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  • WebSocket handshake with Ruby and EM::WebSocket::Server

    - by Chad Johnson
    I am trying to create a simple WebSocket connection in JavaScript against my Rails app. I get the following: WebSocket connection to 'ws://localhost:4000/' failed: Error during WebSocket handshake: 'Sec-WebSocket-Accept' header is missing What am I doing wrong? Here is my code: JavaScript: var socket = new WebSocket('ws://localhost:4000'); socket.onopen = function() { var handshake = "GET / HTTP/1.1\n" + "Host: localhost\n" + "Upgrade: websocket\n" + "Connection: Upgrade\n" + "Sec-WebSocket-Key: x3JJHMbDL1EzLkh9GBhXDw==\n" + "Sec-WebSocket-Protocol: quote\n" + "Sec-WebSocket-Version: 13\n" + "Origin: http://localhost\n"; socket.send(handshake); }; socket.onmessage = function(data) { console.log(data); }; Ruby: require 'rubygems' require 'em-websocket-server' module QuoteService class WebSocket < EventMachine::WebSocket::Server def on_connect handshake_response = "HTTP/1.1 101 Switching Protocols\n" handshake_response << "Upgrade: websocket\n" handshake_response << "Connection: Upgrade\n" handshake_response << "Sec-WebSocket-Accept: HSmrc0sMlYUkAGmm5OPpG2HaGWk=\n" handshake_response << "Sec-WebSocket-Protocol: quote\n" send_message(handshake_response) end def on_receive(data) puts 'RECEIVED: ' + data end end end EventMachine.run do print 'Starting WebSocket server...' EventMachine.start_server '0.0.0.0', 4000, QuoteService::WebSocket puts 'running' end The handshake headers are per Wikipedia.

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  • Forcing UIInterfaceOrientation changes on iPhone

    - by Andiih
    I'm strugging with getting an iPhone application which requires just about every push or pop in the Nav Controller Stack to change orientation. Basically the first view is portrait, the second landscape the third portrait again (Yes I know this is less than ideal, but that's the design and I've got to implement it). I've been through various advice on here.... http://stackoverflow.com/questions/995723/how-do-i-detect-a-rotation-on-the-iphone-without-the-device-autorotating http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1824682/force-portrait-orientation-on-pushing-new-view-to-uinavigationviewcontroller http://stackoverflow.com/questions/181780/is-there-a-documented-way-to-set-the-iphone-orientation But without total success. Setting to link against 3.1.2 my reading of the linked articles above seems to indicate that if my portrait view pushes a view with - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { // Return YES for supported orientations return ((interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight) ); } Then then that view should appear rotated to landscape. What happens is it appears in its "broken" portrait form, then rotates correctly as the device is turned. If I pop the controller back to my portrait view (which has an appropriate shouldAutoRotate...) then that remains in broken landscape view until the device is returned to portrait orientation. I've also tried removing all the shouldautorotate messages, and instead forcing rotation by transforming the view. This kind of works, and I've figured out that by moving the status bar (which is actually hidden in my application) [UIApplication sharedApplication].statusBarOrientation = UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight; the keyboard will appear with the correct orientation when desired. The problem with this approach is that the status bar transform is weird and ugly when you don't have a status bar - a shadow looms over the page with each change. So. What am I missing. 1) Am I wrong in thinking that in 3.1.2 (or possibly earlier) shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation should provide the desired orientation simply by pushing controllers ? 2) Is there another way of getting keyboards to appear in the correct orientation. 3) Are the undocumented API calls the way to go (please no!)

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  • Calling a MVC2 partial view using jquery returns empty string problem

    - by Jason
    I have an issue where I have a partial view that returns some HTML to be displayed. Its called when something is clicked on the page using jquery. The problem is that no matter how I call it, i get back an empty string even though it reports success. This is happening to me using Chrome, going against my local machine. My controller looks like this: public ActionResult MyPartialView() { return PartialView(model); } I have tried jquery using .get(), .post() and .load() and all have the same results. Here is an example using .post(): $.post(url, function (data) { alert(data); }); The result always comes back as an empty string. I can navigate to the partial view in the browser manually and i get back the desired HTML. The URL I am using to call it I resolved fully so it looks like "http://localhost/controller/mypartialview" rather than using the relative path of "/controller/mypartialview" which I thought was the original problem. Any idea what may cause this?

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  • Is Appcelerator Titanium now banned on the iPhone?

