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  • Getting Windows (VMware) to load from OSX's localhost without an Internet Connection

    - by Jonah Goldstein
    I'm using MAMP to host my local sites, and VirtualHostX so that I can access sites during local development via a convenient URL like mysite.dev I'm also running Windows XP via VirtualBox, and it would be great to be able to load up any of my local sites within windows while offline as currently often working without access, on the move, unfortunately. I know that I can append my IP and a nice domain name to the host file in C:/WINDOWS/system32/drivers/etc ... and i can find my IP simply through terminal with "ifconfig" while I'm online. The problem is that when I'm not online, there's no IP. Even if there is an IP (when i have a connection), I still have grab it and update the windows hosts' file all the time, since I'm developing from a laptop and have a new IP at the drop of a dime. I found a tutorial where the author is able to get a permanent IP. He uses VMware Fusion as his VMachine, which is the only difference between his setup and mine. By running the terminal command "ifconfig vmnet1" he gets: a secret IP the virtual machine uses to talk to OSX And that doesn't change - which is awesome. I'm assuming it exists even if he's offline. His tutorial is here, http://bit.ly/U2lq It would be pretty fantabulous if I could replicate this with virtualBox. Anyone have ideas? Thanks:)

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  • Abysmal transfer speeds on gigabit network

    - by Vegard Larsen
    I am having trouble getting my Gigabit network to work properly between my desktop computer and my Windows Home Server. When copying files to my server (connected through my switch), I am seeing file transfer speeds of below 10MB/s, sometimes even below 1MB/s. The machine configurations are: Desktop Intel Core 2 Quad Q6600 Windows 7 Ultimate x64 2x WD Green 1TB drives in striped RAID 4GB RAM AB9 QuadGT motherboard Realtek RTL8810SC network adapter Windows Home Server AMD Athlon 64 X2 4GB RAM 6x WD Green 1,5TB drives in storage pool Gigabyte GA-MA78GM-S2H motherboard Realtek 8111C network adapter Switch dLink Green DGS-1008D 8-port Both machines report being connected at 1Gbps. The switch lights up with green lights for those two ports, indicating 1Gbps. When connecting the machines through the switch, I am seeing insanely low speeds from WHS to the desktop measured with iperf: 10Kbits/sec (WHS is running iperf -c, desktop is iperf -s). Using iperf the other way (WHS is iperf -s, desktop iperf -c) speeds are also bad (~20Mbits/sec). Connecting the machines directly with a patch cable, I see much higher speeds when connecting from desktop to WHS (~300 Mbits/sec), but still around 10Kbits/sec when connecting from WHS to the desktop. File transfer speeds are also much quicker (both directions). Log from desktop for iperf connection from WHS (through switch): C:\temp>iperf -s ------------------------------------------------------------ Server listening on TCP port 5001 TCP window size: 8.00 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [248] local 192.168.1.32 port 5001 connected with 192.168.1.20 port 3227 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth [248] 0.0-18.5 sec 24.0 KBytes 10.6 Kbits/sec Log from desktop for iperf connection to WHS (through switch): C:\temp>iperf -c 192.168.1.20 ------------------------------------------------------------ Client connecting to 192.168.1.20, TCP port 5001 TCP window size: 8.00 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [148] local 192.168.1.32 port 57012 connected with 192.168.1.20 port 5001 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth [148] 0.0-10.3 sec 28.5 MBytes 23.3 Mbits/sec What is going on here? Unfortunately I don't have any other gigabit-capable devices to try with.

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  • Network Misconfiguration when adding first host to new vSphere cluster

    - by dunxd
    I am building a new vSphere cluster from scratch. I have installed ESXi on the first host, and built a vCenter server on a VM residing on that host (storage is on the local hard drive, although we have iSCSI targets which I can reach from the host). The cluster is configured for HA. When I try and add the host to the cluster, I get an error at the point where HA is configured - Cannot complete the . I have stripped the network configuration of the host down to the most basic - a single NIC attached to a single vSwitch - this is running the VMKernel Port on VLAN 8 - that is our Management VLAN. The vCenter server will have a network address on this VLAN, so I also set the initial Virtual Machine Port Group to this VLAN, and connected the vCenter server NIC to this port group. I understand I can't connect the vCenter server to the VMkernel port group, but shouldn't I be able to connect the vCenter server to a Port Group in the same VLAN? If not, do I need to create a VLAN specifically for VMKernel Port Group? I plan to set up another port group for vMotion with a dedicated and isolated VLAN (i.e. VLAN isn't routed) so this wouldn't allow vCenter to communicate. Does anyone have any suggestions, or other ideas for what might be causing the problem. I've read through the documentation, but it isn't giving me any pointers, and the error message isn't helping me beyond telling me something is wrong with my network config.

