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• XY-Scatter Chart In SSRS Won't Display Points

  - by Dalin Seivewright

  I'm a bit confused with this one. I have a Dataset with a BackupDate and a BackupTime as well as a BackupType. The BackupDate is comprised of 12 characters from the left of a datetime string within a table. The BackupTime is comprised of 8 characters from the right of that same datetime string. So for example: BackupDate would be 'December 12 2008' and the BackupTime would be '12:53PM.' I have added an XY-scatter chart to the report. I've added a 'series' value for the BackupType (so one can distinguish between a Full/Incr/Log backup). I've added a category value of BackupDate and set the Scale for the X-axis from the Min of BackupDate to the Max of BackupDate. I've then added an item to the Values with the Y variable set to BackupTime and the X variable set to BackupDate. The interval for the Y-axis is 12:00AM to 11:59PM and the formatting for the labels is 'hh:mmtt'. The BackupTime matches the format of the Y-axis. The BackupDate matches the format of the X-axis. 10 entries are retrieved by my Dataset and the Legend is properly populated by the BackupType field. No points are being plotted on the graph and no markers/pointers are shown if they are enabled. There should be a point on the graph for every point in time of each day there is a backup of a specific type. Am I missing something? Does anyone know of a good tutorial dealing specifically with XY-scatter graphs and using them in a way I intend? I am using the 2005 version of SSRS rather than the 2008 version. Screenshot of what my chart currently looks like: In case it could be dataset related: SELECT TOP (10) backup_type, LTRIM(RTRIM(LEFT(backup_finish_date, 12))) AS BackupDate, LTRIM(RTRIM(RIGHT(backup_finish_date, 8))) AS BackupTime FROM DBARepository.Backup_History As requested, here are the results of this query. There is a Where clause to constrain the results to a specific database of a specific server that was not included in the above SQL Query. Log Dec 26 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00AM Log Dec 27 2008 12:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 4:00PM Log Dec 27 2008 8:00PM Database Dec 27 2008 10:01PM Log Dec 28 2008 12:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 4:00AM Log Dec 28 2008 8:00AM

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• How to hide certain elements on a page using jQuery

  - by Ankur

  I am trying to implement something that is similar to a faceted search. My data is a series of objects and relationships. The idea is that you click an object (in this case "95 Theses" and then the possibly relationships are displayed, in this case "author" and clicking the relationship shows the object that matches the relationship, in this case "Martin Luther". My clicking of objects and relationsips (predicates) works fine. What I need to do is allow users to click an object or relationship and have all those that extend from it removed. This is what I thought of adding when a object or relationship 'tag' is clicked (every time I add another object or relationship I increment the global attribute called 'level'): if($(".objHolder,. preHolder").filter("[level>'"+level+"']").filter("[holderId='"+holderId+"']").length) { $(".objHolder,. preHolder").filter("[level>'"+level+"']").filter("[holderId='"+holderId+"']").remove(); } <table border="0" cellpadding="4" cellspacing="2"> <tbody><tr> <td class="objHolder" objid="1" holderid="1" level="1"> <table border="0" cellpadding="4" cellspacing="2"> <tbody><tr class="objItemRow" objid="1" holderid="1" level="1"> <td class="objItem" objid="1" holderid="1" level="2" bgcolor="#eeeeee" nowrap="nowrap">95 Theses</td> </tr></tbody> </table></td> <td><img src="images/right.jpg" alt="" height="10" width="16"></td> <td class="preHolder" level="2" holderid="1"> <table border="0" cellpadding="4" cellspacing="2"><tbody> <tr><td class="preItem" level="3" subid="1" preid="1" holderid="1" bgcolor="#eeeeee" nowrap="nowrap">author</td></tr> </tbody></table></td> <td><img src="images/right.jpg" alt="" height="10" width="16"></td> <td class="objHolder" level="3" holderid="1"> <table border="0" cellpadding="4" cellspacing="2"><tbody><tr><td class="objItem" level="4" objid="3" holderid="1" bgcolor="#eeeeee" nowrap="nowrap">Martin Luther</td></tr></tbody></table> </td> </tr></tbody> </table>

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• jquery, manipulate content inserted by ajax, without using the callback

  - by Cody

  I am using ajax to insert a series of informational blocks via a loop. The blocks each have a title, and long description in them that is hidden by default. They function like an accordion, only showing one description at a time amongst all of the blocks. The problem is opening the description on the first block. I would REALLY like to do it with javascript right after the loop that is creating them is done. Is it possible to manipulate elements created ofter an ajax call without using the callback? <!-- example code--> <style> .placeholder, .long_description{ display:none;} </style> </head><body> <script> /* yes, this script is in the body, dont know if it matters */ $(document).ready(function() { $(".placeholder").each(function(){ // Use the divs to get the blocks var blockname = $(this).html(); // the contents if the div is the ID for the ajax POST $.post("/service_app/dyn_block",'form='+blockname, function(data){ var divname = '#div_' + blockname; $(divname).after(data); $(this).setupAccrdFnctly(); //not the actual code }); }); /* THIS LINE IS THE PROBLEM LINE, is it possible to reference the code ajax inserted */ /* Display the long description in the first dyn_block */ $(".dyn_block").first().find(".long_description").addClass('active').slideDown('fast'); }); </script> <!-- These lines are generated by PHP --> <!-- It is POSSIBLE to display the dyn_blocks --> <!-- here but I would really rather not --> <div id="div_servicetype" class="placeholder">servicetype</div> <div id="div_custtype" class="placeholder">custtype</div> <div id="div_custinfo" class="placeholder">custinfo</div> <div id="div_businfo" class="placeholder">businfo</div> </body>