    - by altuzar
    This question has been answered quite clearly for MonoTouch here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2604033/is-monotouch-now-banned-on-the-iphone But what about Appcelerator Titanium? The new TOS from Apple and their iPhone 4 OS: 3.3.1 — Applications may only use Documented APIs in the manner prescribed by Apple and must not use or call any private APIs. Applications must be originally written in Objective-C, C, C++, or JavaScript as executed by the iPhone OS WebKit engine, and only code written in C, C++, and Objective-C may compile and directly link against the Documented APIs (e.g., Applications that link to Documented APIs through an intermediary translation or compatibility layer or tool are prohibited). Titanium uses JavaScript but is not executed be the iPhone OS WebKit engine directly. In their Developer blog, Jeff Haynie says Titanium is on the clear, but I don't know if they are in denial. It’s our belief that we are fully in compliance with iPhone OS 4.0 ToS as we interpret them. I haven't found any official word by Apple, only opinions. And I'm quite confussed. I'm not writing another line of code for my App until... you know.

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  • Ado.net dataservices BeginExecuteBatch call works on development fails on production server with Obj

    - by Mike Morley
    We have an ado.net dataservices 1.0 call that is being passed to a [WebGet] service operation as a batch through BeginExecuteBatch. Everything works perfectly on our development server - we have the project configured to use IIS instead of the cassini web server to make it as close to our production server as we can. When we publish to the production server, all the service operations work perfectly except the batch call, which fails with Object does not match target type. . I have not been able to find any cause for this. I can even run a single non-batch style GET operation against the [WebGet] service by copying the URL used in the batch and pasting it in a browser. I have not been able to find any information to help me solve this - any guidance would be most appreciated. Thanks, Mike M. Error message From Fiddler: HTTP/1.1 500 Internal Server Error Content-Type: application/xml DataServiceVersion: 1.0; An error occurred while processing this request. Object does not match target type. System.Reflection.TargetException at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.CheckConsistency(Object target) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks) at System.Reflection.RuntimeMethodInfo.Invoke(Object obj, BindingFlags invokeAttr, Binder binder, Object[] parameters, CultureInfo culture) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.CreateFirstSegment(IDataService service, String identifier, Boolean checkRights, String queryPortion, Boolean& crossReferencingUrl) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.CreateSegments(String[] segments, IDataService service) at System.Data.Services.RequestUriProcessor.ProcessRequestUri(Uri absoluteRequestUri, IDataService service) at System.Data.Services.DataService`1.BatchDataService.HandleBatchContent(Stream responseStream)

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  • Using M2Crypto to save and load X509 certs in pem files

    - by Brock Pytlik
    I would expect that if I have a X509 cert as an object in memory, saved it as a pem file, then loaded it back in, I would end up with the same cert I started with. This seems not to be the case however. Let's call the original cert A, and the cert loaded from the pem file B. A.as_text() is identical to B.as_text(), but A.as_pem() differs from B.as_pem(). To say the least, I'm confused by this. As a side note, if A has been signed by another entity C, then A will verify against C's cert, but B will not. I've put together a tiny sample program to demonstrate what I'm seeing. When I run this, the second RuntimeError is raised. Thanks, Brock #!/usr/bin/python2.6 import M2Crypto as m2 import time cur_time = m2.ASN1.ASN1_UTCTIME() cur_time.set_time(int(time.time()) - 60*60*24) expire_time = m2.ASN1.ASN1_UTCTIME() # Expire certs in 1 hour. expire_time.set_time(int(time.time()) + 60 * 60 * 24) cs_rsa = m2.RSA.gen_key(1024, 65537, lambda: None) cs_pk = m2.EVP.PKey() cs_pk.assign_rsa(cs_rsa) cs_cert = m2.X509.X509() # These two seem the minimum necessary to make the as_text function call work # at all cs_cert.set_not_before(cur_time) cs_cert.set_not_after(expire_time) # This seems necessary to fill out the complete cert without errors. cs_cert.set_pubkey(cs_pk) # I've tried with the following set lines commented out and not commented. cs_name = m2.X509.X509_Name() cs_name.C = "US" cs_name.ST = "CA" cs_name.OU = "Fake Org CA 1" cs_name.CN = "www.fakeorg.dex" cs_name.Email = "[email protected]" cs_cert.set_subject(cs_name) cs_cert.set_issuer_name(cs_name) cs_cert.sign(cs_pk, md="sha256") orig_text = cs_cert.as_text() orig_pem = cs_cert.as_pem() print "orig_text:\n%s" % orig_text cs_cert.save_pem("/tmp/foo") tcs = m2.X509.load_cert("/tmp/foo") tcs_text = tcs.as_text() tcs_pem = tcs.as_pem() if orig_text != tcs_text: raise RuntimeError( "Texts were different.\nOrig:\n%s\nAfter load:\n%s" % (orig_text, tcs_text)) if orig_pem != tcs_pem: raise RuntimeError( "Pems were different.\nOrig:\n%s\nAfter load:\n%s" % (orig_pem, tcs_pem))

