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• string categorization strategies

  - by Andrew Heath

  I'm the one-man dev team on a fledgling military history website. One aspect of the site is a catalog of ~1,200 individual battles, including the nations & formations (regiments, divisions, etc) which took part. The formation information (as well as the other battle info) was manually imported from a series of books by a 10-man volunteer team. The formations were listed in groups with varying formatting and abbreviation patterns. At the time I set up the data collection forms I couldn't think of a good way to process that data... and elected to store it all as strings in the MySQL database and sort it out later. Well, "later" - as it tends to happen - has arrived. :-) Each battle has 2+ records in the database - one for each nation that participated. Each record has a formations text string listing the formations present as the volunteer chose to add them. Some real examples: 39th Grenadier Rgmt, 26th Volksgrenadier Division 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, 246th Infantry Division 247th Rifle Division, 255th Tank Brigade 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, SS Cavalry Division 28th Tank Brigade, 158th Rifle Division, 135th Rifle Division, 81st Tank Brigade, 242nd Tank Brigade 78th Infantry Division 3rd Kure Special Naval Landing Force, Tulagi Seaplane Base personnel 1st Battalion 505th Infantry Regiment The ultimate goal is for each individual force to have an ID, so that its participation can be traced throughout the battle database. Formation hierarchy, such as the final item above 1st Battalion (of the) 505th Infantry Regiment also needs to be preserved. In that case, 1st Battalion and 505th Infantry Regiment would be split, but 1st Battalion would be flagged as belonging to the 505th. In database terms, I think I want to pull the formation field out of the current battle info table and create three new tables: FORMATION [id] [name] FORMATION_HIERARCHY [id] [parent] [child] FORMATION_BATTLE [f_id] [battle_id] It's simple to explain, but complicated to enact. What I'm looking for from the SO community is just some tips on how best to tackle this problem. Ideally there's some sort of method to solving this that I'm not aware of. However, as a last resort, I could always code a classification framework and call my volunteers back to sort through 2,500+ records...

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• How does NameScope in WPF works ?

  - by Nicolas Dorier

  I'm having a strange behavior with NameScopes in WPF, I have created a CustomControl called FadingPopup which is a child class of Window with nothing special inside. <Window.Resources> <local:FadingPopup> <Button Name="prec" Content="ahah"></Button> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </local:FadingPopup> </Window.Resources> In this snippet, the binding doesn't work (always empty). If I move these buttons from the resources to the content of the window like this : <Window ...> <Button Name="prec" Content="ahah"></Button> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </Window> The binding works as expected. Now, I have tried a mix between these two snippets : <Window...> <Window.Resources> <local:FadingPopup> <Button Name="prec" Content="Haha"></Button> </local:FadingPopup> </Window.Resources> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </Window> It works as well. Apparently, if the button prec is in the resources it registers itself in the NameScope of the Window. BUT, it seems that the Binding tries to resolve ElementName with the NameScope of the FadingPopup (which is null), thus the binding doesn't work... My first snipped works well if I specify a NameScope in my class FadingPopup : static FadingPopup() { NameScope.NameScopeProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(FadingPopup), new PropertyMetadata(new NameScope())); } But I don't like this solution because I don't understand why, in the first snippet, prec is registered in the NameScope of Window, but ElementName is resolved with the NameScope of FadingGroup (which is null by default)... Does someone can explain to me what is going on ? Why my first snippet doesn't work, if I don't specify a default NameScope for FadingGroup ?

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• Why does the rename() syscall prohibit moving a directory that I can't write to a different director

  - by Daniel Papasian

  I am trying to understand why this design decision was made with the rename() syscall in 4.2BSD. There's nothing I'm trying to solve here, just understand the rationale for the behavior itself. 4.2BSD saw the introduction of the rename() syscall for the purpose of allowing atomic renames/moves of files. From 4.3BSD-Reno/src/sys/ufs/ufs_vnops.c: /* * If ".." must be changed (ie the directory gets a new * parent) then the source directory must not be in the * directory heirarchy above the target, as this would * orphan everything below the source directory. Also * the user must have write permission in the source so * as to be able to change "..". We must repeat the call * to namei, as the parent directory is unlocked by the * call to checkpath(). */ if (oldparent != dp->i_number) newparent = dp->i_number; if (doingdirectory && newparent) { VOP_LOCK(fndp->ni_vp); error = ufs_access(fndp->ni_vp, VWRITE, tndp->ni_cred); VOP_UNLOCK(fndp->ni_vp); So clearly this check was added intentionally. My question is - why? Is this behavior supposed to be intuitive? The effect of this is that one cannot move a directory (located in a directory that one can write) that one cannot write to another directory that one can write to atomically. You can, however, create a new directory, move the links over (assuming one has read access to the directory), and then remove one's write bit on the directory. You just can't do so atomically. % cd /tmp % mkdir stackoverflow-question % cd stackoverflow-question % mkdir directory-1 % mkdir directory-2 % mkdir directory-1/directory-i-cant-write % echo "foo" > directory-1/directory-i-cant-write/contents % chmod 000 directory-1/directory-i-cant-write/contents % chmod 000 directory-1/directory-i-cant-write % mv directory-1/directory-i-cant-write directory-2 mv: rename directory-1/directory-i-cant-write to directory-2/directory-i-cant-write: Permission denied We now have a directory I can't write with contents I can't read that I can't move atomically. I can, however, achieve the same effect non-atomically by changing permissions, making the new directory, using ln to create the new links, and changing permissions. (Left as an exercise to the reader) . and .. are special cased already, so I don't particularly buy that it is intuitive that if I can't write a directory I can't "change .." which is what the source suggests. Is there any reason for this besides it being the perceived correct behavior by the author of the code? Is there anything bad that can happen if we let people atomically move directories (that they can't write) between directories that they can write?