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  • Redirect local, not internal, requests using SuSEfirewall2 or an iptables rule

    - by James
    I have a server that is running a web application deployed on Tomcat and is sitting in a test network. We're running SuSE 11 sp1 and have some redirection rules for incoming requests. For example we don't bind port 80 in Tomcat's server.xml file, instead we listen on port 9600 and have a configuration line in SuSEfirewall2 to redirect port 80 to 9640. This is because Tomcat doesn't run as root and can't open up port 80. My web application needs to be able to make requests to port 80 since that is the port it will be using when deployed. What rule can I add so that local requests get redirected by iptables? I tried looking at this question: How do I redirect one port to another on a local computer using iptables? but suggestions there didn't seem to help me. I tried running tcpdump on eth0 and then connecting to my local IP address (not 127.0.0.1, but the actual address) but I didn't see any activity. I did see activity if I connected from an external machine. Then I ran tcmpdump on lo, again tried to connect and this time I saw activity. So this leads me to believe that any requests made to my own IP address locally aren't getting handled by iptables. Just for reference he's what my NAT table looks like now: Chain PREROUTING (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination REDIRECT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:http redir ports 9640 REDIRECT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:xfer redir ports 9640 REDIRECT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:https redir ports 8443 Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination

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  • tap interfaces always disabled in linux bridge

    - by Dani Camps
    I have a physical interface eth0, and I want to create two virtual interfaces and bridge them with eth0. For this purpose I do: #Create the virtual interfaces tunctl -t tap0 tunctl -t tap1 ifconfig tap0 up ifconfig tap1 up #Create the bridge brctl addbr br0 brctl stp br0 off brctl addif br0 eth0 brctl addif br0 tap0 brctl addif br0 tap1 #Turning up the bridge ifconfig br0 up However my problem if that the tap interfaces always appear disabled in the bridge, and no traffic flows to them. $brctl show br0 bridge name bridge id STP enabled interfaces br0 8000.080027cabeba no eth2 tap0 tap1 $brctl showstp br0 br0 bridge id 8000.080027cabeba designated root 8000.080027cabeba root port 0 path cost 0 max age 20.00 bridge max age 20.00 hello time 2.00 bridge hello time 2.00 forward delay 15.00 bridge forward delay 15.00 ageing time 300.01 hello timer 0.00 tcn timer 0.00 topology change timer 0.00 gc timer 298.42 flags eth2 (1) port id 8001 state forwarding designated root 8000.080027cabeba path cost 4 designated bridge 8000.080027cabeba message age timer 0.00 designated port 8001 forward delay timer 12.97 designated cost 0 hold timer 1.24 flags tap0 (2) port id 8002 state disabled designated root 8000.080027cabeba path cost 100 designated bridge 8000.080027cabeba message age timer 0.00 designated port 8002 forward delay timer 0.00 designated cost 0 hold timer 0.00 flags tap1 (3) port id 8003 state disabled designated root 8000.080027cabeba path cost 100 designated bridge 8000.080027cabeba message age timer 0.00 designated port 8003 forward delay timer 0.00 designated cost 0 hold timer 0.00 flags Is there any way to set the tap interfaces in forwarding state? I do not understand why they are not because STP is disabled. Cheers Daniel

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  • Setup Exchange 2010 cannot verify Host (A) record warning