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  • .NET C#: WebBrowser control Navigate() does not load targeted URL

    - by Dave
    Hey guys, I'm trying to programmatically load a web page via the WebBrowser control with the intent of testing the page & it's JavaScript functions. Basically, I want to compare the HTML & JavaScript run through this control against a known output to ascertain whether there is a problem. However, I'm having trouble simply creating and navigating the WebBrowser control. The code below is intended to load the HtmlDocument into the WebBrowser.Document property: WebBrowser wb = new WebBrowser(); wb.AllowNavigation = true; wb.Navigate("http://www.google.com/"); When examining the web browser's state via Intellisense after Navigate() runs, the WebBrowser.ReadyState is 'Uninitialized', WebBrowser.Document = null, and it overall appears completely unaffected by my call. On a contextual note, I'm running this control outside of a Windows form object: I do not need to load a window or actually look at the page. Requirements dictate the need to simply execute the page's JavaScript and examine the resultant HTML. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated, thanks!

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  • Linking to MSVC DLL from MinGW

    - by IndigoFire
    I'm trying to link the LizardTech GeoExpress DSDK into my own application. I use gcc so that we can compile on for platforms. On Linux and Mac this works easily: they provide a static library (libltidsdk.a) and headers and all that we have to do is use them. Compiling for windows isn't so easy. They've built the library using Microsoft Visual Studio, and we use MinGW. I've read the MinGW FAQ, and I'm running into the problems below. The library is all C++, so my first question: is this even possible? Just linking against the dll as provided yields "undefined reference" errors for all of the C++ calls (constructors, desctructors, methods, etc). Based on the MinGW Wiki: http://www.mingw.org/wiki/MSVC%5Fand%5FMinGW%5FDLLs I should be able to use the utility reimp to convert a .lib into something useable. I've tried all of the .lib files provided by LizardTech, and they all give "invalid or corrupt import library". I've tried both version 0.4 and 0.3 of the reimp utility. Using the second method described in the wiki, I've run pexport and dlltool over the dll to get a .a archive, but that produces the same undefined references. BTW: I have read the discussion below. It left some ambiguity as to whether this is possible, and given the MinGW Wiki page it seems like this should be doable. If it is impossible, that's all I need to know. If it can be done, I'd like to know how I can get this to happen. stackoverflow.com/questions/1796209/how-to-link-to-vs2008-generated-libs-from-g Thanks!

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  • How to programmatically set the ContextKey of an AutoComplete Extender placed in a gridviews footer

    - by rism
    As per the thread title I want to programmatically set the ContextKey of an AutoComplete Extender placed in a gridviews footer row. Background is I have a data model that has Territory and Journey Plans for those territories. Customers need to be added to the journey plans but only those customers that belong to the Territory that owns the Journey Plan. In the footer row of my grid I have added a textbox which allows a user to enter account code of customer. Attached to this textbox is an autocomplete extender. I need to do a select against the db for customers with account code like prefix where customer in territory. But there is no way to provide territory id. I thought I could just: <asp:TemplateField HeaderStyle-Width="100" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="Left" HeaderText="LKey" ItemStyle-HorizontalAlign="Left" ItemStyle-Width="100"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblLKey" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("LKey") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="txtLKey" CssClass="sitepagetext" runat="server" MaxLength="15" Width="60" /> <cc1:AutoCompleteExtender ID="Autocompleteextender1" MinimumPrefixLength="4" CompletionInterval="1000" CompletionSetCount="10" ServiceMethod="GetCompletionList" ContextKey="<% this.Controller.TerritoryId %>" TargetControlID="txtLKey" runat="server"> </cc1:AutoCompleteExtender> </FooterTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> for the relevant field in the grid but when the page is run I get the following markup for the autoextender: Sys.Application.add_init(function() { $create(AjaxControlToolkit.AutoCompleteBehavior, {"contextKey":"\u003c% this.Controller.TerritoryId %\u003e","delimiterCharacters":"","id":"ctl00_ctl00_mainContentHolder_serviceContentHolder_qlgvJourneyPlanCustomers_ctl03_Autocompleteextender1","minimumPrefixLength":4,"serviceMethod":"GetCompletionList","servicePath":"/Views/CRM/JourneyPlans/CustomersEditor.aspx","useContextKey":true}, null, null, $get("ctl00_ctl00_mainContentHolder_serviceContentHolder_qlgvJourneyPlanCustomers_ctl03_txtLKey")); }); //]]> </script> ContextKey value doesnt get evaluated. It just uses the literal text. Any thoughts?

