"> @font-face { font-family: "Bubbleboy 2"; src: url("bubbleboy-2.ttf") format('truetype'); } body { font-family: "Bubbleboy 2"; font-size: 30px; } div { background-color: maroon; color: yellow; height: 100px; line-height: 100px; } </style> </head> <body> <div>The quick brown fox jumped over the lazy dog.</div> </body> </html> Open it on Windows Firefox and on Mac Firefox. Use your mouse to select it. On Windows, you'll notice it fully selects the font. On Mac, it only selects about half the font. If you look at what it is selecting, you'll see that that part has been centered, instead of the full height of the font. Is there anyway to fix this rather large discrepancy?

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  • How to create a semi transparent window in WPF that allows mouse events to pass through

    - by RMK
    I am trying to create an effect similar to the Lights out /lights dim feature in Adobe Lightroom (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=87hNd3vaENE) except in WPF. What I tried was to create another window over-top of my existing window, make it transparent and put a semi transparent Path geometry on it. But I want mouse events to be able to pass through this semi transparent window (on to windows below). This is a simplified version of what I have: <Window x:Class="LightsOut.MaskWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" AllowsTransparency="True" WindowStyle="None" ShowInTaskbar="False" Topmost="True" Background="Transparent"> <Grid> <Button HorizontalAlignment="Left" Height="20" Width="60">click</Button> <Path IsHitTestVisible="False" Stroke="Black" Fill="Black" Opacity="0.3"> <Path.Data> <RectangleGeometry Rect="0,0,1000,1000 "/> </Path.Data> </Path> </Grid> The window is fully transparent, so on places where the Path doesn't cover, mouse events pass right through. So far so good. The IsHitTestvisible is set to false on the path object. So mouse events will pass through it to other controls on the same form (ie you can click on the Button, because it is on the same form). But mouse events wont pass through the Path object onto windows that are below it. Any ideas? Or better ways to solve this problem? Thanks.

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  • Incorporating Devise Authentication into an already existing user structure?

    - by Kevin
    I have a fully functional authentication system with a user table that has over fifty columns. It's simple but it does hash encryption with salt, uses email instead of usernames, and has two separate kinds of users with an admin as well. I'm looking to incorporate Devise authentication into my application to beef up the extra parts like email validation, forgetting passwords, remember me tokens, etc... I just wanted to see if anyone has any advice or problems they've encountered when incorporating Devise into an already existing user structure. The essential fields in my user model are: t.string :first_name, :null => false t.string :last_name, :null => false t.string :email, :null => false t.string :hashed_password t.string :salt t.boolean :is_userA, :default => false t.boolean :is_userB, :default => false t.boolean :is_admin, :default => false t.boolean :active, :default => true t.timestamps For reference sake, here's the Devise fields from the migration: t.database_authenticatable :null => false t.confirmable t.recoverable t.rememberable t.trackable That eventually turn into these actual fields in the schema: t.string "email", :default => "", :null => false t.string "encrypted_password", :limit => 128, :default => "", :null => false t.string "password_salt", :default => "", :null => false t.string "confirmation_token" t.datetime "confirmed_at" t.datetime "confirmation_sent_at" t.string "reset_password_token" t.string "remember_token" t.datetime "remember_created_at" t.integer "sign_in_count", :default => 0 t.datetime "current_sign_in_at" t.datetime "last_sign_in_at" t.string "current_sign_in_ip" t.string "last_sign_in_ip" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" What do you guys recommend? Do I just remove email, hashed_password, and salt from my migration and put in the 5 Devise migration fields and everything will be OK or do I need to do something else?

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  • Is there a modern free D?VCS that can ignore mainframe sequence numbers?

    - by Brent.Longborough
    I'm looking at migrating a large suite of IBM Assembler Language programs, from a vcs based on "filenames include version numbers", to a modern vcs which will give me, among other things, the ability to branch and merge. These files have 80-column records, the last 8 columns being an almost-meaningless sequence number. For a number of reasons which I don't really want to waste space by going into, I need the vcs to ignore (but hopefully preserve in some well-defined manner) the sequence number columns, and to diff and patch based only on the contents of the first 72 columns. Any ideas? Just to clarify "ignore but preserve": I accept it's a bit vague, as I haven't fully collected my ideas yet. It would be something along the lines of this: "When merging/patching, if one side has sequence numbers, output them; if more-than-one side has sequence numbers, use those present in file (1|2|3)" Why do I want to preserve sequence numbers? First, they really are sequence numbers. Second, I want to reintegrate this stuff back onto the mainframe, where sequence numbers can be terribly significant. (Those of you who know what "SMP/E" means will understand. Those who don't, be happy, but tremble...) I've just realised I hadn't accepted an answer. Difficult choice, but @Noldorin comes closest to where I have to go.