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• Generate lags R

  - by Btibert3

  Hi All, I hope this is basic; just need a nudge in the right direction. I have read in a database table from MS Access into a data frame using RODBC. Here is a basic structure of what I read in: PRODID PROD Year Week QTY SALES INVOICE Here is the structure: str(data) 'data.frame': 8270 obs. of 7 variables: $ PRODID : int 20001 20001 20001 100001 100001 100001 100001 100001 100001 100001 ... $ PROD : Factor w/ 1239 levels "1% 20qt Box",..: 335 335 335 128 128 128 128 128 128 128 ... $ Year : int 2010 2010 2010 2009 2009 2009 2009 2009 2009 2010 ... $ Week : int 12 18 19 14 15 16 17 18 19 9 ... $ QTY : num 1 1 0 135 300 270 300 270 315 315 ... $ SALES : num 15.5 0 -13.9 243 540 ... $ INVOICES: num 1 1 2 5 11 11 10 11 11 12 ... Here are the top few rows: head(data, n=10) PRODID PROD Year Week QTY SALES INVOICES 1 20001 Dolie 12" 2010 12 1 15.46 1 2 20001 Dolie 12" 2010 18 1 0.00 1 3 20001 Dolie 12" 2010 19 0 -13.88 2 4 100001 Cage Free Eggs 2009 14 135 243.00 5 5 100001 Cage Free Eggs 2009 15 300 540.00 11 6 100001 Cage Free Eggs 2009 16 270 486.00 11 7 100001 Cage Free Eggs 2009 17 300 540.00 10 8 100001 Cage Free Eggs 2009 18 270 486.00 11 9 100001 Cage Free Eggs 2009 19 315 567.00 11 10 100001 Cage Free Eggs 2010 9 315 569.25 12 I simply want to generate lags for QTY, SALES, INVOICE for each product but I am not sure where to start. I know R is great with Time Series, but I am not sure where to start. I have two questions: 1- I have the raw invoice data but have aggregated it for reporting purposes. Would it be easier if I didn't aggregate the data? 2- Regardless of aggregation or not, what functions will I need to loop over each product and generate the lags as I need them? In short, I want to loop over a set of records, calculate lags for a product (if possible), append the lags (as they apply) to the current record for each product, and write the results back to a table in my database for my reporting software to use. Any help you can provide will be greatly appreciated! Many thanks in advance, Brock

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• apply style to range of text with javascript in uiwebview

  - by drawnonward

  I am displaying some simple styled text as html in a UIWebView on iPhone. It is basically a series of paragraphs with the occasional strong or emphasized phrase. At runtime I need to apply styles to ranges of text. There are a few similar scenarios, one of which is highlighting search results. If the user has searched for "something" I would like to change the background color behind occurrences of the word, then later restore the original background. Is it possible to apply styles to ranges of text using javascript? A key part of this is also being able to unset the styles. There seem to be two likely paths to follow. One would be modifying some html in Objective-C and passing it through javascript as the new innerHTML of some container. The other would be to use javascript to directly manipulate DOM nodes. I could manipulate html, but that sounds tedious in Objective-C so I would rather manipulate the DOM if that is a reasonable approach. I am not that familiar with javascript and DOM so I do not know if it is a reasonable approach. I wrote some routines to translate between text ranges and node ranges with offsets. So if I start with text range 100-200 and that starts in one paragraph and ends in a third, I can get the text nodes and the offsets within the nodes that represent the given text range. I just need a way to split a text node at an offset in the text. Currently I just apply styles to the paragraphs containing the text range. A few notes: straight javascript please, no external frameworks like jquery. the changes never need to be written to disk. the changes should be undoable or at least removable. the styles to apply already exist in a css file. it needs to work in iPhone 3.0 and forward. all the source files are shipped with the app. please be verbose. Thanks for any suggestions.

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• Renaming nodes and values with xslt

  - by T.K.

  Hello world, I'm new to xslt, and have a task that I'm not really sure where to go with. I want to rename nodes, but maintain the format all node declarations. In the actual context I'll be applying this to, I'll be doing a series of renames like this, but for the sake of brevity, the sample I've written up only involves renaming one node. I am using XSL 1.0. Input: <variables> <var> <RENAME> a </RENAME> </var> <var RENAME='b'/> <var> <DO_NOT_TOUCH> c </DO_NOT_TOUCH> </var> <var DO_NOT_TOUCH='d'/> </variables> Desired Output: <variables> <var> <DONE> a </DONE> </var> <var DONE='b'/> <var> <DO_NOT_TOUCH> c </DO_NOT_TOUCH> </var> <var DO_NOT_TOUCH='d'/> </variables> My xslt: <xsl:template match="RENAME"> <RENAMED> <xsl:apply-templates select="@*|node()"/> </RENAMED> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="@*|node()"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="@*|node()"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> Current Output <variables> <var> <RENAMED> a </RENAMED> </var> <var RENAME="b"> </var> <var> <DO_NOT_TOUCH> c </DO_NOT_TOUCH> </var> <var DO_NOT_TOUCH="d"> </var> </variables>

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• How do I stack images to simulate depth using Core Animation?