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  • SSRS 2008 and SSAS 2008 transport error

    - by dan english
    I am testing an upgrade to SSAS 2008 and verifying existing reports working properly. I am able to get some SSRS reports that are using SSAS as a datasource to run without any issues. They are simple and only have a single dataset. The reports that I am unable to get to work correctly against SSAS 2008 have multiple datasets and have a fitler setup with a data range setup as a parameter. As soon as I setup that filter as a parameter and deploy them the report returns a "The connection either timed out or was lost. Unable to read data from the transport connection: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host" message. The funny thing is that the report works fine when I run it locally in BIDS and it works fine once deployed if I point it to a SSAS 2005 server. Once I point it to the SSAS 2008 server it fails. I can get other reports to work fine, but not the ones with this type of a filter setup. I can see that the start and end date parameter MDX statements get run in the trace, but that is it. After those run then we receive the transport connection message. Another funny thing is that in the production environment the reports are working fine, but that has SSRS 2005 and SSAS 2008. Does this make sense? What could be causing this? I have tried setting the single transaction level on the datasource too, but that does not seem to make a difference.

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  • LINQ to Entities exceptions (ElementAtOrDefault and CompareObjectEqual)

    - by OffApps Cory
    I am working on a shipping platform which will eventually automate shipping through several major carriers. I have a ShipmentsView Usercontrol which displayes a list of Shipments (returned by EntityFramework), and when a user clicks on a shipment item, it spawns a ShipmentEditView and passes the ShipmentID (RecordKey) to that view. I initially wrestled with trying to get the context from the parent (ShipmentsView) and finally gave up resolving to get to it later. I wanted to do this to keep a single instance of the context. anyhow, I now create a new instance of the context in my ShipmentEditViewModel, and query against it for the Shipment record. I know I could just pass the record, but I wanted to use the Ocean Framework that Karl Shifflett wrote and don't want to muck about writing new transition methods. So anyhow, I query and when stepping through, I can see that it returns a record, as soon as execution reached the point where it assigned the query result to the e.Result property, it throws up the following exception depending on the query I used. LINQToEntities Dim RecordID As Decimal = CDec(e.Argument) Dim myResult = From ship In _Context.Shipment _ Where ship.ShipID = e.Argument _ Select ship Select Case myResult.Count Case 0 e.Result = New Shipment Case 1 e.Result = myResult(0) Case Else e.Result = Nothing End Select "LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'System.Object.CompareObjectEqual(System.Object, System.Object, Boolean)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. LINQToEntities via Method calls Dim RecordID As Decimal = CDec(e.Argument) Dim myResult = _Context.Shipment.Where(Function(s) s.ShipID = RecordID) Select Case myResult.Count Case 0 e.Result = New Shipment Case 1 e.Result = myResult(0) Case Else e.Result = Nothing End Select LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'SnazzyShippingDAL.Shipment ElementAtOrDefault[Shipment] (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[SnazzyShippingDAL.Shipment], Int32)' method, and this method cannot be translated into a store expression. I have been trying to get this thing to display a record for like three days. i am seriously thinking about going back and re=-engineering it without the MVVM pattern (which I realize I am only starting to learn and understand) if only to make the &$^%ed thing work. Any help will be muchly appreciated. Cory