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• How to load a springframework ApplicationContext from Jython

  - by staticman

  I have a class that loads a springframework application context like so: package com.offlinesupport; import org.springframework.context.ApplicationContext; import org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext; public class OfflineScriptSupport { private static ApplicationContext appCtx; public static final void initialize() { appCtx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext( new String[] { "mycontext.spring.xml" } ); } public static final ApplicationContext getApplicationContext() { return appCtx; } public static final void main( String[] args ) { System.out.println( "Starting..." ); initialize(); System.out.println( "loaded" ); } } The class OfflineScriptSupport, and the file mycontext.spring.xml are each deployed into separate jars (along with other classes and resources in their respective modules). Lets say the jar files are OfflineScriptSupport.jar and *MyContext.jar". mycontext.spring.xml is put at the root of the jar. In a Jython script (*myscript.jy"), I try to call the initialize method to create the application context: from com.offlinesupport import OfflineScriptSupport OfflineScriptSupport.initialize(); I execute the Jython script with the following command (from Linux): jython -Dpython.path=spring.jar:OfflineScriptSupport.jar:MyContext.jar myscript.jy The Springframework application context cannot find the mycontext.spring.xml file. It displays the following error: java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [mycontext.spring.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist at org.springframework.core.io.ClassPathResource.getInputStream(ClassPathResource.java:137) at org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(XmlBeanDefinitionReader.java:167) at org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(XmlBeanDefinitionReader.java:148) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.java:126) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.java:142) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractXmlApplicationContext.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractXmlApplicationContext.java:113) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractXmlApplicationContext.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractXmlApplicationContext.java:81) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.refreshBeanFactory(AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.java:89) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:269) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java:87) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java:72) at com.offlinesupport.OfflineScriptSupport.initialize(OfflineScriptSupport.java:27) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) If I run the jar directly from Java (using the main entry point in OfflineScriptSupport) it works and there is no error thrown. Is there something special about the way Jython handles classpaths making the Springframework's ClassPathXmlApplicationContext not work (i.e. not be able to find resource files in the classpath)?

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• ASP.NET MVC Page - Viewstate for Confirm email field is getting erased on Registration Page if valid

  - by Rita

  Hi I have a Registaration page with the following fields Email, Confirm Email, Password and Confrim Password. On Register Button click and post the model to the server, the Model validates and if that Email is already Registered, it displays the Validation Error Message "User already Exists. Please Login or Register with a different email ID". While we are displaying this validation error message, I am loosing the value of "Confirm Email" field. So that the user has to reenter again and I want to avoid this. Here I don't have confirm_Email field in my Model. Is there something special that has to be done to remain Confirm Email value on the Page even in case of Validation failure? Appreciate your responses. Here is my Code: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(false) %> <fieldset> <div class="cssform"> <p> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Email)%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Email, new { @class = "required email" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Email)%> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm email")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBox("confirm_email")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_email") %> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("Password", null, new { @class = "required" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Password")%><br /> (Note: Password should be minimum 6 characters) </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("confirm_password")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_password") %> </p><hr /> <p>Note: Confirmation email will be sent to the email address listed above.</p> </fieldset> <% } %>

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• Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

  - by Dave Parker

  I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

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• WTF is wtf? (in WebKit code base)

  - by Motti

  I downloaded Chromium's code base and ran across the WTF namespace. namespace WTF { /* * C++'s idea of a reinterpret_cast lacks sufficient cojones. */ template<typename TO, typename FROM> TO bitwise_cast(FROM in) { COMPILE_ASSERT(sizeof(TO) == sizeof(FROM), WTF_wtf_reinterpret_cast_sizeof_types_is_equal); union { FROM from; TO to; } u; u.from = in; return u.to; } } // namespace WTF Does this mean what I think it means? Could be so, the bitwise_cast implementation specified here will not compile if either TO or FROM is not a POD and is not (AFAIK) more powerful than C++ built in reinterpret_cast. The only point of light I see here is the nobody seems to be using bitwise_cast in the Chromium project. I see there's some legalese so I'll put in the little letters to keep out of trouble. /* * Copyright (C) 2008 Apple Inc. All Rights Reserved. * * Redistribution and use in source and binary forms, with or without * modification, are permitted provided that the following conditions * are met: * 1. Redistributions of source code must retain the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer. * 2. Redistributions in binary form must reproduce the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer in the * documentation and/or other materials provided with the distribution. * * THIS SOFTWARE IS PROVIDED BY APPLE INC. ``AS IS'' AND ANY * EXPRESS OR IMPLIED WARRANTIES, INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, THE * IMPLIED WARRANTIES OF MERCHANTABILITY AND FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR * PURPOSE ARE DISCLAIMED. IN NO EVENT SHALL APPLE INC. OR * CONTRIBUTORS BE LIABLE FOR ANY DIRECT, INDIRECT, INCIDENTAL, SPECIAL, * EXEMPLARY, OR CONSEQUENTIAL DAMAGES (INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, * PROCUREMENT OF SUBSTITUTE GOODS OR SERVICES; LOSS OF USE, DATA, OR * PROFITS; OR BUSINESS INTERRUPTION) HOWEVER CAUSED AND ON ANY THEORY * OF LIABILITY, WHETHER IN CONTRACT, STRICT LIABILITY, OR TORT * (INCLUDING NEGLIGENCE OR OTHERWISE) ARISING IN ANY WAY OUT OF THE USE * OF THIS SOFTWARE, EVEN IF ADVISED OF THE POSSIBILITY OF SUCH DAMAGE. */

