Search Results

Search found 5136 results on 206 pages for 'hit'.

Page 176/206 | < Previous Page | 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183  | Next Page >

  • Looping through covariates in regression using R

    - by Kyle Peyton
    I'm trying to run 96 regressions and save the results as 96 different objects. To complicate things, I want the subscript on one of the covariates in the model to also change 96 times. I've almost solved the problem but I've unfortunately hit a wall. The code so far is, for(i in 1:96){ assign(paste("z.out", i,sep=""), lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_i+ Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies)) } This works on the object creation side (e.g. I have z.out1 - z.out96) but I can't seem to get the subscript on the covariate to change as well. I have 96 variables called TE_1, TE_2 ... TE_96 in the dataset. As such, the subscript on TE_, the "i" needs to change to correspond to each of the objects I create. That is, z.out1 should hold the results from this model: z.out1 <- lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_1 + Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies) And z.out96 should be: z.out96 <- lm(rMonExp_EGM~ TE_96+ Month2+Month3+Month4+Month5+Month6+Month7+Month8+Month9+ Month10+Month11+Month12+Yrs_minus_2004 + as.factor(LGA),data=Pokies) Hopefully this makes sense. I'm grateful for any tips/advice. cheers, kyle

    Read the article

  • Asynchronous javascript issue

    - by amit
    I am trying to create a function which takes values from various html elements of the page to create a string and pass on to a variable. now this works great for all browsers except IE 8 and 9. IE tends to skip the part of fetching the values and goes straight to the variable and finds nothing.. is there a way to sync it all so that it works in IE? function seturl() { var qstring = returnQString(); $('span.keyword').text($.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $('input.search_box').attr('value', $.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $('#hdnSearchKeyword').attr('value', $.trim($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value'))); $(".search_box").val($.trim($("#hdn_span_hdnKeyWord").text())); $(".header_inner input[type='text']").focus(); $(".search_term input[type='text']").focus(); $('#locationurl').attr('value', qstring); } function returnQString(){ var qstring = $.trim($('#locationurl').attr('init')); //initial value of the url qstring += "?type=" + $('#hdnSTSearch').attr('value'); // type of handler hit qstring += "&keyword=" + encodeURIComponent($('#hdnKeyWord').attr('value')); // keyword addition qstring += "&pagestart=" + $('#current_page').attr('value'); // pagestart(current page) addition qstring += "&pagesize=" + $('#show_per_page').attr('value'); // per page size addition qstring += "&facets=" // facetsearch $.each(selectedFilter.items, function (index, value) { qstring += value.filter + ","; }); qstring += "&selectedSection=" + selectedSection // Section Select return qstring; }

    Read the article

  • Cannot create a new VS data connection in Server Explorer

    - by Seventh Element
    I have a local instance of SQL Server 2008 express edition running on my development PC. I'm trying to create a new data connection through Visual Studio Server Explorer. The steps are the following: Right click the "Data Connections" node = Choose Data Source. I select "Microsoft SQL Server" as the data source. The "Add Connection" dialog window appears. I select my local server instance = "Test connection" works fine. I select "AdventureWorks" as the database name = "Test connection" works fine. Next I hit the "Ok" button = Error message: "This server version is not supported. Only servers up to MS SQL Server 2005 are supported." I'm using Visual Studio 2008 Professional Edition. The target framework of the application is ".NET framework 3.5". I have a reference to System.Data (framework v2.0) and cannot find another version of the assembly on my system. Am I referencing the wrong assembly? How can I fix this problem?

    Read the article

  • Anyone Experiencing Slow Builds With VS2010?