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  • How do I use Fluent NHibernate with .NET 4.0?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I want to learn to use Fluent NHibernate, and I'm working in VS2010 Beta2, compiling against .NET 4, but I'm experiencing some problems. Summary My main problem (at the moment) is that the namespace FluentNHibernate isn't available even though I've imported all the .dll assemblies mentioned in this guide. This is what I've done: 1. I downloaded the Fluent NHibernate source from here, extracted the .zip and opened the solution in VS. A dialog asked me if I wanted to convert the solution to a VS2010 solution, so I did. 2. I then went into each project's properties and configured all of them to compile for .NET 4, and built the entire solution. 3. I copied all the .dll files from /bin/Debug/ in the FluentNHibernate to a new folder on my local hard drive. 4. In my example project, I referenced FluentNHibernate.dll and NHibernate.dll from the new folder. This is my problem: If I right-click on FluentNHibernate in the References list and select "View in Object Browser...", it shows up correctly. Now, when I try to create a mapping class, I can't import FluentNHibernate. This code: using FluentNHibernate.Mapping; namespace FluentNHExample.Mappings { } generates an error on the using statement, saying The type or namespace 'FluentNHibernate' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?). The FluentNHibernate assembly is still in the list of References of my project, but if I try to browse the assembly in Object Browser again, it can't be found. What is causing this?

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  • Using ViewModel in ASP.NET MVC with FluentValidation

    - by Brian McCord
    I am using ASP.NET MVC with Entity Framework POCO classes and the FluentValidation framework. It is working well, and the validation is happening as it should (as if I were using DataAnnotations). I have even gotten client-side validation working. And I'm pretty pleased with it. Since this is a test application I am writing just to see if I can get new technologies working together (and learn them along the way), I am now ready to experiment with using ViewModels instead of just passing the actual Model to the view. I'm planning on using something like AutoMapper in my service to do the mapping back and forth from Model to ViewModel but I have a question first. How is this going to affect my validation? Should my validation classes (written using FluentValidation) be written against the ViewModel instead of the Model? Or does it need to happen in both places? One of the big deals about DataAnnotations (and FluentValidation) was that you could have validation in one place that would work "everywhere". And it fulfills that promise (mostly), but if I start using ViewModels, don't I lose that ability and have to go back to putting validation in two places? Or am I just thinking about it wrong?

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  • Ext.data.Store, Javascript Arrays and Ext.grid.ColumnModel

    - by Michael Wales
    I am using Ext.data.Store to call a PHP script which returns a JSON response with some metadata about fields that will be used in a query (unique name, table, field, and user-friendly title). I then loop through each of the Ext.data.Record objects, placing the data I need into an array (this_column), push that array onto the end of another array (columns), and eventually pass this to an Ext.grid.ColumnModel object. The problem I am having is - no matter which query I am testing against (I have a number of them, varying in size and complexity), the columns array always works as expected up to columns[15]. At columns[16], all indexes from that point and previous are filled with the value of columns[15]. This behavior continues until the loop reaches the end of the Ext.data.Store object, when the entire arrays consists of the same value. Here's some code: columns = []; this_column = []; var MetaData = Ext.data.Record.create([ {name: 'id'}, {name: 'table'}, {name: 'field'}, {name: 'title'} ]); // Query the server for metadata for the query we're about to run metaDataStore = new Ext.data.Store({ autoLoad: true, reader: new Ext.data.JsonReader({ totalProperty: 'results', root: 'fields', id: 'id' }, MetaData), proxy: new Ext.data.HttpProxy({ url: 'index.php/' + type + '/' + slug }), listeners: { 'load': function () { metaDataStore.each(function(r) { this_column['id'] = r.data['id']; this_column['header'] = r.data['title']; this_column['sortable'] = true; this_column['dataIndex'] = r.data['table'] + '.' + r.data['field']; // This display valid information, through the entire process console.info(this_column['id'] + ' : ' + this_column['header'] + ' : ' + this_column['sortable'] + ' : ' + this_column['dataIndex']); columns.push(this_column); }); // This goes nuts at columns[15] console.info(columns); gridColModel = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ columns: columns });

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  • WiX: Prevent 32-bit installer from running on 64-bit Windows

    - by Tom the Junglist
    Hi everyone, Due to user confusion, our app requires separate installers for 32-bit and 64-bit versions of Windows. While the 32-bit installer runs fine on win64, it has the potential to create support headaches and we would like to prevent this from happening. I want to prevent the 32-bit MSI installer from running on 64-bit Windows machines. To that end I have the following condition: <Condition Message="You are attempting to run the 32-bit installer on a 64-bit version of Windows."> <![CDATA[Msix64 AND (NOT Win64)]]> </Condition> With the Win64 defined like this: <?if $(var.Platform) = "x64"?> <?define PlatformString = "64-bit"?> <?define Win64 ?> <?else?> <?define PlatformString = "32-bit"?> <?endif?> Thing is, I can't get this check to work right. Either it fires all the time, or none of the time. The goal is to check presence of the run-time msix64 variable against the compile-time Win64 variable and throw an error if these don't line up, but the logic is not working how I intend it to. Has anyone come up with a better solution? Thanks! Tom

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  • Alternatives to WPD/WIA on Windows XP?