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• How to combine designable components with dependency injection

  - by Wim Coenen

  When creating a designable .NET component, you are required to provide a default constructor. From the IComponent documentation: To be a component, a class must implement the IComponent interface and provide a basic constructor that requires no parameters or a single parameter of type IContainer. This makes it impossible to do dependency injection via constructor arguments. (Extra constructors could be provided, but the designer would ignore them.) Some alternatives we're considering: Service Locator Don't use dependency injection, instead use the service locator pattern to acquire dependencies. This seems to be what IComponent.Site.GetService is for. I guess we could create a reusable ISite implementation (ConfigurableServiceLocator?) which can be configured with the necessary dependencies. But how does this work in a designer context? Dependency Injection via properties Inject dependencies via properties. Provide default instances if they are necessary to show the component in a designer. Document which properties need to be injected. Inject dependencies with an Initialize method This is much like injection via properties but it keeps the list of dependencies that need to be injected in one place. This way the list of required dependencies is documented implicitly, and the compiler will assists you with errors when the list changes. Any idea what the best practice is here? How do you do it? edit: I have removed "(e.g. a WinForms UserControl)" since I intended the question to be about components in general. Components are all about inversion of control (see section 8.3.1 of the UMLv2 specification) so I don't think that "you shouldn't inject any services" is a good answer. edit 2: It took some playing with WPF and the MVVM pattern to finally "get" Mark's answer. I see now that visual controls are indeed a special case. As for using non-visual components on designer surfaces, I think the .NET component model is fundamentally incompatible with dependency injection. It appears to be designed around the service locator pattern instead. Maybe this will start to change with the infrastructure that was added in .NET 4.0 in the System.ComponentModel.Composition namespace.

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• How can I capture the keystroke that triggers "CellEndEdit" on a DataGridView in C#?

  - by Andy Stampor

  I have a DataGridView that is set to EditOnF2. I do some special processing of data in the CellEndEdit eventhandler that sets the value of the cell. I still want the functionality of the EditOnKeystrokeOrF2 of reverting to the original value when the Esc key is pressed. Unfortunately, at the CellEndEdit eventhandler, I don't see a way to tell what caused the CellEndEdit event to be fired. I only want to change the value of the cell if the Esc key is not pressed. How can I tell if it was or not? Edit: It is worth noting that the KeyDown event does not get fired when the cell is being edited, nor for the final ending keystroke. Edit2: I have tried the KeyPreview suggestion, but the form still does not capture the Escape key being pressed. Edit3: I've been experimenting with trying to get this working. I originally posted some of the following as a separate post, but feel it might be more relevant to include it here. I have a cell in a DataGridView that is now set to EditProgrammatically. To capture the keystroke that starts an edit, I am setting the cell.Value equal to the keystroke. However, this ruins the "Escape" functionality of the cell - when you press escape, instead of reverting to the original value, it reverts to the keystroke that I programmatically inserted into the cell. I believe that if I could set the "EditedFormattedValue" on a cell, this would be where I want to put my keystroke value, however this appears to be read only. How can I accomplish what I am attempting? An example to clarify: If the cell has a value of "54.3" in it, and I press the "9" key, it begins editing the cell and places a "9" there. If I hit Escape, instead of reverting to "54.3" it reverts to "9". What I want is for it to return to its original value of "54.3". So, I am trying to tackle this issue from both the beginning and the end. I think the real problem is that I am overwriting the original value and have no way to determine if I should revert it or not. Edit4: It looks like CellValidating might be worth using, but I am seeing strange behavior when I experiment with it. In a new project, I create the DataGridView and register for the various events and see that CellValidating is fired before the CellEndEdit. However, in my project where I am trying to get this to work, CellEndEdit is firing BEFORE CellValidating. Any ideas on what the difference might be?

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• Where can I find information on the Get, Set and Address methods for multidimensional System.Array i

  - by Rob Smallshire

  System.Array serves as the base class for all arrays in the Common Language Runtime (CLR). According to this article, For each concrete array type, [the] runtime adds three special methods: Get/Set/Address. and indeed if I disassemble this C# code, int[,] x = new int[1024,1024]; x[0,0] = 1; x[1,1] = 2; x[2,2] = 3; Console.WriteLine(x[0,0]); Console.WriteLine(x[1,1]); Console.WriteLine(x[2,2]); into CIL I get, IL_0000: ldc.i4 0x400 IL_0005: ldc.i4 0x400 IL_000a: newobj instance void int32[0...,0...]::.ctor(int32, int32) IL_000f: stloc.0 IL_0010: ldloc.0 IL_0011: ldc.i4.0 IL_0012: ldc.i4.0 IL_0013: ldc.i4.1 IL_0014: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_0019: ldloc.0 IL_001a: ldc.i4.1 IL_001b: ldc.i4.1 IL_001c: ldc.i4.2 IL_001d: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_0022: ldloc.0 IL_0023: ldc.i4.2 IL_0024: ldc.i4.2 IL_0025: ldc.i4.3 IL_0026: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_002b: ldloc.0 IL_002c: ldc.i4.0 IL_002d: ldc.i4.0 IL_002e: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_0033: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_0038: ldloc.0 IL_0039: ldc.i4.1 IL_003a: ldc.i4.1 IL_003b: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_0045: ldloc.0 IL_0046: ldc.i4.2 IL_0047: ldc.i4.2 IL_0048: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_004d: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) where the calls to the aforementioned Get and Set methods can be clearly seen. It seems the arity of these methods is related to the dimensionality of the array, which is presumably why they are created by the runtime and are not pre-declared. I couldn't locate any information about these methods on MSDN and their simple names makes them resistant to Googling. I'm writing a compiler for a language which supports multidimensional arrays, so I'd like to find some official documentation about these methods, under what conditions I can expect them to exist and what I can expect their signatures to be. In particular, I'd like to know whether its possible to get a MethodInfo object for Get or Set for use with Reflection.Emit without having to create an instance of the array with correct type and dimensionality on which to reflect, as is done in the linked example.