  - by Jeffrey Berthiaume

  I have a series of UIImages with which I need to simulate depth. I can't use scaling because I need to be able to rotate the parent view, and the images should look like they're stacked visibly in front of each other, not on the same plane. I made a new ViewController-based project and put this in the viewDidLoad (as well as attached three 120x120 pixel images named 1.png, 2.png, and 3.png): - (void)viewDidLoad { // display image 3 UIImageView *three = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"3.png"]]; three.center = CGPointMake(160 + 60, 240 - 60); [self.view addSubview:three]; // rotate image 3 around the z axis // THIS IS INCORRECT CATransform3D theTransform = three.layer.transform; theTransform.m34 = 1.0 / -1000; three.layer.transform = theTransform; // display image 2 UIImageView *two = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"2.png"]]; two.center = CGPointMake(160, 240); [self.view addSubview:two]; // display image 1 UIImageView *one = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"1.png"]]; one.center = CGPointMake(160 - 60, 240 + 60); [self.view addSubview:one]; // rotate image 3 around the z axis // THIS IS INCORRECT theTransform = one.layer.transform; theTransform.m34 = 1.0 / 1000; one.layer.transform = theTransform; // release the images [one release]; [two release]; [three release]; // rotate the parent view around the y axis theTransform = self.view.layer.transform; theTransform.m14 = 1.0 / -500; self.view.layer.transform = theTransform; [super viewDidLoad]; } I have very specific reasons why I'm not using an EAGLView and why I'm not loading the images as CALayers (i.e. why I'm using UIImageViews for each one). This is just a quick demo that I can use to work out exactly what I need in my parent application. Is there some matrix way to translate these 2d images along the z-axis so they will look like what I'm trying to represent? I've gone through the other StackOverflow articles as well as the Wikipedia references, and have not found what I'm looking for -- although I might not necessarily be using the right terms for what I'm trying to do.

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• How do I add Objective C code to a FireBreath Project?

  - by jmort253

  I am writing a browser plugin for Mac OS that will place a status bar icon in the status bar, which users can use to interface with the browser plugin. I've successfully built a FireBreath 1.6 project in XCode 4.4.1, and can install it in the browser. However, FireBreath uses C++, whereas a large majority of the existing libraries for Mac OS are written in Objective C. In the /Mac/projectDef.make file, I added the Cocoa Framework and Foundation Framework, as suggested here and in other resources I've found on the Internet: target_link_libraries(${PROJECT_NAME} ${PLUGIN_INTERNAL_DEPS} ${Cocoa.framework} # added line ${Foundation.framework} # added line ) I reran prepmac.sh, expecting a new project to be created in XCode with my .mm files, and .m files; however, it seems that they're being ignored. I only see the .cpp and .h files. I added rules for those in the projectDef.make file, but it doesn't seem to make a difference: file (GLOB PLATFORM RELATIVE ${CMAKE_CURRENT_SOURCE_DIR} Mac/[^.]*.cpp Mac/[^.]*.h Mac/[^.]*.m #added by me Mac/[^.]*.mm #added by me Mac/[^.]*.cmake ) Even if I add the files in manually, I get a series of compilation errors. There are about 20 of them, all related to the file NSObjRuntime.h file: Parse Issue - Expected unqualified-id Parse Issue - Unknown type name 'NSString' Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'NSString' Parse Issue - Unknown type name 'NSString' ... ... Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'aSelectorName' ... ... Semantic Issue - Use of undeclared identifier 'aClassName' ... It continues like this for some time with similar errors... From what I've read, these errors appear because of dependencies on the Foundation Framework, which I believe I've included in the project. I also tried clicking the project in XCode I'm to the point now where I'm not sure what to try next. People say it's not hard to use Objective C in C/C++ code, but being new to XCode and Objective C might contribute to my confusion. This is only day 4 for me in this new platform. What do I need to do to get XCode to compile the Objective C code? Please remember that I'm a little new to this, so I'd appreciate it if you leave detailed answers as opposed to the vague one-liners that are common in the firebreath tag. I'm just a little in over my head, but if you can get me past this hurdle I'm certain I'll be good to go from there. UPDATE: I edited projects/MyPlugin/CMakeLists.txt and added in the .m and .mm rules there too. after running prepmac.sh, the files are included in the project, but I still get the same compile errors. I moved all the .h files and .mm files from the Obj C code to the MyPlugin root folder and reran the prepmac.sh file. Problem still exists. Same compile errors.

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• assistance required, hangman game.

  - by Phillip Gibson

  I am making a hangman game and am having trouble with part of it. I have selected a random word from a file, but I want to display the word as a series of undersocres __ and then match the letter chosen to a position in the undersocres. Can anyone help me? cout <<"1. Select to play the game\n"; cout <<"2. Ask for help\n"; cout <<"3. Select to quit the game\n"; cout << "Enter a selection: "; int number; cin >> number; while(number < 1 || number > 3 || cin.fail()) { if(cin.fail()) { cin.sync(); cin.clear(); cout << "You have not entered a number, please enter a menu selection between 1 and 3\n"; cin >> number; } else { cout << "Your selection must be between 1 and 3!\n"; cin >> number; } } switch (number) { case 1: { string word; string name; cout << " Whats your name? "; cin >> name; Player player(); ifstream FileReader; FileReader.open("words.txt"); if(!FileReader.is_open()) cout << "Error"; //this is for the random selection of words srand(time(0)); int randnum = rand()%10+1; for(int counter = 0; counter < randnum; counter++) { getline(FileReader, word, '\n'); } cout << "my word: " << word << "\n"; // get length of word int length; //create for loop for(int i = 0; i < length; i++) cout << "_"; //_ _ _ _ _ SetCursorPos(2,10); FileReader.close(); break;