    - by Joost Verdaasdonk
    When I try to install Exchange 2010 on my server 2008 R2 server I get a warning during the prerequisites check: Warning: setup cannot verify that the 'Host' (A) record for this computer exists within the DNS database on server: 90.195.200.12. The goal of this Exchange setup is that I'm able to sent email in my local domain as well receive/sent email through the public domain name. Some information about my setup This Server is going to be a dedicated exchange host and has the following IP setup: (IP's are examples and not the real IP's ofc) Local VLAN NIC: IP: 10.10.50.22 Subnet: 255.255.255.0 No gateway DNS: 10.10.50.1 (is domain controler with authoritive DNS) public WAN NIC: IP: 90.195.200.148 Subnet: 255.255.255.235 Gateway: 90.195.200.145 DNS: 90.195.200.12 | 190.160.230.14 My public domain - exampledomain.com A record: mail - IP: 90.195.200.148 MX record IP: 90.195.200.148 As I'm seeing now the exchange setup is looking for the A record in one of the DNS servers in my Public WAN NIC. And ofc this is not where my A records are defined. I have those A records in 2 places: 1. In the domain controler DNS (the private nic) 2. In the online dns registration of my public domain (exampledomain.com) My question is... is this warning going to be a problem? Can I do something better in my setup so that this warning will go away? Please advice?

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  • Sonicwall NSA 240, Configured for LAN and DMZ, X0 and X2 on same switch - ping issues

    - by Klaptrap
    Our Sonicwall vendor supplied and networked the NSA240 when we required a DMZ in our infrastructure. This was configured and appeared correct although VPN users periodically dropped DNS and Terminal Services. The vendor could not resolve and so the call was escalated to Sonicwall. The Sonicwall support engineer took a look and concluded that the X0 (LAN) and X2 (DMZ) intefaces were cabled to the same switch and so this is the issue. What he observed is a ping request to the LAN Domain Controller, from a connected VPN user, is forwarded (x0) from the VPN client IP to the DC IP but the ping response from the DC IP to the VPN client IP is on X2, a copy of the log is detailed below:- 02/02/2011 10:47:49.272 X1*(hc) X0 192.168.1.245 192.168.1.8 IP ICMP -- FORWARDED 02/02/2011 10:47:49.272 -- X0* 192.168.1.245 192.168.1.8 IP ICMP -- FORWARDED 02/02/2011 10:47:49.272 X2*(i) -- 192.168.1.8 192.168.1.245 IP ICMP -- Received X0 - LAN X1 - WAN X2 - DMZ The Sonicwall engineer concluded that we either need a seperate switch for X2 or we use a VLAN switch for both. I am the companies software engineer and we have yet to have heard back from the vendor, so I am lost at sea at the moment. Do we need to buy this additional equipment or is there another configuration on the NSA240 we can use?

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  • IPv6 - Public IPs, private IPs, IPs derived from the MAC address? Confused!

    - by sinni800
    I'm pretty much excited for IPv6 because of the large address room and (potential?) owning of more than one IP, or even tens of IPs (/122 subnet?) Though one magazine has now confused me. In a current issue (no. 3) of "CT", a German computer magazine, I read that when using IPv6 your IP address consists of your MAC address and various other things, and that this address will be public on the web, no matter what access point / LAN you connect to. My knowledge of IP(v6) is in contrary of this. I thought you will normally always have a a local network IP and NAT takes care of your Internet access, and your provider gives the NAT router an IP. I've heard of the 6to4 interface, but does this one give you your own ip in the IPv6 net? Personally I hope it still is through a personal IP space (like 192.168, 127.16-31, 10. in IPv4) in private networks with a NAT going to the Internet. And also I hope that providers will offer subnets to private customers so they don't have to use NAT anymore. Yay for converting your LAN into the WAN and using better security (so Computers from the same subnet still get access rights like normal).

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  • Cisco IOS BVI ACL: Only allow established UDP

    - by George Bailey
    Related: Cisco IOS ACL: Don't permit incoming connections just because they are from port 80 I know we can use the established keyword for TCP.. but what can we do for UDP (short of replacing a Bridge or BVI with a NAT)? Answer I found out what "UDP has no connection" means. DNS uses UDP for example.. named (DNS server) is lisenting on port 53 nslookup (DNS client) starts listening on some random port and sends a packet to port 53 of the server and notes the source port in that packet. nslookup will retry 3 times if necessary. Also the packets are so small that it does not have to worry about them coming in the wrong order. If nslookup receives a response on that port that comes from the servers IP and port then it stops listening. If the server tried to send two responses (for example a response and a response to the retry) then the server would not care if either of them made it because the client has the job to retry. In fact.. unless ICMP 3/3 packet gets through the server would not know about a failure. This is different from TCP where you get connection closed or timed out errors. DNS allows for an easy retry from the client as well as small packets.. so UDP is an excellent choice because it is more efficient. In UDP you would see nslookup sends request named sends answer In TCP you would see nslookup's machine sends SYN named's machine sends SYN-ACK nslookup's machine sends ACK and the request named's machine sends the response That is much more than is necessary for a tiny DNS packet