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• Algorithm for finding symmetries of a tree

  - by Paxinum

  I have n sectors, enumerated 0 to n-1 counterclockwise. The boundaries between these sectors are infinite branches (n of them). The sectors live in the complex plane, and for n even, sector 0 and n/2 are bisected by the real axis, and the sectors are evenly spaced. These branches meet at certain points, called junctions. Each junction is adjacent to a subset of the sectors (at least 3 of them). Specifying the junctions, (in pre-fix order, lets say, starting from junction adjacent to sector 0 and 1), and the distance between the junctions, uniquely describes the tree. Now, given such a representation, how can I see if it is symmetric wrt the real axis? For example, n=6, the tree (0,1,5)(1,2,4,5)(2,3,4) have three junctions on the real line, so it is symmetric wrt the real axis. If the distances between (015) and (1245) is equal to distance from (1245) to (234), this is also symmetric wrt the imaginary axis. The tree (0,1,5)(1,2,5)(2,4,5)(2,3,4) have 4 junctions, and this is never symmetric wrt either imaginary or real axis, but it has 180 degrees rotation symmetry if the distance between the first two and the last two junctions in the representation are equal. Edit: This is actually for my research. I have posted the question at mathoverflow as well, but my days in competition programming tells me that this is more like an IOI task. Code in mathematica would be excellent, but java, python, or any other language readable by a human suffices. Here are some examples (pretend the double edges are single and we have a tree) http://www2.math.su.se/~per/files.php?file=contr_ex_1.pdf http://www2.math.su.se/~per/files.php?file=contr_ex_2.pdf http://www2.math.su.se/~per/files.php?file=contr_ex_5.pdf Example 1 is described as (0,1,4)(1,2,4)(2,3,4)(0,4,5) with distances (2,1,3). Example 2 is described as (0,1,4)(1,2,4)(2,3,4)(0,4,5) with distances (2,1,1). Example 5 is described as (0,1,4,5)(1,2,3,4) with distances (2). So, given the description/representation, I want to find some algorithm to decide if it is symmetric wrt real, imaginary, and rotation 180 degrees. The last example have 180 degree symmetry. (These symmetries corresponds to special kinds of potential in the Schroedinger equation, which has nice properties in quantum mechanics.)

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• Passing a parameter in the header (XML RPC)

  - by fudgey

  I'm trying to set up a server status for the MMORPG Champions Online. I got some basic information from the web master and this is all he told me: XML-RPC call to server: http://www.champions-online.com/xmlrpc.php function name: wgsLauncher.getServerStatus Parameter (language): en-US Now, I found a nice example to start with here, and I ended up with this code: <?php ini_set('display_errors', 1); error_reporting(E_ALL); # Using the XML-RPC extension to format the XML package $request = xmlrpc_encode_request("wgsLauncher.getServerStatus", "<param><value><string>en-US</string></value></param>", null ); # Using the cURL extension to send it off, # first creating a custom header block $header[] = "Host: http://www.champions-online.com:80/"; $header[] = "Content-type: text/xml"; $header[] = "Content-length: ".strlen($request) . "\r\n"; $header[] = $request; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.champions-online.com/xmlrpc.php"); # URL to post to curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1 ); # return into a variable curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $header ); # custom headers, see above curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_CUSTOMREQUEST, 'POST' ); # This POST is special, and uses its specified Content-type $result = curl_exec( $ch ); # run! curl_close($ch); echo $result; ?> But I'm getting a "400 Bad Request" error. I'm new to XML RPC and I barely know php, so I'm at a loss. The examples from the php site show how to use an array as a parameter, but nothing else. I obtained the parameter string <param><value><string>en-US</string></value></param> from this XMLRPC Debugger (very nice btw). I entered the parameter I needed in the "payload" box and this was the output. So, I would appreciate any help on how to pass this parameter to the header. Note: My host supports xmlrpc but it seems the function "xmlrpc_client" doesn't exist. Update: The web master replied with this information, but it's still not working... it's getting to the point I may just scrape the status off the page. $request = xmlrpc_encode_request("wgsLauncher.getServerStatus", "en-US" );

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• How can I make the C# compiler infer these type parameters automatically?