    - by MrKWatkins
    Hi, We've recently upgraded to the final release of VS2010 and are experiencing very slow build times compared to the same code under 2008. I was wondering if anyone else is experiencing the same so I can work out whether it's just our environment or not? A few details: Using VS2010 Ultimate on Windows 7 with fairly beefy machines, talking to TFS 2010. The solution has been upgraded from VS2008 but still builds against .NET 3.5 and ASP.NET MVC 1.0. It doesn't seem to be the compilation itself taking long but something else in the build process. This is because even projects that are up to date and don't need compiling are taking a few seconds or so to process. It's not due to an Visual Studio addin because a couple guys in the team haven't installed any. The first build after loading VS2010 is pretty quick, then they seem to slow down over time. For example on of the projects in my solution just took 00:00:00.08 to process after a restart. (The project was up to date and didn't need compiling) I then immediately hit rebuild and it jumps to 00:00:01.33. We're also experiencing the problem with another solution that uses .NET 4.0 that was building perfectly fine under VS2010 RC. There are no build events or anything like that I can blame, just straightforward assembly builds. The IDE is not very responsive during the slow builds. Anyone else has similar problems? Update: It looks like the resolving assembly references is taking a long time. Looking at the MSBuild diagnostic output or the example above the first build has 30ms for ResolveAssemblyReferences, the second build has 800ms. Subsequent builds seem to be taking longer copying stuff around, e.g. CopyFilesToOutputDirectory jumps from 1ms to 27ms.

    Read the article

  • Are workflows good for web service business logic?

    - by JL
    I have a series of complex web services that are getting used in my SOA application. I am generally happy with the overall design of the application, but as the complexity grows, I was wondering if Windows Workflow might be the way to go. My motivations for this are that you can get a graphic representation of the applications functionality, so it would be easier to maintain the code by its business function, rather than what I have now ( a standard 3 tier class library structure). My concerns are: I would be inducing an abstraction in my code, and I don't want to spend time having to deal with possible WF quirks or bugs. I've never worked with WF, is it a solid technology? I don't want to hit any WF limitations that prevent me from developing my solution. Is a WF even the right solution for the task? Simply put I am considering writing my next web service in this app to call a WF, and in this work flow manage the tasks the web service needs to carry out. I think it will be much neater and easier to maintain than a regular c# class library (maintainable by namespaces, classes ). Do you think this is the right thing to do? I'm hoping for positive feedback on WF (.net 4), but brutal honestly at the end of the day would help more. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can I create an activity for a particular task without that task coming to the foreground?

    - by Neil Traft
    Here's my use case: The app starts at a login screen. You enter your credentials and hit the "Login" button. Then a progress dialog appears and you wait for some stuff to download. Once the stuff has downloaded, you are taken to a new activity. Exactly which activity you are taken to depends on the server response. Here's my problem: If you go HOME during this login/download process, at some point in the near future your download will complete and will invoke startActivity(). So then the new activity will be pushed to the foreground, rudely interrupting the user. I can't start the activity before I start the download, because, as I mentioned earlier, the activity I start depends on the result of the download. I would obviously not like to interrupt the user like this. One way to solve this is to refrain from calling startActivity() until the user returns to the app. I can do this by keeping track of the LoginActivity's onStop() and onRestart(). But I'm wondering, is there any way to create the activity while it is in the background? That way the user returns to the app and he is ready to go... otherwise he would have to wait for the new activity to be created (which could take some time because the new activity also has to download and display some data). Update: Guess what? I LIED! I could have sworn that starting this activity was causing it to come to the foreground, but I went back to test it again and the problem has magically disappeared. I tested in both 1.6 and 2.0.1 and both OSes were smart enough not to bring a backgrounded task to the front.

    Read the article

  • Do I need to using locking against integers in c++ threads

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    The title says it all really. If I am accessing a single integer type (e.g. long, int, bool, etc...) in multiple threads, do I need to use a synchronisation mechanism such as a mutex to lock them. My understanding is that as atomic types, I don't need to lock access to a single thread, but I see a lot of code out there that does use locking. Profiling such code shows that there is a significant performance hit for using locks, so I'd rather not. So if the item I'm accessing corresponds to a bus width integer (e.g. 4 bytes on a 32 bit processor) do I need to lock access to it when it is being used across multiple threads? Put another way, if thread A is writing to integer variable X at the same time as thread B is reading from the same variable, is it possible that thread B could end up a few bytes of the previous value mixed in with a few bytes of the value being written? Is this architecture dependent, e.g. ok for 4 byte integers on 32 bit systems but unsafe on 8 byte integers on 64 bit systems? Edit: Just saw this related post which helps a fair bit.