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  • .NET assembly not loading from NTVDM

    - by John Reid
    I have a VDD dll that's loaded by a DOS program running inside the NTVDM. This dll uses C++/CLI and references a .NET assembly. All in all, the loading process is something like this: NTVDM runs: prntsr.com which uses VDD RegisterModule to load: prnvdd.dll which references .NET assembly: prnlib.dll The prntsr.com, prnvdd.dll and prnlib.dll files are all in the same folder. However, when loading it, I get the following exception: Unhandled Exception: System.IO.FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'PRNLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=ecf23cee305e91b7' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'PRNLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=ecf23cee305e91b7' at VDD_Initialise() === Pre-bind state information === LOG: User = DOMAIN\user LOG: DisplayName = PRNLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=ecf2 3cee305e91b7 (Fully-specified) LOG: Appbase = file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/ LOG: Initial PrivatePath = NULL Calling assembly : (Unknown). === LOG: This bind starts in default load context. LOG: No application configuration file found. LOG: Using machine configuration file from C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\config\machine.config. LOG: Post-policy reference: PRNLib, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=ecf23cee305e91b7 LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/PRNLib.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/PRNLib/PRNLib.DLL. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/PRNLib.EXE. LOG: Attempting download of new URL file:///C:/WINDOWS/system32/PRNLib/PRNLib.EXE. It only searches C:\WINDOWS\system32\ for the assembly, which I guess this is due to NTVDM.EXE - as this is the actual process that the assembly is being loaded into, it takes its location as the AppBase. Any ideas how to change the AppBase or otherwise work around this problem?

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  • Grails - Language prefix in url mappings

    - by Art79
    Hi there im having problem with language mappings. The way i want it to work is that language is encoded in the url like /appname/de/mycontroller/whatever If you go to /appname/mycontroller/action it should check your session and if there is no session pick language based on browser preference and redirect to the language prefixed site. If you have session then it will display english. English does not have en prefix (to make it harder). So i created mappings like this: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$lang/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$lang/store/$category" { controller = "storeItem" action = "index" constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$lang/store" { controller = "storeItem" action = "index" constraints { lang(matches:/pl|en/) } } "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ lang="en" constraints { } } "/store/$category" { lang="en" controller = "storeItem" action = "index" } "/store" { lang="en" controller = "storeItem" action = "index" } "/"(view:"/index") "500"(view:'/error') } } Its not fully working and langs are hardcoded just for now. I think i did something wrong. Some of the reverse mappings work but some dont add language. If i use link tag and pass params:[lang:'pl'] then it works but if i add params:[lang:'pl', page:2] then it does not. In the second case both lang and page number become parameters in the query string. What is worse they dont affect the locale so page shows in english. Can anyone please point me to the documentation what are the rules of reverse mappings or even better how to implement such language prefix in a good way ? THANKS

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  • How to prevent external translation of a movieclip object on stage in AS3?

    - by Aaron H.
    I have a MovieClip object, which is exported for actionscript (AS3) in an .swc file. When I place an instance of the clip on the stage without any modifications, it appears in the upper left corner, about half off stage (i.e. only the lower right quadrant of the object is visible). I understand that this is because the clip has a registration point which is not the upper left corner. If you call getBounds() on the movieclip you can get the bounds of the clip (presumably from the "point" that it's aligned on) which looks something like (left: -303, top: -100, right: 303, bottom: 100), you can subtract the left and top values from the clip x and y: clip.x -= bounds.left; clip.y -= bounds.top; This seems to properly align the clip fully on stage with the top left of the clip squarely in the corner of the stage. But! Following that logic doesn't seem to work when aligning it on the center of the stage! clip.x = (stage.stageWidth / 2); etc... This creates the crazy parallel universe where the clip is now down in the lower right corner of the stage. The only clue I have is that looking at: clip.transform.matrix and clip.transform.concatenatedMatrix matrix has a tx value of 748 (half of stage height) ty value of 426 (Half of stage height) concatenatedMatrix has a tx value of 1699.5 and ty value of 967.75 That's also obviously where the movieclip is getting positioned, but why? Where is this additional translation coming from?