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• multithreading with database

  - by Darsin

  I am looking out for a strategy to utilize multithreading (probably asynchronous delegates) to do a synchronous operation. I am new to multithreading so i will outline my scenario first. This synchronous operation right now is done for one set of data (portfolio) based on the the parameters provided. The (psudeo-code) implementation is given below: public DataSet DoTests(int fundId, DateTime portfolioDate) { // Get test results for the portfolio // Call the database adapter method, which in turn is a stored procedure, // which in turns runs a series of "rule" stored procs and fills a local temp table and returns it back. DataSet resultsDataSet = GetTestResults(fundId, portfolioDate); try { // Do some local processing on the results DoSomeProcessing(resultsDataSet); // Save the results in Test, TestResults and TestAllocations tables in a transaction. // Sets a global transaction which is provided to all the adapter methods called below // It is defined in the Base class StartTransaction("TestTransaction"); // Save Test and get a testId int testId = UpdateTest(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update testId in the other tables in the dataset UpdateTestId(resultsDataSet, testId); // Update TestResults UpdateTestResults(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // Update TestAllocations UpdateTestAllocations(resultsDataSet); // Adapter method, uses the same transaction // It is defined in the base class CommitTransaction("TestTransaction"); } catch { RollbackTransaction("TestTransaction"); } return resultsDataSet; } Now the requirement is to do it for multiple set of data. One way would be to call the above DoTests() method in a loop and get the data. I would prefer doing it in parallel. But there are certain catches: StartTransaction() method creates a connection (and transaction) every time it is called. All the underlying database tables, procedures are the same for each call of DoTests(). (obviously). Thus my question are: Will using multithreading anyway improve performance? What are the chances of deadlock especially when new TestId's are being created and the Tests, TestResults and TestAllocations are being saved? How can these deadlocked be handled? Is there any other more efficient way of doing the above operation apart from looping over the DoTests() method repeatedly?

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• Thoughts on streamlining multiple .Net apps

  - by John Virgolino

  We have a series of ASP.Net applications that have been written over the course of 8 years. Mostly in the first 3-4 years. They have been running quite well with little maintenance, but new functionality is being requested and we are running into IDE and platform issues. The apps were written in .Net 1.x and 2.x and run in separate spaces but are presented as a single suite of applications which use a common navigation toolbar (implemented as a user control). Every time we want to add something to a menu in the nav we have to modify it in all the apps which is a pain. Also, the various versions of Crystal reports and that we used tables to organize the visual elements and we end up with a mess, especially with all the multi-platform .Net versions running. We need to streamline the suite of apps and make it easier to add on new apps without a hassle. We also need to bring all these apps under one .Net platform and IDE. In addition, there is a WordPress blog styled to match the style of the application suite "integrated" into the UI and a link to a MediaWiki Wiki application as well. My current thinking is to use an open source content management system (CMS) like Joomla (PHP based unfortunately, but it works well) as the user interface framework for style templating and menu management. Joomla's article management would allow us to migrate the Wiki content into articles which could be published without interfering with the .Net apps. Then essentially use an IFrame within an "article" to "host" the .Net application, then... Upgrade the .Net apps to VS2010, strip out all the common header/footer controls and migrate the styles to use the style sheets used in the CMS. As I write this, I certainly realize this is a lot of work and there are optimization issues which this may cause as well as using IFrames seems a bit like cheating and I've read about issues with IFrames. I know that we could use .Net application styling, but it seems like a lot more work (not sure really). Also, the use of a CMS to handle the blog and wiki also seems appealing, unless there is a .Net CMS out there that can handle all of these requirements. Given this information, I am looking to know if I am totally going in the wrong direction? We tried to use open source and integrate it over time, but not this has become hard to maintain. Am I not aware of some technology out there that will meet our requirements? Did we do this right and should we just focus on getting the .Net streamlined? I understand that no matter what we do, it's going to be a lot of work. The communities considerable experience would be helpful. Thanks!! PS - A complete rewrite is not an option.

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• manipulate content inserted by ajax, without using the callback

  - by Cody

  I am using ajax to insert a series of informational blocks via a loop. The blocks each have a title, and long description in them that is hidden by default. They function like an accordion, only showing one description at a time amongst all of the blocks. The problem is opening the description on the first block. I would REALLY like to do it with javascript right after the loop that is creating them is done. Is it possible to manipulate elements created ofter an ajax call without using the callback? <!-- example code--> <style> .placeholder, .long_description{ display:none;} </style> </head><body> <script> /* yes, this script is in the body, dont know if it matters */ $(document).ready(function() { $(".placeholder").each(function(){ // Use the divs to get the blocks var blockname = $(this).html(); // the contents if the div is the ID for the ajax POST $.post("/service_app/dyn_block",'form='+blockname, function(data){ var divname = '#div_' + blockname; $(divname).after(data); $(this).setupAccrdFnctly(); //not the actual code }); }); /* THIS LINE IS THE PROBLEM LINE, is it possible to reference the code ajax inserted */ /* Display the long description in the first dyn_block */ $(".dyn_block").first().find(".long_description").addClass('active').slideDown('fast'); }); </script> <!-- These lines are generated by PHP --> <!-- It is POSSIBLE to display the dyn_blocks --> <!-- here but I would really rather not --> <div id="div_servicetype" class="placeholder">servicetype</div> <div id="div_custtype" class="placeholder">custtype</div> <div id="div_custinfo" class="placeholder">custinfo</div> <div id="div_businfo" class="placeholder">businfo</div> </body>