    Read the article

  • What are the javascript performance tradeoffs in adding id's to dom elements?

    - by Blinky
    For example, I have a website which has a dynamically-generated segment of its dom which looks roughly like this: <div id="master"> <div class="child"> ... </div> <div class="child"> ... </div> <div class="child"> ... </div> ... <div class="child"> ... </div> </div> There might be hundreds of child elements in this manner, and they, too, might have yet more children. At present, none of them have id's except for the master. Javascript manipulates them via dom-walking. It's a little scary. I'd like to add id's, e.g.: <div id="master"> <div id="child1" class="child"> ... </div> <div id="child2" class="child"> ... </div> <div id="child3" class="child"> ... </div> ... <div id="childN" class="child"> ... </div> </div> What are the tradeoffs in adding id's to these divs? Certainly, jQuery must maintain a hash of id's, so there's going to be some sort of performance hit. Any general guidelines in when adding additional id's is a bad idea? Is jQuery so awesome that, in practice, it doesn't matter?

    Read the article

  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

    Read the article

  • Insert not working

    - by user1642318
    I've searched evreywhere and tried all suggestions but still no luck when running the following code. Note that some code is commented out. Thats just me trying different things. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection("Data Source=URB900-PC\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=usersSQL;Integrated Security=True"); string password = PasswordTextBox.Text; string email = EmailTextBox.Text; string firstname = FirstNameTextBox.Text; string lastname = SurnameTextBox.Text; //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@UserName", username); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Password", password); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Email", email); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@FirstName", firstname); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@LastName", lastname); command.Parameters.Add("@UserName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@UserName"].Value = username; command.Parameters.Add("@Password", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@Password"].Value = password; command.Parameters.Add("@Email", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@Email"].Value = email; command.Parameters.Add("@FirstName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@FirstName"].Value = firstname; command.Parameters.Add("@LasttName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@LasttName"].Value = lastname; SqlCommand command2 = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO users (UserName, Password, UserEmail, FirstName, LastName)" + "values (@UserName, @Password, @Email, @FirstName, @LastName)", connection); connection.Open(); command2.ExecuteNonQuery(); //command2.ExecuteScalar(); connection.Close(); When I run this, fill in the textboxes and hit the button I get...... Must declare the scalar variable "@UserName". Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • XAMPP, MAMP, MySQL, PDO - A deadly combination?

    - by Rich
    Hey folks, Previously I've worked on a Symfony project (MySQL PDO based) with XAMPP, with no problems. Since then, I've moved to MAMP - I prefer this - but have hit a snag with my database connection. I've created a test.php like this: <?php try { $dbh = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=xxx;port=8889', 'xxx', 'xxx'); foreach($dbh->query('SELECT * from FOO') as $row) { print_r($row); } $dbh = null; } catch (PDOException $e) { print "Error!: " . $e->getMessage() . "<br/>"; die(); } ?> Obviously the *xxx*s are real db connection details. Which when served by MAMP seems to work fine. From terminal however I keep getting the following error when running the file: Error!: SQLSTATE[28000] [1045] Access denied for user 'xxx'@'localhost' (using password: YES) Not sure if the terminal is aiming at a different MySQL socket or something along those lines; but I've tried pointing it to the MAMP socket with a local php.ini file. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Getting values from another winform and passing it to current!

