Search Results

Search found 5299 results on 212 pages for 'whenever'.

Page 176/212 | < Previous Page | 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183  | Next Page >

  • Fading out everything but (this) - while honoring a click()

    - by Kasper Lewau
    I'm trying to achieve a fading navigation system, where everything in the nav but the element being hovered will fade out to say, 0.3 opacity. At the same time, I want clicks to have a greater "value", so as to not fade out a clicked element (or in this case, the active subpage).. That didn't make much sense to me either, I'll just post the code I have. <nav id="main"> <ul> <li> <a>work</a> </li> <li> <a>about me</a> </li> <li> <a>contact</a> </li> </ul> </nav> And the script that makes it sparkle: var nava = "nav#main ul li a"; $(nava).hover(function(){ $(nava).not(this).removeClass().addClass("inactive"); $(this).addClass("active"); }); $(nava).click(function(){ $(this).removeClass().addClass("active"); }); }); And the classes / css(less): .inactive{color:@color2; border-bottom:0 solid #000;} .active{color:@color1; border-bottom:1px solid #000;} nav#main ul li a{color:@color1;} Basically the hover states take priority over the click, which I do not want to happen. Ideally I'd like for all of the anchor elements to revert to its original state whenever you hover out from the unordered list holding it all. If anyone has some pointers on this it'd be greatly appreciated. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

    - by Arj
    Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I stop js files being cached in IE?

    - by DoctaJonez
    Hello stackers! I've created a page that uses the CKEditor javascript rich edit control. It's a pretty neat control, especially seeing as it's free, but I'm having serious issues with the way it allows you to add templates. To add a template you need to modify the templates js file in the CKEditor templates folder. The documentation page describing it is here. This works fine until I want to update a template or add a new one (or anything else that requires me to modify the js file). Internet Explorer caches the js file and doesn't pick up the update. Emptying the cache allows the update to be picked up, but this isn't an acceptable solution. Whenever I update a template I do not want to tell all of the users across the organisation to empty their IE cache. There must be a better way! Is there a way to stop IE caching the js file? Or is there another solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

    Read the article

  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

    Read the article

  • Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

    - by mr.b
    In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Association Mapping Details confusion?

    - by AaronLS
    I have never understood why the associations in EntityFramework look the way they do in the Mapping Details window. When I select the line between 2 tables for an association, for example FK_ApplicationSectionsNodes_FormItems, it shows this: Association Maps to ApplicationSectionNodes FormItems (key symbol) FormItemId:Int32 <--> FormItemId:int ApplicationSectionNodes (key symbol) NodeId:Int32 <--> (key symbol) NodeId : int Fortunately this one was create automatically for me based on the foreign key constraints in my database, but whenever no constraints exist, I have a hard to creating associations manually(when the database doesn't have a diagram setup) because I don't understand the mapping details for associations. FormItems table has a primary key identity column FormItemId, and ApplicationSectionNodes contains a FormItemId column that is the foreign key and has NodeId as a primary key identity column. What really makes no sense to me is why the association has anything listed about the NodeId, when NodeId doesn't have anything to do with the foreign key relationship? (It's even more confusing with self referencing relationships, but maybe if I could understand the above case I'd have a better handle). CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes]( [NodeID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [OutlineText] [varchar](5000) NULL, [ParentNodeID] [int] NULL, [FormItemId] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_ApplicationSectionNodes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [NodeID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY], CONSTRAINT [UQ_ApplicationSectionNodesFormItemId] UNIQUE NONCLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] FOREIGN KEY([ParentNodeID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] ([NodeID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_ApplicationSectionNodes] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItems] ([FormItemId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[ApplicationSectionNodes] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ApplicationSectionNodes_FormItems] GO FormItems Table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[FormItems]( [FormItemId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [FormItemType] [int] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_FormItems] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [FormItemId] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] WITH NOCHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] FOREIGN KEY([FormItemType]) REFERENCES [dbo].[FormItemTypes] ([FormItemTypeId]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[FormItems] NOCHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_FormItems_FormItemTypes] GO

    Read the article

  • SQL Databases and table design/organization

    - by John McMullen
    (NOOB disclaimer) I'm working on a system (a type of map), that is accessed mostly via 3 fields: ID (auto incremented), X coordinate, and Y coordinate. As it is right now, i have all data on the map, stored in 1 table. Whenever the map display is loaded it simply queries the database for contents in x and y, and the DB gives the data (other fields in the same entry). If an item on the map is doing something, it has a flag saying its doing something, and then has an ID of the action in another table holding that type of 'actions'. Essentially, for all map data, its stored in 1 table. All actions of a certain type are stored in their own table. I'm a noob, and i'm wondering what the most effective/efficient structure for such a design? (a map that has items, and each item has stats/actions). I'm using PHP atm, using standard SQL queries to get my data. Should i split up the tables so that there are only x number of entries on a table? (coord range limits)? Should it just keep growing and growing? There's a lot of queries to the table... so just tryin to see what is best :/

    Read the article

  • How Would a Newborn Baby Learn Web Programming?