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• asp.net mvc radio button state

  - by Josh Bush

  I'm trying out asp.net mvc for a new project, and I ran across something odd. When I use the MVC UI helpers for textboxes, the values get persisted between calls. But, when I use a series of radio buttons, the checked state doesn't get persisted. Here's an example from my view. <li> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","1")%><label>Hospital</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","2")%><label>Facility</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("providerType","3")%><label>Physician</label> </li> When the form gets posted back, I build up an object with "ProviderType" as one of it's properties. The value on the object is getting set, and then I RedirectToAction with the provider as a argument. All is well, and I end up at a URL like "http://localhost/Provider/List?ProviderType=1" with ProviderType showing. The value gets persisted to the URL, but the UI helper isn't picking up the checked state. I'm having this problem with listbox, dropdownlist, and radiobutton. Textboxes pick up the values just fine. Do you see something I'm doing wrong? I'm assuming that the helpers will do this for me, but maybe I'll just have to take care of this on my own. I'm just feeling my way through this, so your input is appreciated. Edit: I just found the override for the SelectList constructor that takes a selected value. That took care of my dropdown issue I mentioned above. Edit #2: I found something that works, but it pains me to do it this way. I feel like this should be inferred. <li> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType","1",Request["ProviderType"]=="1")%><label>Hospital</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType", "2", Request["ProviderType"] == "2")%><label>Facility</label> <%=Html.RadioButton("ProviderType", "3", Request["ProviderType"] == "3")%><label>Physician</label> </li> Hopefully someone will come up with another way.

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• Keep hover state applied until user mouses over another element.

  - by Thomas

  First let me state that I'm a jquery noob, so this may not make a lot of sense. So I have a series of list items that expand to show a hidden div inside if the user mouses over a link inside the item (not the whole list item itself) The problem is that if the users mouse leaves the link the li closes up again. I need this to work in a way so that the li only closes if you mouse over a link in another li. (sorry this is kind of hard to put into words) Heres my code. $(document).ready(function(){ $(".home_upcoming_title").hoverIntent({ over: makeTall, timeout: 500, out: makeShort }); }); // close document.ready function makeTall(){$(this).parents("li").animate({"height":200},200);} function makeShort(){$(this).parents("li").animate({"height":32},200);} and the HTML <li class="p1"> <ul class="home_upcoming_list2" id="fade"> <li class="home_upcoming_date">Sat.Sept.23rd.2010</li> <li><a href="./." class="home_upcoming_title" >Event Title</a></li> <li class="home_upcoming_city">Los Angeles</li> <li class="home_upcoming_type">Festival</li> <li class="home_upcoming_venue">Venue</li> <li class="home_upcoming_age">18+</li> <li><a href="./." title="Buy Tickets" class="home_upcoming_tix">Buy Tickets</a></li> <li><a href="./." class="upcoming_info" title="View Details"></a></li> </ul> <div style="height:150px; background-color:#FF0000; display:block;" class="sl0w"></div> </li> so the link with the class "home_upcoming_title" expands li to show the div inside but when I mouse over the div itself the list closes. I also need it so only the class "home_upcoming_title" expands the div. but it needs to stay open until you mouse over another link with the same class. sorry if that doesn't make much sense :)

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• Any thoughts on how to create a true 'punch-out' area in a Sprite?

  - by rhtx

  I've been working on this for awhile, now. You might also call it a 'reverse mask', or an 'inverse mask'. Basically, I'm creating a view window within a display object. I need to allow objects on the stage that are under the window to be able to interact with the mouse. This is similar to a WPF question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/740994/use-wpf-object-to-punch-hole-in-another, which has a much shorter write-up. I've got a Class called PunchOutShield, which creates a Sprite that covers the stage (or over some desired area). The Sprite's Graphics object is filled using the color and transparency of Flex's modal screen. The result is a screen that looks like the screen which appears behind a modal PopUp. PunchOutShield has a method called punch, which takes two arguments - the first is a Shape object, which defines the shape of the punch-through area; the second is a Point object, which indicates where to position the punch-through area. It took some experimenting, but I found that I can successfully create a punch-out area (i.e. - the modal screen does not display within the bounds of the given Shape). To do this, I set cacheAsBitmap to true on the Sprite that is used to create the modal screen, and also on the Shape object, which is added to the modal screen Sprite's displayList. If I set the blend mode of the Shape to ERASE, a completely transparent area is created in the modal screen. So far, great. The problem is that Shape does not subclass InteractiveObject, so there is no way to set mouseEnabled = false on it. And so, it prevents interaction between the mouse and any objects that are visible through the punch-out area. On top of that, InteractiveObject isn't available to look at, so I can't see if there is a way to borrow what it's doing to provide the mouseEnabled functionality and apply it to a subclass of Shape. I've tried using another Sprite object, rather than a Shape object, but the blending doesn't work out correctly. I'm not sure why there is a difference, but the Shape object seems to somehow combine with the parenting Sprite, allowing the ERASE blendMode to effect the desired punch-out visual appearance. It wouldn't be the end of the world if I had to draw up the screen with a series of rectangles so that the punch-out area was just simply not drawn, but that approach won't work if the punch-out area is complex. Or round. Any thoughts on this approach, or on an alternative approach?