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  • Data Annotations on ViewModels or Domain Objects

    - by Ahmad
    Where would data annotations be more suitable: ViewModels or Domain Objects or Both I am struggling to decide where these will be more suited. I have not as yet fully utilized them but this question came to mind. From most of the examples I have seen, they are generally placed on Models and simply use the required attributes for validation using ModelState.IsValid. I have also seen another question on SO where the use of data annotations alone is not sufficient and advocate. Option 1 - I will still need to validate again in my service layer. ( I think that my service layer should be complete and this include validation, since its planned to be used elsewhere) Option 2 - How will I then get the benefits of the built in validation both client and server side. Option 3 - there will be a repetition of validation logic, however I was wondering if one could use a MetaData class approach that can be used for both ViewModels and Domain Objects. ( This is completely of the top of my head, so it may be nonsensical) I wonder if this question even makes sense. If not, can someone please help in understanding this better. Have I completely misunderstood the use of data annotations?

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  • How do I solve "Two different CRTLDLLs are loaded" when using packages in C++ Builder 2010?

    - by David M
    Hi, We are trying to split up our monolithic EXE into a combination of an EXE and several packages. So far, we have one package that we're trying to use, and when running the EXE Codeguard shows the following error on startup: CG Error Two different CRTLDLLs are loaded. CG might report false errors (C:\Windows\system32\CC32100MT.DLL) (D:\Projects\Foo\Bar.bpl) OK I read this as two different runtime libraries being loaded - one, the correct one (CC32100MT.dll), one incorrect, which is the package we're trying to use. Continuing to run the program shows odd errors, especially casting between classes or passing a pointer to a class as a parameter in a method that crosses the EXE/DLL boundary. Codeguard itself doesn't show any other errors at all though. How do we solve this? Some more details We've looked at as many things as we (the developer working on this and I) can collectively think of: Each project is built using runtime packages. The EXE host lists Bar in its package list. Each project is set to compile with dynamic RTL. However, changing this does not solve the problem. The package is linked to the EXE via its BPI file, but linking via a LIB makes no difference either. The EXE and BPL are compiled with the same project settings, where the same options exist for both types of project. We think, anyway :) There is only one copy of the BPL and BPI on the system: it's definitely linking to the right one. Examining the EXE and BPL with Depends and TDump show they are both using C:\Windows\system32\CC32100MT.DLL. They should both be using the one RTL. Creating a new project (a plain VCL forms application) and linking to the BPL (via its BPI) works fine. Something in the process of adding all the files and LIBs that make our EXE contain the code it needs to changes this, but we haven't been able to figure out what. The LIBs all either correspond to DLLs we use (flat C interface, usually look as though they were built with MSVC) or are simple projects with lots of related files, compiled to a lib for the purpose of linking into the EXE - these correspond roughly to the areas of the program we want to split to BPLs, by the way. There don't seem to be project options for the LIB projects that would affect RTL linking, unless we've missed them. I have exhaustively hunted through Depends and looked at all RTL and CC32*.dll files the EXE and every single DLL references. All are identical: rtl140.bpl and CC32100MT.DLL. Fully qualified paths show they are the same files, too. Everything should be using the one same run-time library. We're stumped. Absolutely stumped. We've had other problems using BPLs (they seem to be surprisingly tricky things, especially using C++) but have managed to solve them all. This one we've had no luck at all and we'd really appreciate any insights :) We're using C++Builder 2010 (as part of RAD Studio actually, but with little Delphi code apart from components.)

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  • Synchronizing screencasting (ffmpeg) and capturing from the webcam (OpenCV)

    - by lyuba
    As from my previous questions, I am trying to build a simple eye tracker. Decided to start from a Linux version (run Ubuntu). To complete this task one should organize screencasting and webcam capturing in such way that frames from both streams exactly match each other and there is the same number of frames in each of them totally. Screencasting fsp fully depends on the camera's fsp, so each time we get the image from the webcam we can potentially grab a screen frame and stay happy. However, all the tools for the fast screencasting, like ffmpeg, for example, return the .avi file as the result and require the fsp already known to be started. From the other side, tools like Java+Robot or ImageMagick seem to require around 20ms to return the .jpg screenshot, which is pretty slow for the task. But they may be requested right after each time the webcam frame is grabbed and provide the needed synchronization. So the sub-questions are: 1. Does the USD camera's frame rate vary during a single session? 2. Are there any tools which provide fast screencasting frame by frame? 3. Is there any way to make ffmpeg push a new frame to the .avi file only when program initiates this request? For my task I may either use C++ or Java. I am, actually, an interface designer, not the driver programmer, and this task seems to be pretty low-level. I would be grateful for any suggestion and tip!