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  • WWNs,WWPNs and Fibre Channel addresses

    - by user238230
    Lots of contradictory on these subjects and I don't know why. My first question is about the 64 bit WWN. One reference claims the terms WWN and WWPN are synonymous. An online source seems to refute this. They say: A WWPN (world wide port name) is the unique identifier for a fibre channel port where a WWN (world wide name) the unique identifier for the node itself. A good example is a dual port HBA. There will be two WWPN's (one for each port) and only a single WWN for the card itself. Question #1: Which is correct? I’m almost positive I read that every “Port” has a WWN. My next question is about the 24 bit FC address that is dynamically allocated to a port when it is introduced to the switch. The Domain ID field is defined as: "a unique number provided to each switch in the fabric." Question #2: Do Domain IDs only apply to switch ports? For example what would the Domain ID be for a HBA? None? The same as the switch port it is connected to? Question #3: My last question is about the Name Server of a switch. A book example shows the routing of a message through the switch. It uses the WWNs of the source and destination ports to route the message. I am assuming that the Name Server must associate the WWN and the FC address in some way in order to route the message, correct?

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  • Cisco 3560+ipservices -- IGMP snooping issue with TTL=1

    - by Jander
    I've got a C3560 with Enhanced (IPSERVICES) image, routing multicast between its VLANs with no external multicast router. It's serving a test environment where developers may generate multicast traffic on arbitrary addresses. Everything is working fine except when someone sends out multicast traffic with TTL=1, in which case the multicast packet suppression fails and the traffic is broadcast to all members of the VLAN. It looks to me like because the TTL is 1, the multicast routing subsystem doesn't see the packets, so it doesn't create a mroute table entry. If I send out packets with TTL=2 briefly, then switch to TTL=1 packets, they are filtered correctly until the mroute entry expires. My question: is there some trick to getting the switch to filter the TTL=1 packets, or am I out of luck? Below are the relevant parts of the config, with a representative VLAN interface. I can provide more info as needed. #show run ... ip routing ip multicast-routing distributed no ip igmp snooping report-suppression ! interface Vlan44 ip address 172.23.44.1 255.255.255.0 no ip proxy-arp ip pim passive ... #show ip igmp snooping vlan 44 Global IGMP Snooping configuration: ------------------------------------------- IGMP snooping : Enabled IGMPv3 snooping (minimal) : Enabled Report suppression : Disabled TCN solicit query : Disabled TCN flood query count : 2 Robustness variable : 2 Last member query count : 2 Last member query interval : 1000 Vlan 44: -------- IGMP snooping : Enabled IGMPv2 immediate leave : Disabled Multicast router learning mode : pim-dvmrp CGMP interoperability mode : IGMP_ONLY Robustness variable : 2 Last member query count : 2 Last member query interval : 1000

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  • How can I switch from a custom linux network namespace back to the default one?

    - by Martin
    With ip netns exec you can execute a command in a custom network namespace - but is there also a way to execute a command in the default namespace? For example, after executing these two commands: sudo ip netns add test_ns sudo ip netns exec test_ns bash How can the newly created bash execute programs in the default network namespace? There is no ip netns exec default or anything similar as far as I've found. My scenario is: I want to run a SSH server in a separate network namespace (to keep the rest of the system unaware of the network connection, as the system is used for network testing), but want to be able to execute programs in the default network namespace via the SSH connection. What I've found out so far: Created network namespaces are listed as files under /var/run/netns (but there is no file for the default namespace) The ip netns exec code can be found here: http://git.kernel.org/cgit/linux/kernel/git/shemminger/iproute2.git/tree/ip/ipnetns.c#n132 - I haven't grasped everything that it is doing yet, but it doesn't look very promising. ip netns identify $$ as suggested by Howto query and change network namespace on linux? returns nothing when in the default network namespace

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  • Debian Wheezy IPv6 isn't configured with ifup post-up hook