  - by John Feminella

  I have some code that looks like the following. First I have some domain classes and some special comparators for them. public class Fruit { public int Calories { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class FruitEqualityComparer : IEqualityComparer<Fruit> { // ... } public class BasketEqualityComparer : IEqualityComparer<IEnumerable<Fruit>> { // ... } Next, I have a helper class called ConstraintChecker. It has a simple BaseEquals method that makes sure some simple base cases are considered: public static class ConstraintChecker { public static bool BaseEquals(T lhs, T rhs) { bool sameObject = l == r; bool leftNull = l == null; bool rightNull = r == null; return sameObject && !leftNull && !rightNull; } There's also a SemanticEquals method which is just a BaseEquals check and a comparator function that you specify. public static bool SemanticEquals<T>(T lhs, T rhs, Func<T, T, bool> f) { return BaseEquals(lhs, rhs) && f(lhs, rhs); } And finally there's a SemanticSequenceEquals method which accepts two IEnumerable<T> instances to compare, and an IEqualityComparer instance that will get called on each pair of elements in the list via Enumerable.SequenceEquals. public static bool SemanticSequenceEquals<T, U, V>(U lhs, U rhs, V comparator) where U : IEnumerable<T> where V : IEqualityComparer<T> { return SemanticEquals(lhs, rhs, (l, r) => lhs.SequenceEqual(rhs, comparator)); } } // end of ConstraintChecker The point of SemanticSequenceEquals is that you don't have to define two comparators whenever you want to compare both IEnumerable<T> and T instances; now you can just specify an IEqualityComparer<T> and it will also handle lists when you invoke SemanticSequenceEquals. So I could get rid of the BasketEqualityComparer class, which would be nice. But there's a problem. The C# compiler can't figure out the types involved when you invoke SemanticSequenceEquals: return ConstraintChecker.SemanticSequenceEquals(lhs, rhs, new FruitEqualityComparer()); If I specify them explicitly, it works: return ConstraintChecker.SemanticSequenceEquals< Fruit, IEnumerable<Fruit>, IEqualityComparer<Fruit> > (lhs, rhs, new FruitEqualityComparer()); What can I change here so that I don't have to write the type parameters explicitly?

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• Realtime Twitter Replies?

  - by ejunker

  I have created Twitter bots for many geographic locations. I want to allow users to @-reply to the Twitter bot with commands and then have the bot respond with the results. I would like to have the bot reply to the user as quickly as possible (realtime). Apparently, Twitter used to have an XMPP/Jabber interface that would provide this type of realtime feed of replies but it was shut down. As I see it my options are to use one of the following: REST API This would involve polling every X minutes for each bot. The problem with this is that it is not realtime and each Twitter account would have to be polled. Search API The search API does allow specifying a "-to" parameter in the search and replies to all bots could be aggregated in a search such as "-to bot1 OR -to bot2...". Though if you have hundreds of bots then the search string would get very long and probably exceed the maximum length of a GET request. Streaming API The streaming API looks very promising as it provides realtime results. The API allows you to specify a follow and track parameters. follow is not useful as the bot does not know who will be sending it commands. track allows you to specify keywords to track. This could possibly work by creating a daemon process that connects to the Streaming API and tracks all references to the bot's names. Once again since there are lots of bots to track the length and complexity of the query may be an issue. Another idea would be to track a special hashtag such as #botcommand and then a user could send a command using this syntax @bot1 weather #botcommand. Then by using the Streaming API to track all references to #botcommand would give you a realtime stream of all the commands. Further parsing could then be done to determine which bot to send the command to. Third-party service Are there any third-party companies that have access to the Twitter firehouse and offer realtime data? I haven't investigated these, but here are a few that I have found: Gnip Tweet.IM excla.im TwitterSpy - seems to use polling, not realtime I'm leaning towards using the Streaming API. Is there a better way to get near realtime @-replies for many (hundreds) of Twitter accounts?

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• Is there a standard way to encode a .NET string into javascript string for use in MS AJAX?

  - by Rich Andrews

  I'm trying to pass the output of a SQL Server exception to the client using the RegisterStartUpScript method of the MS ScriptManager. This works fine for some errors but when the exception contains single quotes the alert fails. I dont want to only escape single quotes though - Is there a standard function i can call to escape any special chars for use in Javascript? string scriptstring = "alert('" + ex.Message + "');"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Alert", scriptstring , true); Thanks tpeczek, the code almost worked for me :) but with a slight amendment (the escaping of single quotes) it works a treat. I've included my amended version here... public class JSEncode { /// <summary> /// Encodes a string to be represented as a string literal. The format /// is essentially a JSON string. /// /// The string returned includes outer quotes /// Example Output: "Hello \"Rick\"!\r\nRock on" /// </summary> /// <param name="s"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string EncodeJsString(string s) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("\""); foreach (char c in s) { switch (c) { case '\'': sb.Append("\\\'"); break; case '\"': sb.Append("\\\""); break; case '\\': sb.Append("\\\\"); break; case '\b': sb.Append("\\b"); break; case '\f': sb.Append("\\f"); break; case '\n': sb.Append("\\n"); break; case '\r': sb.Append("\\r"); break; case '\t': sb.Append("\\t"); break; default: int i = (int)c; if (i < 32 || i > 127) { sb.AppendFormat("\\u{0:X04}", i); } else { sb.Append(c); } break; } } sb.Append("\""); return sb.ToString(); } } As mentioned below - original source: here

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• Container item implementation