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  • Javascript ended event when video playback ends on android

    - by Tjofras
    I have been trying to create a web page that will redirect the user after he has watched a video (or if he aborted the playback). I've got this working on the iphone but can't really figure out how it works on the android. On the Iphone i have found two ways of doing this. using the tag to embed the quicktime plugin and then adding a event listener with javascript to listen to the 'qt_ended' event. This does obviously not work on android because there is no quicktime plugin. The second thing i tried was using the html5 -tag and listening to the 'ended' event, again this worked on the iphone but to my surprise not on android. In this case i got the video playing on the android phone but no redirect occurred after the video had reached the end. So my guess is that the android browser does not fully support the video-tag and that it does not fire the event. So at this time i don't really know how to proceed. I'm guessing i could do something similar to the quicktime embed solution but using a plugin available on android. But i cant find any information on what plugins is available on the android and if they support some kind of 'ended'-event.

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  • PHP Notice: Undefined property: stdClass:

    - by 4D
    I've got an array coming back from a Flash app created in Flash Builder 4. I have a service setup that queries and brings data back from the DB successfully, however the Update script is generating the Undefined Property errors. I'm still learning both PHP and Flash Builder, and don't fully understand what the $this- commands do. If anyone can suggest where this script is going wrong, it is basically just generated by Flash Builder and is not something I've developed myself, I would appreciate it? Also if someone can explain $this- to me that would be awesome too? I've seen them before, but then I've seen scripts doing the same thing that do not use them, so is this an old way of doing things? Really appreciate any input anyone can give. public function updateItem($item) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub // Update an existing record in the database and return the item // Sample code \' $this->connect(); $sql = "UPDATE tbltrust SET inst_code = '$item->inst_code', trust_name = '$item->trust_name', trust_code = '$item->trust_code' WHERE trust_key = '$item->trust_key'"; mysqli_query($this->connection, $sql) or die('Query failed: ' . mysqli_error($this->connection)); mysqli_close($this->connection); }

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  • injection attack (I thought I was protected!) <?php /**/eval(base64_decode( everywhere

    - by Cyprus106
    I've got a fully custom PHP site with a lot of database calls. I just got injection hacked. This little chunk of code below showed up in dozens of my PHP pages. <?php /**/ eval(base64_decode(big string of code.... I've been pretty careful about my SQL calls and such; they're all in this format: $query = sprintf("UPDATE Sales SET `Shipped`='1', `Tracking_Number`='%s' WHERE ID='%s' LIMIT 1 ;", mysql_real_escape_string($trackNo), mysql_real_escape_string($id)); $result = mysql_query($query); mysql_close(); For the record, I rarely use mysql_close() at the end though. That just happened to be the code I grabbed. I can't think of any places where I don't use mysql_real_escape_string(), (although I'm sure there's probably a couple. I'll be grepping soon to find out) There's also no places where users can put in custom HTML or anything. In fact, most of the user-accessible pages, if they use SQL calls at all, are almost inevitably "SELECT * FROM" pages that use a GET or POST, depending. Obviously I need to beef up my security, but I've never had an attack like this and I'm not positive what I should do. I've decided to put limits on all my inputs and go through looking to see if i missed a mysql_real_escape_string somewhere... Anybody else have any suggestions? Also... what does this type of code do? Why is it there?

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  • How to store an inventory using hashtables?

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Hello everyone. For an assignment in collego we have to make a script in Perl that allows us to manage an inventory for an e-store. (The example given was Amazon) Users can make orders in a fully text-based environment and the inventory must be updated when an order is completed. Every item in the inventory has 3 to 4 attributes: a product code, a title, a price and for some an amount (MP3's for example do not have this attribute) Since this is my first encounter with Perl, i don't really know how to start. My main problem is how i should "implement" the inventory in the program. One of the functions of the program is searching trough the titles. Another is to make an order, where the user should give a product code. My first idea was a hashtable with the productcode as key. But if i wanted to search in the titles that could be a problem because of this: the hashkey would be something like DVD-123, the information belonging to that key could be "The Green Mask 12" (without the ") where the 12 indicates how many of this DVD are currently in stock. So i'd have to find a way to ignore the 12 in the end. Another solution was to use the title as Hashkey, but that would prove cumbersome too I think. Is there a way to make a hashtable with 2 key's, and when I give only one it returns an array with the other values? (Including the other key and the other information) That way I could use another key depending on what info I need from my inventory. We have to read the default inventory from a txt file looking like this: MP3-72|Lady Gaga - Kiss and Run (Fear of Commitment Monster)|0.99 CD-400|Kings of Leon - Only By The Night|14.50|2 MP3-401|Kings of Leon - Closer|0.85 DVD-144|Live Free or Die Hard|14.99|2 SOFT-864|Windows Vista|49.95 Any help would be appreciated very much :) PS: I am sorry for my bad grammar, English isn't my native language.