    - by aef
    We recently set up a server on Debian Wheezy Beta 3 (x86_64) which has a native IPv6 connection. We configured the eth0 interface to get the IPv6 configuration through some post-up hook commands in /etc/network/interfaces. The result is, that after the booting the system up, there is only IPv4 and an auto-configured link-local IPv6 address configured on the interface, as if the command has never been executed. When we additionally place the commands after the call to ifup -a inside the /etc/init.d/networking init script, everything works as expected and we have a fully configured interface after booting up. This is quite an ugly way to configure the interface. What are we doing wrong with the ifup post-up hooks? Or is this a bug? The section from /etc/network/interfaces looks like this (IP-addresses changed): allow-hotplug eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 1.2.3.1 netmask 255.255.255.192 network 1.2.3.0 broadcast 1.2.3.63 gateway 1.2.3.62 dns-nameservers 8.8.8.8 dns-search mydomain.tld post-up ip -6 addr add 2001:db8:100:3022::2 dev eth0 post-up ip -6 route add fe80::1 dev eth0 post-up ip -6 route add default via fe80::1 dev eth0 I also tried it in this alternative way: auto eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 1.2.3.1 netmask 255.255.255.192 network 1.2.3.0 broadcast 1.2.3.63 gateway 1.2.3.62 dns-nameservers 8.8.8.8 dns-search mydomain.tld iface eth0 inet6 static address 2001:db8:100:3022::2 netmask 64 gateway fe80::1 What we added to /etc/init.d/networking: … case "$1" in start) process_options check_ifstate if [ "$CONFIGURE_INTERFACES" = no ] then log_action_msg "Not configuring network interfaces, see /etc/default/networking" exit 0 fi set -f exclusions=$(process_exclusions) log_action_begin_msg "Configuring network interfaces" if ifup -a $exclusions $verbose && ifup_hotplug $exclusions $verbose # Our additions ip -6 addr add 2001:db8:100:3022::2 dev eth0 ip -6 route add fe80::1 dev eth0 ip -6 route add default via fe80::1 dev eth0 then log_action_end_msg $? else log_action_end_msg $? fi ;; …

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  • Cisco RV042 VPN with Dynamic IPs - Remote Gateway Not Resolving

    - by Rister
    I have an existing network setup that I inherited from my predecessor. Currently there are two sites, each with a Linksys RV042 VPN router running the 1.3.12.19-tm firmware. They are currently set up with a Gateway to Gateway VPN. One site has a static IP, the other has a Dynamic IP with a hostname set up on no-ip.com. My company is looking to set up another site so I purchased another RV042 only this one was Cisco branded and it is running the latest firmware. I had assumed that I would be able to configure a vpn from our main office (the dynamic ip) to the new site with this router quite easily. However when I set up a new VPN tunnel on either device, it stays on Waiting for Connection and the Remote Gateway shows an ip address of 0.0.0.0 rather than the remote ip address. The other VPN tunnel is still working and I don't see any obvious misconfiguration on the new router. It seems that the router is not resolving the Dynamic DNS address and therefore not giving me the option to connect the VPN. Does a Gateway to Gateway VPN work with Dynamic IP addresses on each end? Are the firmware versions not compatible? Is there something I've missed?

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  • Configuring Vmware virtual machines to run under different IPs and PC specs

    - by Alex
    Right now I'm using a simple VmWare virtual machine with preinstalled Win 7. The IP is assigned automatically (it's the same as main OS IP). Is it possible to create several virtual machines that have different hardware specifications and different IP addresses? Here is what I mean regarding these issues: Specs: Certainly, you can easily change some specifications in the Settings menu (RAM size, HDD size), but what about advanced settings? For example: advanced settings for the Processor: is it AMD (2500+,4000+, etc.. ) or Intel (core 2, Pentium, etc..) Ram - is it Corsair 4 Gb 1333 Mhz or Kingston 2 x 2 Gb 866Mhz or something else? Hdd - Is it Seagate Barracuda 80 gb 5400 Rpm or is it Samsung 500Gb 7200 Rpm or some random SSD? Programs that work under a Virtual Machine shouldn't have a clue if that's a VmWare or not. IPs: Every program that's launched under main OS use the real IP: 93.56.xx.xx All programs that are launched under virtual machine A use IP 1: 74.78.xx.xx All programs that are launched under virtual machine B use IP 2: 84.159.xx.xx I believe that you have to use either VPN or Proxy to solve this problem. The Sum Up: The idea is to create 2-3 independent virtual machines with different hardware specifications and IP addresses. Programs that work under a certain Virtual Machine shouldn't have a clue if that's a VmWare or the real PC. Any ideas/tips or experience regarding configuration will be appreciated!