    - by Mugatu
    Hello all, I chose that title because I equate my knowledge of web programming and web development with that of a newborn. Here's the shortest version of my story and what I'm looking to do: A friend and I have been coming up with website ideas for a couple years, mostly just jotting them down whenever we come up with a good, useful idea when browsing the web. For the past 6 months we've hired a couple different programmers to make a couple of the sites for us, but have been disappointed with how it's gone. Been too slow and too many miscommunications for our liking. So like the saying goes if you want something done right do it yourself, we're going to do it ourselves. I know nothing about programming, I've never written a line of code in my life. I consider myself very good with math and about as logical as you can get, but I have zero real-life programming knowledge. The sites we want to make are all pretty 'Web 2.0'ish', meaning user-generated content, commenting on posts, pages that change on the fly, etc. So here are some of my questions for anyone who's been there before: Is there a language you'd recommend learning first? Something that is a good indicator how most other languages work? What web programming languages do you recommend learning first based on popularity both now and the future. I don't want to learn a language that's going to be outdated by the time I'm an expert at it. Any specific books you'd recommend? Any general advice you'd give to someone literally starting at square zero for coding who plans on being in it for the long haul? Thanks in advance for the help

    Read the article

  • iOS: click counter for row in tableview

    - by roger.arliner21
    I am developing and tableView in which in each row I have to display the click counter and row number.Each cell must have an initial click counter value of 0 when application is initialized. Then increment the click counter value within a cell whenever a user clicks on the cell. I have take 26 fixed rows. I have taken tableData.plist file as in the attached image. I am initializing the self.dataArray with the plist . Now I want to do implementation in the didSelectRowAtIndexPath delegate method,if any row is tapped that row's click counter should increment. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"tableData" ofType:@"plist"]; self.dataArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:path];//array initialized with plist } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return [self.dataArray count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *kCustomCellID = @"MyCellID"; UILabel *label1 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(160.0f, 2.0f, 30.0f, 20.0f)]; UILabel *label2 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(160.0f, 24.0f, 30.0f, 30.0f)]; label2.textColor = [UIColor grayColor]; UITableViewCell *cell = (UITableViewCell *)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:kCustomCellID]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:kCustomCellID] autorelease]; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; } if([self.dataArray count]>indexPath.row) { label1.text = [[self.dataArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"Lable1"]; label2.text =[[self.dataArray objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"Lable2"]; } else { label1.text = @""; label2.text =@""; } [cell.contentView addSubview:label1]; [cell.contentView addSubview:label2]; [label1 release]; [label2 release]; return cell; } #pragma mark - #pragma mark Table view delegate - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { //implementation for row counter incrementer. }

    Read the article

  • How do I create a class repository in Java and do I really need it?

    - by Roman
    I have a large number of objects which are identified by names (strings). So, I would like to have a kind of mapping from object name to the class instances. I was told that in this situation I can use a "repository" class which works like that: Server myServer = ServerRepository.getServer("NameOfServer"); So, if there is already an object (sever) with the "NameOfServer" it will be returned by the "getServer". If such an object does not exist yet, it will be created and returned by the "getServer". So, my question is how to program such a "repository" class? In this class I have to be able to check if there is an instance of a given class such that it has a given value of a given field. How can I do it? I need to have a kind of loop over all existing object of a given class? Another part of my question is why I cannot use associative arrays (associative container, map, mapping, dictionary, finite map)? (I am not sure how do you call it in Java) In more details, I have an "array" which maps names of objects to objects. So, whenever I create a new object, I add a new element to the array: myArray["NameOfServer"] = new Server("NameOfServer").