    - by klm9971
    Hello: I have 2 windows forms. The 1st one who gets active during start of the program has a button in which another 2nd windows form appears which has text field in which user type their name and HIT okay. Now in the 1st form I have a variable name: nameproccessed which takes the name from the second form. But the problem is my button which is in the 1st form has more functions besides taking name, how can I stop the flow of the compiler to take first the name from the second form and then process the rest execution of the function??? Here is the snippet of my code: //1st form //Class1 public string _nameProcessed = ""; private void btnGetSomething_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { showdial(); //some more functionalities in this function!!! } private void showdial() { InputName inm = new InputName(); inm.Show(); } //2nd form //Class2 public string name; private void btnEnterName_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { name = tbxName.Text; Class1 ict = new Class1(); ict._nameProcessed = name; this.Close(); } Now I want to take the 'name' from the second form put it on the _nameprocessed in the 1st form and then execute the rest of the function. How can I do that? Any help!

    Read the article

  • Invalid table view update with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:

    - by Crystal
    I'm having trouble with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:. I'm not quite sure how it works. I watched the WWDC 2010 video on it, but I'm still getting an error. I thought I was supposed to update the model, then wrap the insertRowsAtIndexPaths: in the tableView beginUpdates and endUpdates calls. What I have is this: self.customTableArray = (NSMutableArray *)sortedArray; [_customTableView beginUpdates]; [tempUnsortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id obj, NSUInteger idx, BOOL *stop) { [sortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id sortedObj, NSUInteger sortedIdx, BOOL *sortedStop) { if ([obj isEqualToString:sortedObj]) { NSIndexPath *newRow = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:sortedIdx inSection:0]; [_customTableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newRow] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationAutomatic]; *sortedStop = YES; } }]; }]; [_customTableView endUpdates]; customTableArray is my model array. sortedArray is just the sorted version of that array. When I run this code when I hit my plus button to add a new row, I get this error: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (2) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (2 inserted, 0 deleted) and plus or minus the number of rows moved into or out of that section (0 moved in, 0 moved out).' I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Thoughts? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Stopping a MATLAB GUI callback

    - by leonhart88
    Dear All, I have a START and STOP button. When I hit START, i run a bunch of code in my callback. It's basically a sequential "script" that opens valves, dispenses water and then closes the valves...there is no while() loop and it doesn't repeat. I want to be able to stop this process at any time using the STOP button. Most of the related answers I've seen are in the cases where a while() loop is used. Some people have also suggested to periodically check if the STOP button was pressed (using a variable or handle variable). Since I do not have a while loop, I can't solve it that way. Also, I'd like to be able to exit immediately, without having to periodically check (because checking multiple times in my code would be ugly and confusing). Is there a way to terminate the callback which was interrupted by the STOP button? If not, is it possible to have the START button run a .m file and then have the STOP button terminate that .m file? The worst case scenario would be to check a variable periodically. UPDATE: Well, looks like the worst case scenario is what is suggested by MATLAB... http://www.mathworks.com/support/solutions/en/data/1-33IK85/index.html?product=ML&solution=1-33IK85 Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

    - by priehl
    I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do you handle huge if-conditions?

    - by Teifion
    It's something that's bugged me in every language I've used, I have an if statement but the conditional part has so many checks that I have to split it over multiple lines, use a nested if statement or just accept that it's ugly and move on with my life. Are there any other methods that you've found that might be of use to me and anybody else that's hit the same problem? Example, all on one line: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true && var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true){ Example, multi-line: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true && var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true){ Example-nested: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true){     if (var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true)     {

    Read the article

  • Python programming - Windows focus and program process

    - by Zack
    I'm working on a python program that will automatically combine sets of files based on their names. Being a newbie, I wasn't quite sure how to go about it, so I decided to just brute force it with the win32api. So I'm attempting to do everything with virtual keys. So I run the script, it selects the top file (after arranging the by name), then sends a right click command,selects 'combine as adobe PDF', and then have it push enter. This launched the Acrobat combine window, where I send another 'enter' command. The here's where I hit the problem. The folder where I'm converting these things loses focus and I'm unsure how to get it back. Sending alt+tab commands seems somewhat unreliable. It sometimes switches to the wrong thing. A much bigger issue for me.. Different combination of files take different times to combine. though I haven't gotten this far in my code, my plan was to set some arbitrarily long time.sleep() command before it finally sent the last "enter" command to finish and confirm the file name completing the combination process. Is there a way to monitor another programs progress? Is there a way to have python not execute anymore code until something else has finished?