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  • OpenVPN bridge network from routed clients

    - by gphilip
    I have the following setup: subnet 1 - 10.0.1.0/24 with a machine used as NAT and also running an OpenVPN client subnet 2 - 192.168.1/24 with an OpenVPN server (the server in subnet 1 connect here) subnet 3 - 10.0.2.0/24 that uses the NAT machine (subnet 1) to access the internet, so all non-local traffic is routed there to the eth0 interface The OpenVPN client creates the tun0 interface and appropriate routing so that I can access machines from 192.168.1/24 [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# telnet 192.168.1.186 8081 Trying 192.168.1.186... Connected to 192.168.1.186. Escape character is '^]'. [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 0.0.0.0 10.0.1.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 10.8.0.1 10.8.0.5 255.255.255.255 UGH 0 0 0 tun0 10.8.0.5 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 tun0 169.254.169.254 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.0.0 10.8.0.5 255.255.0.0 UG 0 0 0 tun0 However, when I try the same from subnet 3, it can't reach that machine. [root@ip-10-0-2-61 ~]# telnet 192.168.1.186 8081 Trying 192.168.1.186... I suspect that it's because subnet 3 is routed to eth0 on the NAT machine in subnet 1 and it cannot jump to tun0. What's the easiest way to resolve it? I don't want to use iptables. I can't change the routing from machines in subnet 1 because it's done in AWS and so it works only with specific interfaces. Also, the NAT machine gets its IP with DHCP and so bridging is a bit complicated. IP forwarding is set on the NAT machine [root@ip-10-0-1-208 ~]# cat /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward 1 Thank you!

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  • One Windows Domain workstation can ping gateway but gets no internet access

    - by dindeman
    One of the (Windows XP SP3) workstations of our Windows Domain could not access internet anymore, this problem suddenly happened overnight. The domain controllers (there are three of them) are all running Windows Server 2008. First I compared the output of ipconfig /all on the faulty workstation with the output of a working workstation and it was just fine as it had always been. In particular the default gateway was correct and always remained pingable from the faulty workstation. I guessed that something was wrong with the DHCP service and I restarted the DHCP server service on all of our three DCs as well as the DHCP client service on the faulty workstation. This didn't solve the issue. I then thought of renewing the DHCP lease with ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew and here is my first question: why did this never work? The same IP address (192.168.0.45) kept being assigned despite all my attempts to renew it (note that all our workstation are getting their TCP/IP automatically.) Even by leaving the domain and changing the computer name the same address was yet again obtained... Anyway I then proceeded to switch the TCP/IP configuration for that machine manually to another free valid IP address (192.168.0.41)... and then the internet access came back! I then cleared any traces of the previous IP in the DHCP leases list and in the DNS tables of our DCs and, after setting back the TCP/IP configuration to 'automatic', finally, the new lease would be granted (192.168.0.41) alongside with the internet access. My second question: what went suddenly wrong with the original IP address?

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  • Possible for linux bridge to intercept traffic?

    - by A G
    I have a linux machine setup as a bridge between a client and a server; brctl addbr0 brctl addif br0 eth1 brctl addif br0 eth2 ifconfig eth1 0.0.0.0 ifconfig eth2 0.0.0.0 ip link set br0 up I also have an application listening on port 8080 of this machine. Is it possible to have traffic destined for port 80 to be passed to my application? I have done some research and it looks like it could be done using ebtables and iptables. Here is the rest of my setup: //set the ebtables to pass this traffic up to ip for processing; DROP on the broute table should do this ebtables -t broute -A BROUTING -p ipv4 --ip-proto tcp --ip-dport 80 -j redirect --redirect-target DROP //set iptables to forward this traffic to my app listening on port 8080 iptables -t mangle -A PREROUTING -p tcp --dport 80 -j TPROXY --on-port 8080 --tproxy-mark 1/1 iptables -t mangle -A PREROUTING -p tcp -j MARK --set-mark 1/1 //once the flows are marked, have them delivered locally via loopback interface ip rule add fwmark 1/1 table 1 ip route add local 0.0.0.0/0 dev lo table 1 //enable ip packet forwarding echo 1 > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward However nothing is coming into my application. Am I missing anything? My understanding is that the target DROP on the broute BROUTING chain will push it up to be processed by iptables. Secondly, are there any other alternatives I should investigate? Edit: IPtables gets it at nat PREROUTING, but it looks like it drops after that; the INPUT chain (in either mangle or filter) doesn't see the packet.