    - by Marek
    WPD does not work correctly on Windows XP (SP1 if that matters), even if Microsoft states it does. Problem with WPD: IPortableDeviceManager.GetDevices call does not find any devices on Win XP while it finds all connected cameras on Windows 7. A few other people had this same problem with WPD not working on XP, no solution: 1 2 I have decided to reimplement the functionality using WIA. Problem with WIA automation/WIA interfaces: WIA automation offers only silly dialogs when interacting with the camera - I need to rather do this from code Programming against WIA interfaces is recommended to achieve lower level tasks with WIA. I have not found any samples how to use WIA interfaces from C# (also found some indication that this is not possible at all or at least very hard to do) Thus I have looked at WIA 2.0 (wrapper around wiaaut.dll): I am getting HRESULT 0x80210006 (WIA_ERROR_BUSY) for the first time and then HRESULT E_FAIL all the time on Win XP while on Windows 7 the same code works without a problem. I am getting out of options here... Can you recommend an alternative to provide the following features for cameras connected to the computer that works on Windows XP? sends a notification that a picture was taken allows to download the recently taken picture from the camera

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  • AS 400 Performance from .Net iSeries Provider

    - by Nathan
    Hey all, First off, I am not an AS 400 guy - at all. So please forgive me for asking any noobish questions here. Basically, I am working on a .Net application that needs to access the AS400 for some real-time data. Although I have the system working, I am getting very different performance results between queries. Typically, when I make the 1st request against a SPROC on the AS400, I am seeing ~ 14 seconds to get the full data set. After that initial call, any subsequent calls usually only take ~ 1 second to return. This performance improvement remains for ~ 20 mins or so before it takes 14 seconds again. The interesting part with this is that, if the stored procedure is executed directly on the iSeries Navigator, it always returns within milliseconds (no change in response time). I wonder if it is a caching / execution plan issue but I can only apply my SQL SERVER logic to the AS400, which is not always a match. Any suggestions on what I can do to recieve a more consistant response time or simply insight as to why the AS400 is acting in this manner when I was using the iSeries Data Provider for .Net? Is there a better access method that I should use? Just in case, here's the code I am using to connect to the AS400 Dim Conn As New IBM.Data.DB2.iSeries.iDB2Connection(ConnectionString) Dim Cmd As New IBM.Data.DB2.iSeries.iDB2Command("SPROC_NAME_HERE", Conn) Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure Using Conn Conn.Open() Dim Reader = Cmd.ExecuteReader() Using Reader While Reader.Read() 'Do Something End While Reader.Close() End Using Conn.Close() End Using

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  • EDM -> POCO -> WCF (.NET4) But transferring Collections causes IsReadOnly set to TRUE

    - by Gary B
    Ok, this may sound a little 'unorthodox', but...using VS2010 and the new POCO t4 template for Entity Framework (http://tinyurl.com/y8wnkt2), I can generate nice POCO's. I can then use these POCO's (as DTO's) in a WCF service essentially going from EDM all the way through to the client. Kinda what this guys is doing (http://tinyurl.com/yb4bslv), except everything is generated automatically. I understand that an entity and a DTO 'should' be different, but in this case, I'm handling client and server, and there's some real advantages to having the DTO in the model and automatically generated. My problem is, that when I transfer an entity that has a relationship, the client generated collection (ICollection) has the read-only value set, so I can't manipulate that relationship. For example, retrieving an existing Order, I can't add a product to the Products collection client-side...the Products collection is read-only. I would prefer to do a bunch of client side 'order-editing' and then send the updated order back rather than making dozens of server round trips (eg AddProductToOrder(product)). I'd also prefer not to have a bunch of thunking between Entity and DTO. So all-in-all this looks good to me...except for the read-only part. Is there a solution, or is this too much against the SOA grain?