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  • Template compiling errors on iPhone SDK 3.2

    - by Didier Malenfant
    I'm porting over some templated code from Windows and I'm hitting some compiler differences on the iPhone 3.2 SDK. Original code inside a class template's member function is: return BinarySearch<uint32, CSimpleKey<T> >(key); where BinarySearch is a method inherited from another template. This produces the following error: csimplekeytable.h:131: error: no matching function for call to 'BinarySearch(NEngine::uint32&)' The visual studio compiler seems to walk up the template hierarchy fine but gcc needs me to fully qualify where the function comes from (I have verified this by fixing the same issues with template member variables that way). So I now need to change this into: return CSimpleTable<CSimpleKey<T> >::BinarySearch<uint32, CSimpleKey<T> >(key); Which now produces the following error: csimplekeytable.h:132: error: expected primary-expression before ',' token csimplekeytable.h:132: error: expected primary-expression before '>' token After some head scratching, I believe what's going on here is that it's trying to resolve the '<' before BinarySearch as a 'Less Than' operator for some reason. So two questions: - Am I on the right path with my interpretation of the error? - How do I fix it? -D

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  • Why does resolveBinding() return null even though I setResolveBindings(true) on my ASTParser?

    - by Woody Zenfell III
    I am writing an Eclipse plug-in that uses JDT AST's ASTParser to parse a method. I am looking within that method for the creation of a particular type of object. When I find a ClassInstanceCreation, I call getType() on it to see what type is being instantiated. I want to be sure that the fully-resolved type being dealt with there is the one I think it is, so I tell the resultant Type object to resolveBinding(). I get null back even though there are no compilation errors and even though I called setResolveBindings(true) on my ASTParser. I gave my ASTParser (via setSource()) the ICompilationUnit that contains my method, so the parser has access to the entire workspace context. final IMethod method = ...; final ASTParser parser = ASTParser.newParser(AST.JLS3); parser.setResolveBindings(true); parser.setSource(method.getCompilationUnit()); parser.setSourceRange(method.getSourceRange().getOffset(), method.getSourceRange().getLength()); parser.setKind(ASTParser.K_CLASS_BODY_DECLARATIONS); final TypeDeclaration astRoot = (TypeDeclaration) parser.createAST(null); final ClassInstanceCreation classInstanceCreation = walkAstAndFindMyExpression(astRoot); final Type instantiatedType = classInstanceCreation.getType(); System.out.println("BINDING: " + instantiatedType.resolveBinding()); Why does resolveBinding() return null? How can I get the binding information?

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  • Unexpected $end in PHP file

    - by mattbd
    I'm working on a PHP contact form, but I can't get it to work. I get the following error in the Apache server log, running on an Ubuntu Server VM: PHP Parse error: syntax error, unexpected $end in /home/matthew/Sites/contactFormResponse.php on line 75, referer: http://192.168.1.4/contactForm.php From googling this error, it sounds like it's normally caused by either using the short PHP tag when the server's not set up to recognise them, or by having a block of code that isn't closed correctly. But as far as I can see that isn't the case here - as far as I can see it's all closed correctly. Here's the PHP code: <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); // Define variables to hold the name, email address and message, and import the information into the variables $name = $_POST['NameInput']; $email = $_POST['EmailAddress']; $telno = $_POST['ContactNumber']; $querytype = $_POST['QueryType']; $bookingstartdate = $_POST['BookingStartDay'] . $_POST['BookingStartMonth'] . $_POST['BookingStartYear']; $bookingenddate = $_POST['BookingEndDay'] . $_POST['BookingEndMonth'] . $_POST['BookingEndYear']; $message = $_POST['QueryText']; // Validate the inputs - send it if it's OK if(3 < strlen($name) && 3 < strlen($email)) { $email_message = <<< EMAIL Message from contact form at holidaychalet.co.uk Name: $name Email: $email Contact Number: $telno Query Type: $querytype Booking Start Date: $bookingstartdate Booking End Date: $bookingenddate The message: $message EMAIL; $headers = "cc:[email protected]\r\n"; if(mail('matthew@localhost','Contact form email', $email_message, $headers)) { echo "Thanks for completing the form! I'll be in touch shortly!"; } else { echo "Something went wrong - please use the back button and try again"; } } else { echo "You didn't complete the form fully enough! Please use go back using your web browser's back button"; } ?>