    Read the article

  • Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

    - by pdkl95
    I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

    Read the article

  • Phonegap: Will my mobile app 'feel' faster or slower once ported to phonegap?

    - by user15872
    So I'm designing everything in mobile Safari and I know that phonegap is essentially a stripped webview but... Question: Will my application will run better in phonegap? (revised below) a)I imagine my navigation and core app will load faster as the scripts and images are on the hard drive. Is this True? b)I assume since they've been working on it for 2 years now that they may have made some optimizations to make it quicker than just an average safari window. Is this true? (Assuming both html5/js/css code bases are pretty much the same and app is running on iOS.) Update: Sorry, I meant to compare apples to slightly different apples. Question 1 revised: Will my app see any performance benefits running with in a phonegap environment vs standard mobile safari? (compare mobile - to mobile) 1b) In what ways, other than loading time has phonegap optimized performance over standard mobile safari? Follow ups: 1) Are there any pitfalls, other than large libraries, that may cause phonegap to suffer a serious performance hit vs stand mobile safari? 2) Can I mix native and webview rendering? (i.e the top half of my app is rendered in with html/css/js and the bottom half native)

    Read the article

  • Nested IF statements in Excel [Over the 7 allowed limit]

    - by Alks
    hey guys, i am trying to create a spreadsheet which automagically gives a grade to a student based on their marks they got. I've apparently hit excels nested IF statement limit which is 7. here's my if statement: =IF(O5>0.895,"A+",IF(O5>0.845,"A",IF(O5>0.795,"A-",IF(O5>0.745,"B+",IF(O5>0.695,"B",IF(O5>0.645,"B-",IF(O5>0.595,"C+",IF(O5>0.545,"C","D")))))))) I was reading online that I could create a VBA script and assign it that, but I dont know anything about VBA....so if someone could help me write a VBA for this, would be awesome. Its still mising the C- grade and anything lower should be awarded a D mark. This is the grading scheme I am trying to create...: A+ 89.500 - 100.000 Pass with Distinction A 84.500 - 89.490 Pass with Distinction A- 79.500 - 84.490 Pass with Distinction B+ 74.500 - 79.490 Pass with Merit B 69.500 - 74.490 Pass with Merit B- 64.500 - 69.490 Pass with Merit C+ 59.500 - 64.490 Pass C 54.500 - 59.490 Pass C- 49.500 - 54.490 Pass D 0.000 - 49.490 Specified Fail I wouldn't mind going down the VBA route, however my understanding of VB language is absolutely minimal (don't like it)...if this gets too tedious, I was thinking to create a small php/mysql application instead. Cheers :)

    Read the article

  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

    Read the article

  • Where do I control the behavior of the "X" close button in the upper right of a winform?

    - by John at CashCommons
    I'm venturing into making my VB.NET application a little better to use by making some of the forms modeless. I think I've figured out how to use dlg.Show() and dlg.Hide() instead of calling dlg.ShowDialog(). I have an instance of my modeless dialog in my main application form: Public theModelessDialog As New dlgModeless To fire up the modeless dialog I call theModelessDialog.Show() and within the OK and Cancel button handlers in dlgModeless I have Private Sub OK_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles OK_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK Me.Hide() End Sub Private Sub Cancel_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Cancel_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.Cancel Me.Hide() End Sub and that seems to work fine. The "X" button in the upper right is getting me, though. When I close the form with that button, then try to reopen the form, I get ObjectDisposedException was unhandled. Cannot access a disposed object. I feel like I'm most of the way there but I can't figure out how to do either of the following: Hide that "X" button Catch the event so I don't dispose of the object (just treat it like I hit Cancel) Any ideas? The class of this dialog is System.Windows.Forms.Form. Thanks as always!