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  • Deserializing a complex JSON result (array of dictionaries) with TouchJSON

    - by jpm
    I did a few tests with TouchJSON last night and it worked pretty well in general for simple cases. I'm using the following code to read some JSON content from a file, and deserialize it: NSString *jsonString = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:@"data.json"]; NSData *jsonData = [jsonString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF32BigEndianStringEncoding]; NSError *error = nil; NSDictionary *items = [[CJSONDeserializer deserializer] deserializeAsDictionary:jsonData error:&error]; NSLog(@"total items: %d", [items count]); NSLog(@"error: %@", [error localizedDescription]); That works fine if I have a very simple JSON object in the file (i.e. a dictionary): {"id": "54354", "name": "boohoo"} This way I was able to get access to the array of values, as I wanted to get the item based on its index within the list: NSArray *items_list = [items allValues]; NSString *name = [items_list objectAtIndex:1]; (I understand that I could have fetched the name with the dictionary API) Now I would like to deserialize a semi-complex JSON string, which represents an array of dictionaries. An example of such a JSON string is below: [{"id": "123456", "name": "touchjson"}, {"id": "3456", "name": "bleh"}] When I try to run the same code above against this new content in the data.json file, I don't get any results back. My NSLog() call says "total items: 0", and no error is coming back in the NSError object. Any clues on what is going on? I'm completely lost on what to do, as there isn't much documentation available for TouchJSON, and much less usage examples.

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  • UIAlertView -show causing a memory leak

    - by Erik
    I'm relatively new to iPhone Development, so this may be my fault, but it goes against what I've seen. :) I think that I'm creating a UIAlertView that lives just in this vaccuum of the 'if' statement. NSData *data = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; if(!data) { // Add an alert UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Error" message:@"Unable to contact server" delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"Ok" otherButtonTitles:nil]; NSLog(@"retain count before show: %i", alert.retainCount); [alert show]; NSLog(@"retain count before release: %i", alert.retainCount); [alert release]; NSLog(@"retain count after release: %i", alert.retainCount); return nil; } However, the console logs baffle me. retain count before show: 1 retain count before release: 6 retain count after release: 5 I've tried also adding: alert = nil; after the release. That makes the retain count 0, but I still show a leak. And if it helps, the leak's Responsible Frame is UIKeyboardInputManagerClassForInputMode. I'm also using OS 4 Beta 3. So anyone have any ideas how a local UIAlertView's retain count would increment itself by 5 when calling -show? Thanks for your help!

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  • LINQ to Entity, using a SQL LIKE operator

    - by Mario
    I have a LINQ to ENTITY query that pulls from a table, but I need to be able to create a "fuzzy" type search. So I need to add a where clause that searches by lastname IF they add the criteria in the search box (Textbox, CAN be blank --- in which case it pulls EVERYTHING). Here is what I have so far: var query = from mem in context.Member orderby mem.LastName, mem.FirstName select new { FirstName = mem.FirstName, LastName = mem.LastName, }; That will pull everything out of the Member table that is in the Entity object. Then I have an addition to the logic: sLastName = formCollection["FuzzyLastName"].ToString(); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(sLastName)) query = query.Where(ln => ln.LastName.Contains(sLastName)); The problem is when the search button is pressed, nothing is returned (0 results). I have run the query against the SQL Server that I expect to happen here and it returns 6 results. This is the query I expect: SELECT mem.LastName, mem.FirstName FROM Members mem WHERE mem.LastName = 'xxx' (when xxx is entered into the textbox) Anyone see anything wrong with this?

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  • Integration test failing through NUnit Gui/Console, but passes through TestDriven in IDE

    - by Cliff
    I am using NHibernate against an Oracle database with the NHibernate.Driver.OracleDataClientDriver driver class. I have an integration test that pulls back expected data properly when executed through the IDE using TestDriven.net. However, when I run the unit test through the NUnit GUI or Console, NHibernate throws an exception saying it cannot find the Oracle.DataAccess assembly. Obviously, this prevents me from running my integration tests as part of my CI process. NHibernate.HibernateException : The IDbCommand and IDbConnection implementation in the assembly Oracle.DataAccess could not be found. Ensure that the assembly Oracle.DataAccess is located in the application directory or in the Global Assembly Cache. If the assembly is in the GAC, use element in the application configuration file to specify the full name of the assembly.* I have tried making the assembly available in two ways, by copying it into the bin\debug folder and by adding the element in the config file. Again, both methods work when executing through TestDriven in the IDE. Neither work when executing through NUnit GUI/Console. The NUnit Gui log displays the following message. 21:42:26,377 ERROR [TestRunnerThread] ReflectHelper [(null)]- Could not load type Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleConnection, Oracle.DataAccess. System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly 'Oracle.DataAccess, Version=2.111.7.20, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89b483f429c47342' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. File name: 'Oracle.DataAccess, Version=2.111.7.20, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=89b483f429c47342' --- System.BadImageFormatException: Could not load file or assembly 'Oracle.DataAccess' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. File name: 'Oracle.DataAccess' I am running NUnit 2.4.8, TestDriven.net 2.24 and VS2008sp1 on Windows 7 64bit. Oracle Data Provider v2.111.7.20, NHibernate v2.1.0.4. Has anyone run into this issue, better yet, fixed it?