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  • What other ways can I load balance EC2 servers without using Elastic Load Balancing?

    - by undefined
    I have a web application that consists of a web server managed by a web hosting firm, a set of EC2 instances in amazons cloud and a MySQL database (hosted on the webserver). MySQL is behind a firewall and is set to allow access from Localhost and from a single IP address which is an Amazon Elastic IP address that is attached to the EC2 instance I have been running up to now. The problem is that I want to look at my scaling up and load balancing strategy for my EC2 instance. To this end I have been investigating the Elastic Load Balancers and Autoscaling tools that Amazon provides and have managed to set this up fine but for one thing - connecting to the MySQL database running on my webserver. I realised (thanks to answers on Serverfault) that I needed to check firewall settings and add the IP address for the load balancer, however Elastic Load Balancers provide you with a DNS name, not an IP address and infact the IP addresses change over time so this will not work. I have been told by the company hosting the database that the way the firewall works is to look up the IP address of the DNS name and store the IP rather than the DNS name. so basically this will not work and the only way to allow access would be to open up the SQL port to allow access from anyone! Is this a viable idea? Should I look at moving my database into the cloud? Is there another firewall that the server company can use? Should I find another way of load balancing (if so what?) tricky one eh? any help appreciated!

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  • why DKIM bad signature

    - by Ashish
    Hi, I have setup a postfix mail receiving server. On this I am using DKIM milter to verify incoming mail DKIM signatures. From some email clients I am getting the following 'bad signature data' error: Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) no signing domain match for `gmail.com' Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) no signing subdomain match for `gmail.com' Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) no signing keylist match for `[email protected]' Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) not internal Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) not authenticated Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: (unknown-jobid) mode select: verifying Jun 7 02:10:09 ip-10-194-99-63 dkim-filter[27964]: BA6E210015D: bad signature data Jun 7 02:10:10 ip-10-194-99-63 postfix/cleanup[30131]: BA6E210015D: milter-reject: END-OF-MESSAGE from mail-pv0-f176.google.com[74.125.83.176]: 5.7.0 bad DKIM signature data; from=<[email protected]> to=<[email protected]> proto=ESMTP helo=<mail-pv0-f176.google.com> can anybody give me any clue why I am getting the above error in my postfix logs and what remedies I can put in to rectify or workaround this or warn the sender. Thanks in advance Ashish Sharma

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  • getting base url of web site's root (absolute/relative url)

    - by uzay95
    I want to completely understand how to use relative and absolute url address in static and dynamic files. ~ : / : .. : in a relative URL indicates the parent directory . : refers to the current directory / : always replaces the entire pathname of the base URL // : always replaces everything from the hostname onwards This example is easy when you are working without virtual directory. But i am working on virtual directory. Relative URI Absolute URI about.html http://WebReference.com/html/about.html tutorial1/ http://WebReference.com/html/tutorial1/ tutorial1/2.html http://WebReference.com/html/tutorial1/2.html / http://WebReference.com/ //www.internet.com/ http://www.internet.com/ /experts/ http://WebReference.com/experts/ ../ http://WebReference.com/ ../experts/ http://WebReference.com/experts/ ../../../ http://WebReference.com/ ./ http://WebReference.com/html/ ./about.html http://WebReference.com/html/about.html I want to simulate a site below, like my project which is working on virtual directory. These are my aspx and ascx folder http://hostAddress:port/virtualDirectory/MainSite/ASPX/default.aspx http://hostAddress:port/virtualDirectory/MainSite/ASCX/UserCtrl/login.ascx http://hostAddress:port/virtualDirectory/AdminSite/ASPX/ASCX/default.aspx These are my JS Files(which will be use both with the aspx and ascx files): http://hostAddress:port/virtualDirectory/MainSite/JavascriptFolder/jsFile.js http://hostAddress:port/virtualDirectory/AdminSite/JavascriptFolder/jsFile.js this is my static web page address(I want to show some pictures and run inside some js functions): http://hostAddress:port/virtualDirectory/HTMLFiles/page.html this is my image folder http://hostAddress:port/virtualDirectory/Images/PNG/arrow.png http://hostAddress:port/virtualDirectory/Images/GIF/arrow.png if i want to write and image file's link in my ASPX file i should write aspxImgCtrl.ImageUrl = Server.MapPath("~")+"/Images/GIF/arrow.png"; But if i want to write the path hard coded or from javascript file, what kind of url address it should be?