    Read the article

  • How can I add two models in one form, where one model is a has_many :through?

    - by Angela
    How do I model having multiple Addresses for a Company and assign a single Address to a Contact? Contacts belong_to a Company. A Company has_many Contacts. A Company also has_many Addresses. And each Contact has_one Address. I want to be able, whenever I create a New Contact, to access all the addresses in all Contacts that belong to the Company. Here is are my Models: class Company < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :phone, :addresses has_many :contacts has_many :addresses, :through => :contacts end class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :first_name, :last_name, :title, :phone, :fax, :email, :company, :date_entered, :campaign_id, :company_name, :address belongs_to :company has_one :address accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :street1 has_many :contacts end How do I create the View in the _form for Contacts so that I can 1) Add an Address when creating a Contact; 2) Display the options of the Address. Here is how I am doing step 1, which is just to add a new address for a new contact: <% f.fields_for :addresses do |builder| %> <p> <%= builder.label :street1, "Street 1" %> </br> <%= builder.text_field :street1 %> <p> Right now, what I have doesn't work. The console says I cannot mass-assign addresses when I hit "submit" on this New contact form.

    Read the article

  • Building a J2EE dev/test setup on a single PC

    - by John
    It's been a while since I did Java work, and even then I was never responsible for starting a large project from the very start... there were test/staging/production systems already running, etc, etc. Now I am looking to start a J2EE project from scratch on my trusty workstation, which has never been used for Java development and runs Windows 7 64bit. First of all, I'll be getting Eclipse. As far as writing the code goes I'm pretty happy. And running it through Eclipse is OK, but what I'd really want is to have a VM running MySQL and TomCat on which I can properly deploy my project and run/debug it 'remotely' from my dev PC. And I guess this should be done using Ant instead of letting Eclipse build the WAR for me, so that I don't end up with a dependence on Eclipse. I'm certain Eclipse can do this, so you hit a button and it runs Ant scripts, deploys and debugs for instance, but very hazy on it. Are there any good guides on this? I don't want to be taught Java, or even Ant, but rather the 'glue' parts like getting my test VM up and running under Windows, getting a build/test/deploy/run pipeline running through Eclipse, etc. One point, I only plan to use Windows... hosting a Windows VM on my Windwos desktop. And while I can use command-line tools like ant/svn, I'm much more a GUI person who loves IDE integration... I'd rather this didn't end up an argument about Linux or Vi, etc! I am looking for free, but am a MAPS subscriber, and run Win7 Ultimate in case that makes a difference as far as free VM solutions.

    Read the article

  • Beginner MVC question - Correct approach to render out a List and details?

    - by fizzer
    I'm trying to set up a page where I display a list of items and the details of the selected item. I have it working but wonder whether I have followed the correct approach. I'll use customers as an example I have set the aspx page to inherit from an IEnumerable of Customers. This seems to be the standard approach to display the list of items. For the Details I have added a Customer user control which inherits from customer. I think i'm on the right track so far but I was a bit confused as to where I should store the id of the customer whose details I intend to display. I wanted to make the id optional in the controller action so that the page could be hit using "/customers" or "customers/1" so I made the arg optional and stored the id in the ViewData like this: public ActionResult Customers(string id = "0") { Models.DBContext db = new Models.DBContext(); var cList = db.Customers.OrderByDescending(c => c.CustomerNumber); if (id == "0") { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = cList.First().CustomerNumber.ToString(); } else { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = id; } return View("Customers", cList); } I then rendered the User control using RenderPartial in the front end: <%var CustomerList = from x in Model where x.CustomerNumber == Convert.ToInt32(ViewData["CustomerNumber"]) select x; Customer c = (Customer)CustomerList.First(); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Customer",c); %> Then I just have an actionLink on each listed item: <%: Html.ActionLink("Select", "Customers", new { id = item.CustomerNumber })% It all seems to work but as MVC is new to me I would just be interested in others thoughts on whether this is a good approach?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183  | Next Page >