    Read the article

  • Overloading generic implicit conversions

    - by raichoo
    Hi I'm having a little scala (version 2.8.0RC1) problem with implicit conversions. Whenever importing more than one implicit conversion the first one gets shadowed. Here is the code where the problem shows up: // containers class Maybe[T] case class Nothing[T]() extends Maybe[T] case class Just[T](value: T) extends Maybe[T] case class Value[T](value: T) trait Monad[C[_]] { def >>=[A, B](a: C[A], f: A => C[B]): C[B] def pure[A](a: A): C[A] } // implicit converter trait Extender[C[_]] { class Wrapper[A](c: C[A]) { def >>=[B](f: A => C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, f) } def >>[B](b: C[B])(implicit m: Monad[C]): C[B] = { m >>= (c, { (x: A) => b } ) } } implicit def extendToMonad[A](c: C[A]) = new Wrapper[A](c) } // instance maybe object maybemonad extends Extender[Maybe] { implicit object MaybeMonad extends Monad[Maybe] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Maybe[A], f: A => Maybe[B]): Maybe[B] = { a match { case Just(x) => f(x) case Nothing() => Nothing() } } override def pure[A](a: A): Maybe[A] = Just(a) } } // instance value object identitymonad extends Extender[Value] { implicit object IdentityMonad extends Monad[Value] { override def >>=[A, B](a: Value[A], f: A => Value[B]): Value[B] = { a match { case Value(x) => f(x) } } override def pure[A](a: A): Value[A] = Value(a) } } import maybemonad._ //import identitymonad._ object Main { def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { println(Just(1) >>= { (x: Int) => MaybeMonad.pure(x) }) } } When uncommenting the second import statement everything goes wrong since the first "extendToMonad" is shadowed. However, this one works: object Main { implicit def foo(a: Int) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println("Foobar") } } implicit def foo(a: String) = new { def foobar(): Unit = { println(a) } } def main(args: Array[String]): Unit = { 1 foobar() "bla" foobar() } } So, where is the catch? What am I missing? Regards, raichoo

    Read the article

  • Permuting a binary tree without the use of lists

    - by Banang
    I need to find an algorithm for generating every possible permutation of a binary tree, and need to do so without using lists (this is because the tree itself carries semantics and restraints that cannot be translated into lists). I've found an algorithm that works for trees with the height of three or less, but whenever I get to greater hights, I loose one set of possible permutations per height added. Each node carries information about its original state, so that one node can determine if all possible permutations have been tried for that node. Also, the node carries information on weather or not it's been 'swapped', i.e. if it has seen all possible permutations of it's subtree. The tree is left-centered, meaning that the right node should always (except in some cases that I don't need to cover for this algorithm) be a leaf node, while the left node is always either a leaf or a branch. The algorithm I'm using at the moment can be described sort of like this: if the left child node has been swapped swap my right node with the left child nodes right node set the left child node as 'unswapped' if the current node is back to its original state swap my right node with the lowest left nodes' right node swap the lowest left nodes two childnodes set my left node as 'unswapped' set my left chilnode to use this as it's original state set this node as swapped return null return this; else if the left child has not been swapped if the result of trying to permute left child is null return the permutation of this node else return the permutation of the left child node if this node has a left node and a right node that are both leaves swap them set this node to be 'swapped' The desired behaviour of the algoritm would be something like this: branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 0 1 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 1 0 <-- first swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 <-- second swap / | 2 0 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 / | 0 2 <-- third swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 0 <-- fourth swap / | 1 2 and so on... Sorry for the ridiculisly long and waddly explanation, would really, really apreciate any sort of help you guys could offer me. Thanks a bunch!

    Read the article

  • select option clears when page loads in php

    - by user79685
    Hey guys, the scenario is this: see select below <form name="limit"> <select name="limiter" onChange="limit(this.value)"> <option selected="selected">&nbsp;</option> <option value="5">5</option> <option value="10">10</option> <option value="15">15</option> </select> </form> I want whenever any option is selected for 3 things to happen: 1.) js limit() function is called which all it does its takes current url, adds new query parameter 'limit' with the user selected value eg: http://localhost/blahblah/apps/category.php?pg=1&catId=3021&limit=5 (this will cause the category.php page to be hit and # of product displayed limited to the value selected by user) 2.)Once the url is hit, it reloads but i DONT want the value selected to reset back to the default (which it currently does). I want it to reflect the users selection after page reload. 3.) Also, when i move to the next page (pagination), i would like the state to be carried ova to the next page (ie. remembering the user selection).