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• Google Maps rendering locally but not in live environment

  - by marcusstarnes

  I have a page that renders a simple google map for a specified location. This map renders without any problems at all when I run it locally on localhost, however, when I deploy this code to our live web servers (using our LIVE google API key for the appropriate domain) it fails to render, and upon putting a series of alerts within the javascript on the page, it appears that the 'Initialize' method (which should be called within body onLoad) is not being called. When I view the HTML source that is rendered on the live server it appears exactly as per the local version of the site (including the call to initialize() within the body onLoad event), albeit with the different maps API key. I have output the host (alert(window.location.host);) to ensure that the key I generated via the google maps api site, corresponds exactly to the live server, which it does. Does anyone have any ideas why it would be working locally but not when deployed to the live servers? The live site is hosted on 2 load-balanced web servers. This is the javascript that is rendered: <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;sensor=false&amp;key=ABQIAAAA-BU8POZj19wRlTaKIXVM9xTz76xxk4yAELG9u79oXrhnLTB5NRRvAZ-bkKn1x8J68nfRTVOIWNPJEA" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var geocoder; alert(window.location.host); function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("businessMap")); map.setUIToDefault(); geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); showAddress('St Margarets Street SW1P 3 London'); } } function showAddress(address) { geocoder.getLatLng( address, function(point) { if (!point) { // Address could not be located. jQuery('#googleMap').hide(); } else { map.setCenter(point, 13); var marker = new GMarker(point); map.addOverlay(marker); var html = 'Address info for the marker'; marker.openInfoWindow(html); GEvent.addListener(marker, "click", function() { marker.openInfoWindowHtml(html); }); } } ); } </script> Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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• How can I stop Flash from changing indent when user Clicks on hyperlink in TextField?

  - by Paul Chernoch

  I have a TextField which I initialize by setting htmlText. The text has anchor tags (hyperlinks). When a user clicks on the hyperlink, the indentation of the second and subsequent lines in the paragraph changes. Why? How do I stop it? My html has an image at the beginning of the line, followed by the tag, followed by more text. To style the hyper links to look blue always and underlined when the mouse is over them, I do this: var css:StyleSheet = new StyleSheet(); css.parseCSS("a {color: #0000FF;} a:hover {text-decoration: underline;}"); stepText.styleSheet = css; stepText.htmlText = textToUse; stepText.visible = true; Here is a fragment of the html text (with newlines and exrta whitespace added to improve readability - originally it was one long line): <textformat indent="-37" blockindent="37" > <img src="media/interface/level-1-bullets/solid-circle.png" align="left" hspace="8" vspace="1"/> American Dental Association. (n.d.). <i>Cleaning your teeth and gums (oral hygiene)</i>. Retrieved 11/24/08, from <a href="http://www.ada.org/public/topics/cleaning_faq.asp" target="_blank">http://www.ada.org/public/topics/cleaning_faq.asp </a> </textformat> <br/> As it turns out, the text field is of a width such that it wraps and the second line starts with "Retrieved 11/24/08". Clicking on the hyper link causes this particular line to be indented. Subsequent paragraphs are not affected. ASIDE: The image is a list bullet about 37 pixels wide. (I used images instead of li tags because Flash does not allow nested lists, so I faked it using a series of images with varying amounts of whitespace to simulate three levels of indentation.) IDEA: I was thinking of changing all hyperlinks to use "event:" as the URL protocol, which causes a TextEvent.LINK event to be triggered instead of following the link. Then I would have to open the browser in a second call. I could use this event handler to set the html text to itself, which might clear the problem. (When I switch pages in my application and then come back to the page, everything is OKAY again.) PROBLEM: If I use the "event:" protocol and user tries the right-mouse button click, they will get an error, or so I am told. (See http://www.blog.lessrain.com/as3-texteventlink-and-contextmenu-incompatibilities/ ) I do not like this trade-off.

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• how to use window.onload?

  - by Patrick

  I'm refactoring a website using MVC. What was a set of huge pages with javascript, php, html etc etc is becoming a series of controllers and views. I'm trying to do it in a modular way so views are split in 'modules' that I can reuse in other pages when needed eg. "view/searchform displays only one div with the searchform "view/display_events displays a list of events and so on. One of the old pages was supposed to load a google map with a marker on it. Amongst the rest of the code, I can identify the relevant bits as follows <head> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=blablabla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function load() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var point = new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>), 15); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); var marker = createMarker(point,GIcon(),"CIAO"); map.addOverlay(marker); } } //]]> </script> </head> ...then <body onload="load()" onunload="GUnload()"> ...and finally this div where the map should be displayed <div id="map" style="width: 440px; height: 300px"> </div> Don't know much about js, but my understanding is that a) I have to include the scripts in the view module I'm writing (directly in the HTML? I would prefer to load a separate script) b) I have to trigger that function using the equivalent of body onload... (obviously there's no body tag in my view. In my ignorance I've tried div onload=.... but didn't seem to be working :) What do you suggest I do? I've read about window.onload but don't know what's the correct syntax for that. please keep in mind that other parts of the page include other js functions (eg, google adsense) that are called after the footer.

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• Spinning a circle in J2ME using a Canvas.