  - by onurozcelik

  Hi, I am working in Train Traffic Controller software project. My responsibility in this project is to develop the visual railroad GUI. We are implementing the project with Qt. By now I am using QGraphicsLinearLayout to hold my items. I am using the layout because I do not want to calculate coordinates of each item. So far I wrote item classes to add the layout. For instance SwitchItem class symbolizes railroad switch in real world. Each item class is responsible for its own painting and events. So far so good. Now I need a composite item that can contain two or more item. This class is going to be responsible for painting the items contained in it. I need this class because I have to put two or more items inside same layout cell. If I don' t put them in same cell I can' t use layout. See the image below. BlockSegmentItem and SignalItem inside same cell. Here is my compositeitem implementation. #include "compositeitem.h" CompositeItem::CompositeItem(QString id,QList<FieldItem *> _children) { children = _children; } CompositeItem::~CompositeItem() { } QRectF CompositeItem::boundingRect() const { FieldItem *child; QRectF rect(0,0,0,0); foreach(child,children) { rect = rect.united(child->boundingRect()); } return rect; } void CompositeItem::paint(QPainter *painter, const QStyleOptionGraphicsItem *option, QWidget *widget ) { FieldItem *child; foreach(child,children) { child->paint(painter,option,widget); } } QSizeF CompositeItem::sizeHint(Qt::SizeHint which, const QSizeF &constraint) const { QSizeF itsSize(0,0); FieldItem *child; foreach(child,children) { // if its size empty set first child size to itsSize if(itsSize.isEmpty()) itsSize = child->sizeHint(Qt::PreferredSize); else { QSizeF childSize = child->sizeHint(Qt::PreferredSize); if(itsSize.width() < childSize.width()) itsSize.setWidth(childSize.width()); itsSize.setHeight(itsSize.height() + childSize.height()); } } return itsSize; } void CompositeItem::contextMenuEvent(QGraphicsSceneContextMenuEvent *event) { qDebug()<<"Test"; } This code works good with painting but when it comes to item events it is problematic. QGraphicsScene treats the composite item like a single item which is right for layout but not for events. Because each item has its own event implementation.(e.g. SignalItem has its special context menu event.) I have to handle item events seperately. Also I need a composite item implementation for the layout. How can I overcome this dilemma?

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• windows phone deserialization json

  - by user2042227

  I have a weird issue. so I am making a few calls in my app to a webservice, which replies with data. However I am using a token based login system, so the first time the user enters the app I get a token from the webservice to login for that specific user and that token returns only that users details. The problem I am having is when the user changes I need to make the calls again, to get the new user's details, but using visual studio's breakpoint debugging, it shows the new user's token making the call however the problem is when the json is getting deserialized, it is as if it still reads the old data and deserializes that, when I exit my app with the new user it works fine, so its as if it is reading cached values, but I have no idea how to clear it? I am sure the new calls are being made and the problem lies with the deserializing, but I have tried clearing the values before deserializing them again, however nothing works. am I missing something with the json deserializer, how van I clear its cached values? here I make the call and set it not to cache so it makes a new call everytime: client.Headers[HttpRequestHeader.CacheControl] = "no-cache"; var token_details = await client.DownloadStringTaskAsync(uri); and here I deserialize the result, it is at this section the old data gets shown, so the raw json being shown inside "token_details" is correct, only once I deserialize the token_details, it shows the wrong data. deserialized = JsonConvert.DeserializeObject(token_details); and the class I am deserializing into is a simple class nothing special happening here, I have even tried making the constructor so that it clears the values each time it gets called. public class test { public string status { get; set; } public string name{ get; set; } public string birthday{ get; set; } public string errorDes{ get; set; } public test() { status = ""; name= ""; birthday= ""; errorDes= ""; } } uri's before making the calls: {https://whatever.co.za/token/?code=BEBCg==&id=WP7&junk=121edcd5-ad4d-4185-bef0-22a4d27f2d0c} - old call "UBCg==" - old reply {https://whatever.co.za/token/?code=ABCg==&id=WP7&junk=56cc2285-a5b8-401e-be21-fec8259de6dd} - new call "UBCg==" - new response which is the same response as old call as you can see i did attach a new GUID everytime i make the call, but then the new uri is read before making the downloadstringtaskasync method call, but it returns with the old data

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• LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

  - by Mike G

  I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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• QValidator for hex input

  - by Evan Teran

  I have a Qt widget which should only accept a hex string as input. It is very simple to restrict the input characters to [0-9A-Fa-f], but I would like to have it display with a delimiter between "bytes" so for example if the delimiter is a space, and the user types 0011223344 I would like the line edit to display 00 11 22 33 44 Now if the user presses the backspace key 3 times, then I want it to display 00 11 22 3. I almost have what i want, so far there is only one subtle bug involving using the delete key to remove a delimiter. Does anyone have a better way to implement this validator? Here's my code so far: class HexStringValidator : public QValidator { public: HexStringValidator(QObject * parent) : QValidator(parent) {} public: virtual void fixup(QString &input) const { QString temp; int index = 0; // every 2 digits insert a space if they didn't explicitly type one Q_FOREACH(QChar ch, input) { if(std::isxdigit(ch.toAscii())) { if(index != 0 && (index & 1) == 0) { temp += ' '; } temp += ch.toUpper(); ++index; } } input = temp; } virtual State validate(QString &input, int &pos) const { if(!input.isEmpty()) { // TODO: can we detect if the char which was JUST deleted // (if any was deleted) was a space? and special case this? // as to not have the bug in this case? const int char_pos = pos - input.left(pos).count(' '); int chars = 0; fixup(input); pos = 0; while(chars != char_pos) { if(input[pos] != ' ') { ++chars; } ++pos; } // favor the right side of a space if(input[pos] == ' ') { ++pos; } } return QValidator::Acceptable; } }; For now this code is functional enough, but I'd love to have it work 100% as expected. Obviously the ideal would be the just separate the display of the hex string from the actual characters stored in the QLineEdit's internal buffer but I have no idea where to start with that and I imagine is a non-trivial undertaking. In essence, I would like to have a Validator which conforms to this regex: "[0-9A-Fa-f]( [0-9A-Fa-f])*" but I don't want the user to ever have to type a space as delimiter. Likewise, when editing what they types, the spaces should be managed implicitly.