    Read the article

  • Get more error information from unhandled error

    - by Andrew Simpson
    I am using C# in a desktop application. I am calling a DLL written in C that I do not have the source code for. Whenever I call this DLL I get an untrapped error which I trap in an UnhandledException event/delegate. The error is : object reference not set to an instance of an object But the stack trace is empty. When I Googled this the info back was that the error was being hanlded eleswhere and then rethrown. But this can only be in the DLL I do not have the source code for. So, is there anyway I can get more info about this error? This is my code... in program.cs... AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += new UnhandledExceptionEventHandler(CurrentDomain_UnhandledException); static void CurrentDomain_UnhandledException(object sender, UnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { try { Exception _ex = (Exception)e.ExceptionObject; //the stact trace property is empty here.. } finally { Application.Exit(); } } My DLL... [DllImport("AutoSearchDevice.dll", EntryPoint = "Start", ExactSpelling = false, CallingConvention = CallingConvention.StdCall)] public static extern int Start(int ASD_HANDLE); An I call it like so: public static void AutoSearchStart() { try { Start(m_pASD); } catch (Exception ex) { } }

    Read the article

  • function returns after an XMLHttpRequest

    - by ashays
    Alright, I know questions like this have probably been asked dozens of times, but I can't seem to find a working solution for my project. Recently, while using jQuery for a lot of AJAX calls, I've found myself in a form of callback hell. Whether or not jQuery is too powerful for this project is beyond the scope of this question. So basically here's some code that shows what's going on: function check_form(table) { var file = "/models/"+table+".json"; var errs = {}; var xhr = $.getJSON(file, function(json) { for (key in json) { var k = key; var r = json[k]; $.extend(errs, check_item("#"+k,r)); } }); return errs; } And... as you can probably guess, I get an empty object returned. My original idea was to use some sort of onReadyStateChange idea that would return whenever the readyState had finally hit 4. This causes my application to hang indefinitely, though. I need these errors to decide whether or not the form is allowed to submit or not (as well as to tell the user where the errors are in the application. Any ideas? Edit. It's not the prettiest solution, but I've managed to get it to work. Basically, check_form has the json passed to it from another function, instead of loading it. I was already loading it there, too, so it's probably best that I don't continue to load the same file over and over again anyways. I was just worried about overloading memory. These files aren't absolutely huge, though, so I guess it's probably okay.

    Read the article

  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

    Read the article

  • JQuery fadeIn fadeOut loop issue

    - by Tarun
    I am trying to create a jQuery fadeIn fadeout effect for my page content using the code below. $(document).ready(function (){ $("#main").click(function(){ $("#content").fadeOut(800, function(){ $("#content").load("main.html", function(){ $("#content").fadeIn(800); }); }); }); $("#gallery").click(function(){ $("#content").fadeOut(800, function(){ $("#content").load("gallery.html", function(){ $("#content").fadeIn(800); }); }); }); }); So whenever a user clicks on either the main link or gallery link, the old content fades out and new content fades in. The problem I am facing is that for every link I have to repeat the same code again and again. So I tried to use a loop to simplify this but it doesn't work. Here is my code: var p = ["#main","#gallery", "#contact"]; var q = ["main.html", "gallery.html", "contact.html"]; for (i=0;i<=(p.length-1);i++){ $(p[i]).click(function(){ $("#content").fadeOut(500, function(){ $("#content").load(q[i], function(){ $("#content").fadeIn(500); }); }); }); } It works fine when I write repeat the scripts for each link but it doesn't work when I combine them in a loop. I only get the FadeOut effect and nothing happens after that. This might be a very simple issue or may be something deep into jQuery. Any hint or help is greatly appreciated. TK

    Read the article

  • How do I enable SVN menu in an editor window in Eclipse?

    - by Jordan Reiter
    The SVN menu is disabled whenever I'm in an edit window; it's enabled when I'm in the Navigator or similar file browsing windows. I'd like to have the SVN menu enabled while the editor window is open in order so that I can set up a key binding and commit while editing the document rather than having to switch over to the navigation view to commit a file. This is Eclipse 3.5 using Eclipse's Subversion Connectors plugin. This may be related: I had to do a reinstall of eclipse and a fair number of the keybindings no longer work the way the once did. In addition, many keystrokes now only work in windows only instead of windows and dialogs (specifically select all, copy, and paste). If these problems are related and there's an easy way to repair or refresh my keybindings without having to start over completely that would be great. Clarification I know how to set up key mappings. That's not a problem. I have them set up. The problem is that the SVN menu is disabled in the editor pane. I can access the SVN menu from the Navigator or similar panes, and I've set up the keymappings exactly the way I want them. They just aren't working in all contexts.