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  • Design approach, string table data, variables, stl memory usage

    - by howieh
    I have an old structure class like this: typedef vector<vector<string>> VARTYPE_T; which works as a single variable. This variable can hold from one value over a list to data like a table. Most values are long,double, string or double [3] for coordinates (x,y,z). I just convert them as needed. The variables are managed in a map like this : map<string,VARTYPE_T *> where the string holds the variable name. Sure, they are wrapped in classes. Also i have a tree of nodes, where each node can hold one of these variablemaps. Using VS 2008 SP1 for this, i detect a lot of memory fragmentation. Checking against the stlport, stlport seemed to be faster (20% ) and uses lesser memory (30%, for my test cases). So the question is: What is the best implementation to solve this requirement with fast an properly used memory ? Should i write an own allocator like a pool allocator. How would you do this ? Thanks in advance, Howie

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  • How to validate xml using a .dtd via a proxy and NOT using system.net.defaultproxy

    - by Lanceomagnifico
    Hi, Someone else has already asked a somewhat similar question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1888887/validate-an-xml-file-against-a-dtd-with-a-proxy-c-2-0/2766197#2766197 Here's my problem: We have a website application that needs to use both internal and external resources. We have a bunch of internal webservices. Requests to the CANNOT go through the proxy. If we try to, we get 404 errors since the proxy DNS doesn't know about our internal webservice domains. We generate a few xml files that have to be valid. I'd like to use the provided dtd documents to validate the xml. The dtd urls are outside our network and MUST go through the proxy. Is there any way to validate via dtd through a proxy without using system.net.defaultproxy? If we use defaultproxy, the internal webservices are busted, but the dtd validation works.# Here is what I'm doing to validate the xml right now: public static XDocument ValidateXmlUsingDtd(string xml) { var xrSettings = new XmlReaderSettings { ValidationType = ValidationType.DTD, ProhibitDtd = false }; var sr = new StringReader(xml.Trim()); XmlReader xRead = XmlReader.Create(sr, xrSettings); return XDocument.Load(xRead); } Ideally, there would be some way to assign a proxy to the XmlReader much like you can assign a proxy to the HttpWebRequest object. Or perhaps there is a way to programatically turn defaultproxy on or off? So that I can just turn it on for the call to Load the Xdocument, then turn it off again? FYI - I'm open to ideas on how to tackle this - note that the proxy is located in another domain, and they don't want to have to set up a dns lookup to our dns server for our internal webservice addresses. Cheers, Lance

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  • Change the default SqlCommand CommandTimeout with configuration rather than recompile?

    - by robertc
    I am supporting an ASP.Net 3.5 web application and users are experiencing a timeout error after 30 seconds when trying to run a report. Looking around the web it seems it's easy enough to change the timeout in the code, unfortunately I'm not able to access the code and recompile. Is there anyway to configure the default for either the web app, the worker process, IIS or the whole machine? Here is the stack trace up to the point where it's in System.Data in case I'm missing some other problem: [SqlException (0x80131904): Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +1948826 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4844747 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +2392 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData() +33 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData() +83 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) +297 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) +954 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) +162 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method) +32 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) +141 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteDbDataReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +12 System.Data.Common.DbCommand.System.Data.IDbCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +10 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) +130 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) +162 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable dataTable) +115 --Edit There must be something outside the code itself - I've downloaded the database and run it against the same web site installed on a test server and it runs for longer than 30 seconds and returns the report. I've compared the machine.config and web.config files from the .Net directory on the live and test and they seem the same, compared the two IIS setups, also looked at the SQL Server configuration and the only difference is that the live server is clustered on 64bit W2K3 while the test server is on 32bit.

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