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• Make a compiled binary run at native speed flawlessly without recompiling from source on a another system?

  - by unknownthreat

  I know that many people, at a first glance of the question, may immediately yell out "Java", but no, I know Java's qualities. Allow me to elaborate my question first. Normally, when we want our program to run at a native speed on a system, whether it be Windows, Mac OS X, or Linux, we need to compile from source codes. If you want to run a program of another system in your system, you need to use a virtual machine or an emulator. While these tools allow you to use the program you need on the non-native OS, they sometimes have problems of performance and glitches. We also have a newer compiler called "JIT Compiler", where the compiler will parse the bytecode program to native machine language before execution. The performance may increase to a very good extent with JIT Compiler, but the performance is still not the same as running it on a native system. Another program on Linux, WINE, is also a good tool for running Windows program on Linux system. I have tried running Team Fortress 2 on it, and tried experiment with some settings. I got ~40 fps on Windows at its mid-high setting on 1280 x 1024. On Linux, I need to turn everything low at 1280 x 1024 to get ~40 fps. There are 2 notable things though: Polygon model settings do not seem to affect framerate whether I set it low or high. When there are post-processing effects or some special effects that require manipulation of drawn pixels of the current frame, the framerate will drop to 10-20 fps. From this point, I can see that normal polygon rendering is just fine, but when it comes to newer rendering methods that requires graphic card to the job, it slows down to a crawl. Anyway, this question is rather theoretical. Is there anything we can do at all? I see that WINE can run STEAM and Team Fortress 2. Although there are flaws, they can run at lower setting. Or perhaps, I should also ask, "is it possible to translate one whole program on a system to another system without recompiling from source and get native speed?" I see that we also have AOT Compiler, is it possible to use it for something like this? Or there are so many constraints (such as DirectX call or differences in software architecture) that make it impossible to have a flawless and not native to the system program that runs at native speed?

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• NSOperation inside NSOperationQueue not being executed

  - by Martin Garcia

  I really need help here. I'm desperate at this point. I have NSOperation that when added to the NSOperationQueue is not being triggered. I added some logging to see the NSOperation status and this is the result: Queue operations count = 1 Queue isSuspended = 0 Operation isCancelled? = 0 Operation isConcurrent? = 0 Operation isFinished? = 0 Operation isExecuted? = 0 Operation isReady? = 1 Operation dependencies? = 0 The code is very simple. Nothing special. LoadingConflictEvents_iPad *loadingEvents = [[LoadingConflictEvents_iPad alloc] initWithNibName:@"LoadingConflictEvents_iPad" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; loadingEvents.modalPresentationStyle = UIModalPresentationFormSheet; loadingEvents.conflictOpDelegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:loadingEvents animated:NO]; [loadingEvents release]; ConflictEventOperation *operation = [[ConflictEventOperation alloc] initWithParameters:wiLr.formNumber pWI_ID:wiLr.wi_id]; [queue addOperation:operation]; NSLog(@"Queue operations count = %d",[queue operationCount]); NSLog(@"Queue isSuspended = %d",[queue isSuspended]); NSLog(@"Operation isCancelled? = %d",[operation isCancelled]); NSLog(@"Operation isConcurrent? = %d",[operation isConcurrent]); NSLog(@"Operation isFinished? = %d",[operation isFinished]); NSLog(@"Operation isExecuted? = %d",[operation isExecuting]); NSLog(@"Operation isReady? = %d",[operation isReady]); NSLog(@"Operation dependencies? = %d",[[operation dependencies] count]); [operation release]; Now my operation do many things on the main method, but the problem is never being called. The main is never executed. The most weird thing (believe me, I'm not crazy .. yet). If I put a break point in any NSLog line or in the creation of the operation the main method will be called and everything will work perfectly. This have been working fine for a long time. I have been making some changes recently and apparently something screw things up. One of those changes was to upgrade the device to iOS 5.1 SDK (iPad). To add something, I have the iPhone (iOS 5.1) version of this application that use the same NSOperation object. The difference is in the UI only, and everything works fine. Any help will be really appreciated. Regards,

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• Java Http request on api.stackexchange with json response

  - by taoder

  I'm trying to use the api-stackexchange with java but when I do the request and try to parse the response with a json parser I have an error. public ArrayList<Question> readJsonStream(InputStream in) throws IOException { JsonReader reader = new JsonReader(new InputStreamReader(in, "UTF-8")); reader.setLenient(true); try { System.out.println(reader.nextString()); // ? special character return readItem(reader); } finally { reader.close(); } } public ArrayList<Question> readItem(JsonReader reader) throws IOException { ArrayList<Question> questions = new ArrayList<Question>(); reader.beginObject(); while (reader.hasNext()) { System.out.println("here");//not print the error is before String name = reader.nextName(); if (name.equals("items")) { questions = readQuestionsArray(reader); } } reader.endObject(); return questions; } public final static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { URIBuilder builder = new URIBuilder(); builder.setScheme("http").setHost("api.stackexchange.com").setPath("/2.0/search") .setParameter("site", "stackoverflow") .setParameter("intitle" ,"workaround") .setParameter("tagged","javascript"); URI uri = builder.build(); String surl = fixEncoding(uri.toString()+"&filter=!)QWRa9I-CAn0PqgUwq7)DVTM"); System.out.println(surl); Test t = new Test(); try { URL url = new URL(surl); t.readJsonStream(url.openStream()); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } And the error is: com.google.gson.stream.MalformedJsonException: Expected literal value at line 1 column 19 Here is an example of the Json : { "items": [ { "question_id": 10842231, "score": 0, "title": "How to push oath token to LocalStorage or LocalSession and listen to the Storage Event? (SoundCloud Php/JS bug workaround)", "tags": [ "javascript", "javascript-events", "local-storage", "soundcloud" ], "answers": [ { "question_id": 10842231, "answer_id": 10857488, "score": 0, "is_accepted": false } ], "link": "http://stackoverflow.com/questions/10842231/how-to-push-oath-token-to-localstorage-or-localsession-and-listen-to-the-storage", "is_answered": false },... So what's the problem? Is the Json really malformed? Or did I do something not right? Thanks, Anthony

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• What is the difference between NULL in C++ and null in Java?