    Read the article

  • jQuery: select checkbox when upload field is clicked

    - by Arne Stephensson
    I'm working on a CMS. When a user wants to replace an existing thumbnail image, they can upload a replacement, and check a checkbox to certify that they are indeed replacing the image. The checkbox seems necessary because otherwise the form submits a blank value (due to the presence of the upload field with no value) and wipes out the existing image without a replacement image being specified. The problem is that I keep forgetting to manually activate the checkbox and the uploaded image does not actually replace the existing one because without the checkbox being clicked, the receiving PHP file does not (by design) process the incoming filename. I suspect that users will have the same problem and I want to keep this from happening by reducing the number of steps required. One solution would be to check the checkbox with jQuery whenever the upload field is clicked. So why doesn't this work: $('#upload_field').click(function () { if ($('#replace_image').attr('checked',true)) { $('#replace_image').removeAttr('checked'); alert('Unchecked'); } else if ($('#replace_image').attr('checked',false)) { $('#replace_image').attr('checked','checked'); alert('Checked'); } });

    Read the article

  • OnConnect event not firing when using TClientSocket inside a TThread on non-blocking mode

    - by mathematician1975
    I am trying to make use of Borlands TClientSocket component in non-blocking mode inside a multithreaded C++ Windows application. I am creating multiple threads (classes derived from TThread), each of which creates its own TClientSocket object. I then assign member functions of the thread class to act as event handlers for the OnConnect, OnDisconnect and OnSocketError events of the socket. The problem I am having here is that whenever I call the TClientSocket::Open() function from within the TThread::Execute() function, the OnConnect event never fires. However, When I call the Open() function from the VCL thread prior to the TThread::Execute() function getting called, all of the events fire and I can use the thread-socket combination as I would like. Now I have not read anything in documentation that says that TClientSocket should not be used in non-blocking mode when used inside a thread, but it appears to me that there is perhaps something wrong conceptually in the way I am trying to use this class. Borland documentation is quite poor on the subject and these components have now been deprecated so reliable information is hard to come by. Despite being deprecated I have to use them as there is no alternative in the Builder 6 package I have. Can anyone please advise me if there is a right/wrong way to use TThread and a non-blocking TClientSocket in combination. I have never had problems using it as part of the VCL thread and never had problems using TServerSocket before and I really cannot understand why some events are not firing.

    Read the article

  • Why is Grails Searchable Plugin causing errors on Hibernate AutoFlush?

    - by Mark Rogers
    In the Grails 1.2.5 project that I am trying to troubleshoot, we use the Grails Searchable plugin .5.5.1. The problem is that whenever we attempt to index large sets domain classes, Grails keeps throwing: ERROR hibernate.AssertionFailure - an assertion failure occured (this may indicate a bug in Hibernate, but is more likely due to unsafe use of the session) org.hibernate.AssertionFailure: collection [domain-class] was not processed by flush() But the domain classes involved have been mapped and used by hibernate without issues outside of the calls to searchable plugin. The use of the searchable plugin goes as follows: Create a compass session with compass.openSession() Begin compass transaction: compassSession.beginTransaction() Then compassSession.create(result.get(0)) is called on an important unindexed domain class Finally compassTransaction.commit() is called to commit the transaction. Goto 2 and process next domain class Between the 3 and 4th Domain class, an autoflush is triggered that throws the error. Can anyone give me any hints about how to solve this problem? Has anyone encountered this problem before? I know that they had a systemic issue with this back in pre .5 versions of the searchable-plugin. Is it possible those issues weren't totally fixed?

    Read the article

  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

    Read the article

  • Problem in getting response from server in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

    Read the article

  • Problem with 2 levels of inheritance in hibernate mapping

    - by Seth
    Here's my class structure: class A class B extends A class C extends A class D extends C class E extends C And here are my mappings (class bodies omitted for brevity): Class A: @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @MappedSuperclass @DiscriminatorColumn( name="className", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING ) @ForceDiscriminator public abstract class A Class B: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("B") public class B extends A Class C: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("C") @MappedSuperclass @DiscriminatorColumn( name="cType", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING ) @ForceDiscriminator public abstract class C extends A Class D: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("D") public class D extends C Class E: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("E") public class E extends C I've got a class F that contains a set of A: @Entity public class F { ... @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name="F_A", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="A_ID"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name="F_ID") ) private Set<A> aSet = new HashSet<A>(); ... The problem is that whenever I add a new E instance to aSet and then call session.saveOrUpdate(fInstance), hibernate saves with "A" as the discrimiator string. When I try to access the aSet in the F instance, I get the following exception (full stacktrace ommitted for brevity): org.hibernate.InstantiationException: Cannot instantiate abstract class or interface: path.to.class.A Am I mapping the classes incorrectly? How am I supposed to map multiple levels of inheritance? Thanks for the help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183  | Next Page >