  - by JohnQPublic

  Hello all! I have a problem where I need to make a multi-colored wheel spin using a Canvas in J2ME. What I need to do is have the user increase the speed of the spin or slow the spin of the wheel. I have it mostly worked out (I think) but can't think of a way for the wheel to spin without causing my cellphone to crash. Here is what I have so far, it's close but not exactly what I need. class MyCanvas extends Canvas{ //wedgeOne/Two/Three define where this particular section of circle begins to be drawn from int wedgeOne; int wedgeTwo; int wedgeThree; int spinSpeed; MyCanvas(){ wedgeOne = 0; wedgeTwo = 120; wedgeThree = 240; spinSpeed = 0; } //Using the paint method to public void paint(Graphics g){ //Redraw the circle with the current wedge series. g.setColor(255,0,0); g.fillArc(getWidth()/2, getHeight()/2, 100, 100, wedgeOne, 120); g.setColor(0,255,0); g.fillArc(getWidth()/2, getHeight()/2, 100, 100, wedgeTwo, 120); g.setColor(0,0,255); g.fillArc(getWidth()/2, getHeight()/2, 100, 100, wedgeThree, 120); } protected void keyPressed(int keyCode){ switch (keyCode){ //When the 6 button is pressed, the wheel spins forward 5 degrees. case KEY_NUM6: wedgeOne += 5; wedgeTwo += 5; wedgeThree += 5; repaint(); break; //When the 4 button is pressed, the wheel spins backwards 5 degrees. case KEY_NUM4: wedgeOne -= 5; wedgeTwo -= 5; wedgeThree -= 5; repaint(); } } I have tried using a redraw() method that adds the spinSpeed to each of the wedge values while(spinSpeed0) and calls the repaint() method after the addition, but it causes a crash and lockup (I assume due to an infinite loop). Does anyone have any tips or ideas how I could automate the spin so you do not have the press the button every time you want it to spin? (P.S - I have been lurking for a while, but this is my first post. If it's too general or asking for too much info (sorry if it is) and I either remove it or fix it. Thank you!)

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• Drawing with element array in OpenGL ES

  - by FatalMojo

  Hello! I am trying to use OpenGLES to draw a x by y matrix of squares about an arbitrary point. I have an array sideVertice[] that holds a series of vertex structs defined as such typedef struct { GLfloat x; GLfloat y; GLfloat z; } Vertex3D; and an element array defined as such GLubyte elementArray[]; my draw loop is as such glLoadIdentity(); glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, cube.sideVertice); for (int i=0; i<((cube.cubeSize + 1)*(cube.cubeSize + 1)); i++) { for (int j=0; j<=3; j++) { elementArray[j] = j + i*4; glDrawElements(GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 4, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, elementArray); } } for (int i=0; i<=3; i++) elementArray[i] = i; However, the visual output is corrupted and I cannot figure out what the problem is. here is an output of the vertice held in the array: 2010-04-15 23:44:48.816 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[0][0] x:-26.000000 y:1.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.817 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[1][1] x:-26.000000 y:26.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.826 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[2][2] x:-1.000000 y:1.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.829 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[3][3] x:-1.000000 y:26.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.830 RubixGL[4203:20b] Next Face 2010-04-15 23:44:48.830 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[0][4] x:1.000000 y:1.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.832 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[1][5] x:1.000000 y:26.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.837 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[2][6] x:26.000000 y:1.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.838 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[3][7] x:26.000000 y:26.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.848 RubixGL[4203:20b] Next Face 2010-04-15 23:44:48.849 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[0][8] x:-26.000000 y:-26.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.850 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[1][9] x:-26.000000 y:-1.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.851 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[2][10] x:-1.000000 y:-26.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.852 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[3][11] x:-1.000000 y:-1.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.853 RubixGL[4203:20b] Next Face 2010-04-15 23:44:48.853 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[0][12] x:1.000000 y:-26.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.854 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[1][13] x:1.000000 y:-1.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.854 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[2][14] x:26.000000 y:-26.000000 2010-04-15 23:44:48.855 RubixGL[4203:20b] vertex[3][15] x:26.000000 y:-1.000000 any ideas?

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• Create a Counter within a For-Loop?

  - by Todd Hartman

  I am a novice programmer and apologize upfront for the complicated question. I am trying to create a lexical decision task for experimental research, in which respondents must decide if a series of letters presented on the screen make a "word" or "not a word". Everything works reasonably well except for the bit where I want to randomly select a word (category A) or nonword (category B) for each of 80 trials from a separate input file (input.txt). The randomization works, but some elements from each list (category A or B) are skipped because I have used "round.catIndex = j;" where "j" is a loop for each successive trial. Because some trials randomly select from Category A and other from Category B, "j" does not move successively down the list for each category. Instead, elements from the Category A list may be selected from something like 1, 2, 5, 8, 9, 10, and so on (it varies each time because of the randomization). To make a long story short(!), how do I create a counter that will work within the for-loop for each trial, so that every word and nonword from Category A and B, respectively, will be used for the lexical decision task? Everything I have tried thus far does not work properly or breaks the javascript entirely. Below is my code snippet and the full code is available at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.js. Also, the full lexical decision task can be accessed at http://50.17.194.59/LDT/trunk/LDT.php. Thanks! function initRounds() { numlst = []; for (var k = 0; k<numrounds; k++) { if (k % 2 == 0) numlst[k] = 0; else numlst[k] = 1; } numlst.sort(function() {return 0.5 - Math.random()}) for (var j = 0; j<numrounds; j++) { var round = new LDTround(); if (numlst[j] == 0) { round.category = input.catA.datalabel; } else if (numlst[j] == 1) { round.category = input.catB.datalabel; } // pick a category & stimulus if (round.category == input.catA.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catA.itemtype; round.correct = 1; round.catIndex = j; } else if (round.category == input.catB.datalabel) { round.itemtype = input.catB.itemtype; round.correct = 2; round.catIndex = j; } roundArray[i].push(round); } return roundArray; }