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  • PF, load balanced gateways, and Squid

    - by Santa
    Hi, So I have a FreeBSD router running PF and Squid, and it has three network interfaces: two connected to upstream providers (em0 and em1 respectively), and one for LAN (re0) that we serve. There is some load balancing configured with PF. Basically, it routes all traffic to ports 1-1024 through one interface (em0) and everything else through the other (em1). Now, I have a Squid proxy also running on the box that transparently redirects any HTTP request from LAN to port 3128 in 127.0.0.1. Since Squid redirects this request to HTTP outside, it should follow the load balancing rule through em0, no? The problem is, when we tested it out (by browsing from a computer in the LAN to http://whatismyip.com, it reports the external IP of the em1 interface! When we turn Squid off, the external IP of em0 is reported, as expected. How do I make Squid behave with the load balancing rule that we have set up? Here's the related settings in /etc/pf.conf that I have: ext_if1="em1" # DSL ext_if2="em0" # T1 int_if="re0" ext_gw1="x.x.x.1" ext_gw2="y.y.y.1" int_addr="10.0.0.1" int_net="10.0.0.0/16" dsl_ports = "1024:65535" t1_ports = "1:1023" ... squid=3128 rdr on $int_if inet proto tcp from $int_net \ to any port 80 -> 127.0.0.1 port $squid pass in quick on $int_if route-to lo0 inet proto tcp \ from $int_net to 127.0.0.1 port $squid keep state ... # load balancing pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if1 $ext_gw1) \ proto tcp from $int_net to any port $dsl_ports keep state pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if1 $ext_gw1) \ proto udp from $int_net to any port $dsl_ports pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if2 $ext_gw2) \ proto tcp from $int_net to any port $t1_ports keep state pass in on $int_if route-to ($ext_if2 $ext_gw2) \ proto udp from $int_net to any port $t1_ports Thanks!

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  • How can I work around WinXP using ports 1025-5000 as ephemeral?

    - by Chris Dolan
    If you create a TCP client socket with port 0 instead of a non-zero port, then the operating system chooses any free ephemeral port for you. Most OSes choose ephemeral ports from the IANA dynamic port range of 49152-65535. However in Windows Server 2003 and earlier (including XP) Microsoft used ports 1025-5000 as the ephemeral range, according to their bind() documentation. I run multiple Java services on the same hardware. On rare occasions, this range collides with well-known ports that I use for other services (e.g. port 4160 for Jini discovery). While rare, this has caused real problems. Is there any easy way to tell Windows or Java to use a different port range for client sockets? Microsoft's docs indicate that I can change the high end of that range via the MaxUserPort TcpIP registry setting, but I see no way to change the low end. Update: I've made some progress on this. It looks like Microsoft has a concept of reserved ports that are exceptions to the ephemeral port range. There's a registry setting that lets you change this permanently and apparently there must be an API to do the same thing because there's a data structure that holds high/low values for reserved port ranges, but I can't find the actual function call anywhere... The registry solution may work, but now I'm fixated on this API.

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  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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  • how to do validations when composing object of a class in other class ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I have an IPAddress class which has one property named ip and in its setter I am validating data coming and if data is invalid it throws an error. (Its code is as the following): private string ip; public string IP { get { return ip; } set { string PartsOfIP = value.Split('.'); if (PartsOfIP.Length == 4) { foreach (string part in PartsOfIP) { int a = 0; bool result = int.TryParse(part, out a); if (result != true) { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } else { ip = value; } } } else { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } } In User Class I want to compose an object of IPAddress class. I am doing validations for properties of User in User class and validations of Ip in IPAddress class. My question is how I will compose IPAddress object in UserClass and what will be syntax for this ? If I again mention get and set here with IPAddress object in User class will my earlier mentioned (in IPAddress class) getter and setter work ? plz advice me in details thanks

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