  - by Stephano

  I've been trying to figure out why C++ is making me crazy typing NULL. Suddenly it hits me the other day; I've been typing null (lower case) in Java for years. Now suddenly I'm programming in C++ and that little chunk of muscle memory is making me crazy. Wikiperipatetic defines C++ NULL as part of the stddef: A macro that expands to a null pointer constant. It may be defined as ((void*)0), 0 or 0L depending on the compiler and the language. Sun's docs tells me this about Java's "null literal": The null type has one value, the null reference, represented by the literal null, which is formed from ASCII characters. A null literal is always of the null type. So this is all very nice. I know what a null pointer reference is, and thank you for the compiler notes. Now I'm a little fuzzy on the idea of a literal in Java so I read on... A literal is the source code representation of a fixed value; literals are represented directly in your code without requiring computation. There's also a special null literal that can be used as a value for any reference type. null may be assigned to any variable, except variables of primitive types. There's little you can do with a null value beyond testing for its presence. Therefore, null is often used in programs as a marker to indicate that some object is unavailable. Ok, so I think I get it now. In C++ NULL is a macro that, when compiled, defines the null pointer constant. In Java, null is a fixed value that any non-primitive can be assigned too; great for testing in a handy if statement. Java does not have pointers, so I can see why they kept null a simple value rather than anything fancy. But why did java decide to change the all caps NULL to null? Furthermore, am I missing anything here?

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• Trying to style the first tbody different than others without introducing another class.

  - by mwiik

  I have a table with multiple tbody's, each of which has a classed row, and I want it so that the classed row in the first tbody has style differences, but am unable to get tbody:first-child to work in any browser. Perhaps I am missing something, or maybe there is a workaround. Ideally, I would like to provide the programmers with a single tbody section they can use as a template, but will otherwise have to add a class to the first tbody, making for an extra test in the programming. The html is straightforward: <tbody class="subGroup"> <tr class="subGroupHeader"> <th colspan="8">All Grades: Special Education</th> <td class="grid" colspan="2"><!-- contains AMO line --></td> <td><!-- right 100 --></td> </tr> <tr>...</tr> <!-- several more rows of data --> </tbody> There are several tbody's per table. I want to style the th and td's within tr.subGroupHeader in the very first tbody differently than the rest. Just to illustrate, I want to add a border-top to the tr.subGroupHeader cells. The tr.subGroupHeader will be styled with a border-top, such as: table.databargraph.continued tr.subGroupHeader th, table.databargraph.continued tr.subGroupHeader td { border-top: 6px solid red; } For the first tbody, I am trying: table.databargraph.continued tbody:first-child tr.subGroupHeader th { border-top: 6px solid blue ; } However, this doesn't seem to work in any browser (I've tested in Safari, Opera, Firefox, and PrinceXML, all on my Mac) Curiously, the usually excellent Xyle Scope tool indicates that the blue border should be taking precedence, though it obviously is not. See the screenshot at http://s3.amazonaws.com/ember/kUD8DHrz06xowTBK3qpB2biPJrLWTZCP_o.png This screenshot shows (top left) the American Indian th is selected, and (bottom right), shows (via black instead of gray text for the css declaration), that, indeed, the blue border should be given precedence. Yet the border is red. I may be missing something fundamental, like pseudo-classes not working for tbodys at all... This really only needs to work in PrinceXML, and maybe Safari so I can see what I'm doing with webkit-based css tools. Note I did try a selector like tr.subGroupHeader:first-child, but such tr's apparently consider the tbody the parent (as I would suspect), thus made every border blue. Thanks...

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• Inline HTML Syntax for Helpers in ASP.NET MVC

  - by kouPhax

  I have a class that extends the HtmlHelper in MVC and allows me to use the builder pattern to construct special output e.g. <%= Html.FieldBuilder<MyModel>(builder => { builder.Field(model => model.PropertyOne); builder.Field(model => model.PropertyTwo); builder.Field(model => model.PropertyThree); }) %> Which outputs some application specific HTML, lets just say, <ul> <li>PropertyOne: 12</li> <li>PropertyTwo: Test</li> <li>PropertyThree: true</li> </ul> What I would like to do, however, is add a new builder methid for defining some inline HTML without having to store is as a string. E.g. I'd like to do this. <% Html.FieldBuilder<MyModel>(builder => { builder.Field(model => model.PropertyOne); builder.Field(model => model.PropertyTwo); builder.ActionField(model => %> Generated: <%=DateTime.Now.ToShortDate()%> (<a href="#">Refresh</a>) <%); }).Render(); %> and generate this <ul> <li>PropertyOne: 12</li> <li>PropertyTwo: Test</li> <li>Generated: 29/12/2008 <a href="#">Refresh</a></li> </ul> Essentially an ActionExpression that accepts a block of HTML. However to do this it seems I need to execute the expression but point the execution of the block to my own StringWriter and I am not sure how to do this. Can anyone advise?

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