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  • javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

    - by Bill Dawes
    Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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  • iPhone SDK allow touches to affect multiple views

    - by Parad0x13
    I have a main view that has has two buttons on it that control methods to display the next image and display the previous image. In this case the 'Image' is a class that inherits from UIImageView and has multiple pictures on it that you can interact with, and I call this class a 'Pane'. The pane itself handles all the user interaction itself while the main view controls the display of next and previous panes with the buttons. Here is my dilemma, because the pane fully covers the main view it wont allow for the user to tap the buttons on the main view! So once a pane pops up you cannot change it via the buttons! Is there a way to allow touches through transparent parts of a view, or if not how in the world do I achieve this?! I cannot pass touchesBegan or any of those methods from the pane to the superview because all of the button touch methods are created in the xib file. I cannot insert the pane under the control panel because then you wouldn't be able to interact with the pane. And as far as I know theres no way to pass touch events to every single pane within the paneHoldingArray that belongs to the main view I cannot add the command buttons inside of the pane because I want to be able to replace the command button's image with a thumbprint render of the next/previous pane. I've been stuck on this for a very long time, please somebody help me out with a fix action or a new way to re-engineer the code so that it will work!

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  • Multiple on-screen view controllers in iPhone apps

    - by Felixyz
    I'm creating a lot of custom views and controllers in a lot of my apps and so far I've mostly set them up programmatically, with adjustments and instantiations being controlled from plists. However, now I'm transitioning to using Interface Builder as much as possible (wish I had done that before, was always on my back-list). Apple is recommending against having many view controllers being simultaneously active in iPhone apps, with a couple of well-known exceptions. I've never fully understood why it should be bad to have different parts of the interface belong to different controllers, if they have no interdependent functionality at all. Does having multiple controllers risk messing up the responder chain, or is there some other reason that it's not recommended, except for the fact that it's usually not needed? What I want to be able to do is design reusable views and controls in IB, but since a nib is not associated with a view, but with a view controller, it seems I'd have to have different parts of the screen be connected to different controllers. I know it's possible to have other objects than view controllers being instantiated from nibs. Should I look into how to create my own alternative more light-weight controllers (that could be sub-controllers of a UIViewController) which could be instantiated from nibs?

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  • When software problems reported are not really software problems

    - by AndyUK
    Hi Apologies if this has already been covered or you think it really belongs on wiki. I am a software developer at a company that manufactures microarray printing machines for the biosciences industry. I am primarily involved in interfacing with various bits of hardware (pneumatics, hydraulics, stepper motors, sensors etc) via GUI development in C++ to aspirate and print samples onto microarray slides. On joining the company I noticed that whenever there was a hardware-related problem this would cause the whole setup to freeze, with nobody being any the wiser as to what the specific problem was - hardware / software / misuse etc. Since then I have improved things somewhat by introducing software timeouts and exception handling to better identify and deal with any hardware-related problems that arise eg PLC commands not successfully completed, inappropriate FPGA response commands, and various other deadlock type conditions etc. In addition, the software will now log a summary of the specific problem, inform the user and exit the thread gracefully. This software is not embedded, just interfacing using serial ports. In spite of what has been achieved, non-software guys still do not fully appreciate that in these cases, the 'software' problem they are reporting to me is not really a software problem, rather the software is reporting a problem, but not causing it. Don't get me wrong, there is nothing I enjoy more than to come down on software bugs like a ton of bricks, and looking at ways of improving robustness in any way. I know the system well enough now that I almost have a sixth sense for these things. No matter how many times I try to explain this point to people, it does not really penetrate. They still report what are essentially hardware problems (which eventually get fixed) as software ones. I would like to hear from any others that have endured similar finger-pointing experiences and what methods they used to deal with them.

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