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• iPhone memory management (with specific examples/questions)

  - by donkim

  Hey all. I know this question's been asked but I still don't have a clear picture of memory management in Objective-C. I feel like I have a pretty good grasp of it, but I'd still like some correct answers for the following code. I have a series of examples that I'd love for someone(s) to clarify. Setting a value for an instance variable. Say I have an NSMutableArray variable. In my class, when I initialize it, do I need to call a retain on it? Do I do fooArray = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] init] retain]; or fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Does doing [[NSMutableArray alloc] init] already set the retain count to 1, so I wouldn't need to call retain on it? On the other hand, if I called a method that I know returns an autoreleased object, I would for sure have to call retain on it, right? Like so: fooString = [[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d items", someInt] retain]; Properties. I ask about the retain because I'm a bit confused about how @property's automatic setter works. If I had set fooArray to be a @property with retain set, Objective-C will automatically create the following setter, right? - (void)setFooArray:(NSMutableArray *)anArray { [fooArray release]; fooArray = [anArray retain]; } So, if I had code like this: self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; (which I believe is valid code), Objective-C creates a setter method that calls retain on the value assigned to fooArray. In this case, will the retain count actually be 2? Correct way of setting a value of a property. I know there are questions on this and (possibly) debates, but which is the right way to set a @property? This? self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Or this? NSMutableArray *anArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.fooArray = anArray; [anArray release]; I'd love to get some clarification on these examples. Thanks!

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• Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

  - by MJB

  I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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• How can I improve my select query for storing large versioned data sets?

  - by Jason Francis

  At work, we build large multi-page web applications, consisting mostly of radio and check boxes. The primary purpose of each application is to gather data, but as users return to a page they have previously visited, we report back to them their previous responses. Worst-case scenario, we might have up to 900 distinct variables and around 1.5 million users. For several reasons, it makes sense to use an insert-only approach to storing the data (as opposed to update-in-place) so that we can capture historical data about repeated interactions with variables. The net result is that we might have several responses per user per variable. Our table to collect the responses looks something like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[results]( [id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NULL, [variable] [varchar](8) NULL, [value] [tinyint] NULL, [submitted] [smalldatetime] NULL) Where id serves as the primary key. Virtually every request results in a series of insert statements (one per variable submitted), and then we run a select to produce previous responses for the next page (something like this): SELECT t.id, t.variable, t.value FROM results t WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE t.userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') AND t.id IN (SELECT MAX(id) AS id FROM results WITH (NOLOCK) WHERE userid = '2111846' AND (t.variable='internat' OR t.variable='veteran' OR t.variable='athlete') GROUP BY variable) Which, in this case, would return the most recent responses for the variables "internat", "veteran", and "athlete" for user 2111846. We have followed the advice of the database tuning tools in indexing the tables, and against our data, this is the best-performing version of the select query that we have been able to come up with. Even so, there seems to be significant performance degradation as the table approaches 1 million records (and we might have about 150x that). We have a fairly-elegant solution in place for sharding the data across multiple tables which has been working quite well, but I am open for any advice about how I might construct a better version of the select query. We use this structure frequently for storing lots of independent data points, and we like the benefits it provides. So the question is, how can I improve the performance of the select query? I assume the nested select statement is a bad idea, but I have yet to find an alternative that performs as well. Thanks in advance. NB: Since we emphasize creating over reading in this case, and since we never update in place, there doesn't seem to be any penalty (and some advantage) for using the NOLOCK directive in this case.

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• How can I run an android frame animation without it skewing?

  - by GameDev123

  I have a small state machine that runs a series of frame by frame animations in an ImageView, in a nested hierarchy of layouts. There is more than adequate space to display each frame of the animation. Each frame of the animation is cropped to fit the minimum amount of area, in order to save memory. If a frame only contains 50x50 worth of pixels then the png is 50x50. There is no transparent padding to keep them the same size. The ImageView is directly within a RelativeLayout, and is anchored to the bottom left with some padding. The general idea being that the character in the animation performs some action, which results in individual frames of the animation growing or shrinking. The issue is that individual frames of animation are skewed, and there does not appear to be any way of preventing this. If I set the source of the imageview directly to one of the frames of animation, it displays fine in the layout manager. I have tried this with Adjust View Bounds set to true, false, and undefined. I have tried using the background and the src attribute of imageview to set the animation drawable, I have tried every configuration of layout manager and setting minimum/maximum size that I can think of, and it still stretches the character on various frames depending on the size of the source png. In essence, all I want to do is say "I want this ImageView to anchor in the bottom left and then display any frame that happens to be in it without stretching or skewing it in any way aside from that which occurred when the frame png's were loaded." Seems simple, but I have yet to come across any way of doing it. Here is the layout of the imageview as of my last test, I had to remove bits of the XML to get it to display but nothing pertinent: RelativeLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_above="@+id/MenuOptions" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:id="@+id/AnimationLayout" android:clipChildren="false" android:minHeight="180dp" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/GameBarLayout" ImageView android:id="@+id/animatedImg" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:visibility="visible" android:baselineAlignBottom="true" android:minHeight="180dp" android:minWidth="200dp" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:paddingLeft="30dp" android:paddingBottom="10dp" android:src="@drawable/idle01"/ImageView /RelativeLayout Here is how an animation is set up: animationDrawable = new AnimationDrawable(); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle01), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle02), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle03), 16);

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