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  • Generating scala AST for recursive method.

    - by scout
    I am generating the scala AST using the following code: val setting = new Settings(error) val reporter = new ConsoleReporter(setting, in, out) { override def displayPrompt = () } val compiler = new Global(setting, reporter) with ASTExtractor{ override def onlyPresentation = true } //setting.PhasesSetting("parser", "parserPhase") val run = new compiler.Run val sourceFiles:List[String] = List("Test.scala") run.compile(sourceFiles.toList) I guess this is the standard code used to run the compiler in the code and generate the AST to work with. The above code worked fine for any valid scala code in Test.scala till now. When I use a recursive function in Test.scala, like def xMethod(x:Int):Int = if(x == 0) -1 else xMethod(x-1) It gives me a java.lang.NullPointerException. The top few lines of the stack trace look like this at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.checkNoDoubleDefsAndAddSynthetics$1(Typers.scala:2170) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typedStats(Typers.scala:2196) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typedBlock(Typers.scala:1951) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typed1(Typers.scala:3815) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typed(Typers.scala:4124) at scala.tools.nsc.typechecker.Typers$Typer.typed(Typers.scala:4177) at scala.tools.nsc.transform.TailCalls$TailCallElimination.transform(TailCalls.scala:199) The code works fine for a method like def aMethod(c:Int):Int = { bMethod(c) } def bMethod(x:Int):Int = aMethod(x) Please let me know if recursive functions need any other setting.

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  • Prevent full table scan for query with multiple where clauses

    - by Dave Jarvis
    A while ago I posted a message about optimizing a query in MySQL. I have since ported the data and query to PostgreSQL, but now PostgreSQL has the same problem. The solution in MySQL was to force the optimizer to not optimize using STRAIGHT_JOIN. PostgreSQL offers no such option. Here is the explain: Here is the query: SELECT avg(d.amount) AS amount, y.year FROM station s, station_district sd, year_ref y, month_ref m, daily d LEFT JOIN city c ON c.id = 10663 WHERE -- Find all the stations within a specific unit radius ... -- 6371.009 * SQRT( POW(RADIANS(c.latitude_decimal - s.latitude_decimal), 2) + (COS(RADIANS(c.latitude_decimal + s.latitude_decimal) / 2) * POW(RADIANS(c.longitude_decimal - s.longitude_decimal), 2)) ) <= 50 AND -- Ignore stations outside the given elevations -- s.elevation BETWEEN 0 AND 2000 AND sd.id = s.station_district_id AND -- Gather all known years for that station ... -- y.station_district_id = sd.id AND -- The data before 1900 is shaky; insufficient after 2009. -- y.year BETWEEN 1980 AND 2000 AND -- Filtered by all known months ... -- m.year_ref_id = y.id AND m.month = 12 AND -- Whittled down by category ... -- m.category_id = '001' AND -- Into the valid daily climate data. -- m.id = d.month_ref_id AND d.daily_flag_id <> 'M' GROUP BY y.year It appears as though PostgreSQL is looking at the DAILY table first, which is simply not the right way to go about this query as there are nearly 300 million rows. How do I force PostgreSQL to start at the CITY table? Thank you!

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  • Django inlineformset validation and delete

    - by Andrew Gee
    Hi, Can someone tell me if a form in an inlineformset should go through validation if the DELETE field is checked. I have a form that uses an inlineformset and when I check the DELETE box it fails because the required fields are blank. If I put data in the fields it will pass validation and then be deleted. Is that how it is supposed to work, I would have thought that if it is marked for delete it would bypass the validation for that form. Regards Andrew Follow up - but I would still appreciate some others opinions/help What I have figured out is that for validation to work the a formset form must either be empty or complete(valid) otherwise it will have errors when it is created and will not be deleted. As I have a couple of hidden fields in my formset forms and they are pre-populated when the page loads via javascript the form fails validation on the other required fields which might still be blank. The way I have gotten around this by adding in a check in the add_fields that tests if the DELETE input is True and if it is it makes all fields on the form not required, which means it passes validation and will then delete. def add_fields(self, form, index) #add other fields that are required.... deleteValue = form.fields['DELETE'].widget.value_from datadict(form.data, form.files, form.add_prefix('DELETE')) if bool(deleteValue) or deleteValue == '': for name, field in form.fields.items(): form.fields[name].required= False This seems to be an odd way to do things but I cannot figure out another way. Is there a simpler way that I am missing? I have also noticed that when I add the new form to my page and check the Delete box, there is no value passed back via the request, however an existing form (one loaded from the database) has a value of on when the Delete box is checked. If the box is not checked then the input is not in the request at all. Thanks Andrew

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  • validating wsdl/schema using cxf

    - by SGB
    I am having a hard time getting cxf to validate an xml request that my service creates for a 3rd party. My project uses maven. Here is my project structure Main Module : + Sub-Module1 = Application + sub-Module2 = Interfaces In Interfaces, inside src/main/resources I have my wsdl and xsd. so, src/main/resources + mywsdl.wsdl. + myschema.xsd The interface submodule is listed as a dependency in the Application-sub-module. inside Application sub-module, there is a cxsf file in src/maim/resources. <jaxws:client name="{myTargerNameSpaceName}port" createdFromAPI="true"> <jaxws:properties> <entry key="schema-validation-enabled" value="true" /> </jaxws:properties> </jaxws:client> AND:. <jaxws:endpoint name="{myTargetNameSpaceName}port" wsdlLocation="/mywsdl.wsdl" createdFromAPI="true"> <jaxws:properties> <entry key="schema-validation-enabled" value="true" /> </jaxws:properties> </jaxws:endpoint> I tried changing the "name="{myTargetNameSpaceName}port" to "name="{myEndPointName}port" But to no anvil. My application works. But it just do not validate the xml I am producing that has to be consumed by a 3rd party application. I would like to get the validation working, so that any request that I send would be a valid one. Any suggestions?

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  • Creating custom IP-STS for sharepoint foundation 2010 without ADFS

    - by user252229
    I plan to create very simple custom IP-STS for SharePoint foundation 2010 without ADFS server so anyone can integrate Windows Live ID to SharePoint foundation 2010 simply without ADFS, I can't use ADFS server because it could not install on Windows Web Server 2008 (Web Edition), also I found many article use LDAP provider but it does not exists in SharePoint Foundation too (it requires Sharepoint Server Edition). After too much searching I just found the following article and find all technique except one problem. 1) Creating Custom Claim Provider: blogs.technet.com/b/speschka/archive/2010/03/13/writing-a-custom-claims-provider-for-sharepoint-2010-part-1.aspx 2) Creating Custom STS Provider: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/chunliu/archive/2010/04/02/how-to-make-use-of-a-custom-ip-sts-with-sharepoint-2010-part-1.aspx Only one step remains: I got following error after enter username in STS site and redirect to localhost/_trust/default.aspx , ( I leave EncryptingCertificateName empty). Operation is not valid due to the current state of the object I expect to get access denied error instead of that error. 1.Is it possible anyway? 2.Can anyone help me where can I find working article to create custom IP-STS without ADFS server Any idea will help me Thanks

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  • Desktop Notifications, aka Internal Alert System

    - by Refracted Paladin
    It has become apparent that where I work needs, internally, a "notification system". The issue being that we are very spread out throughout multiple buildings and the bulk of the work force regularly keeps there email closed for hours at a time. I need to create a simple way to be able to push out a message and have it "pop up" on everyones computer(or a single computer). My first thought was to write a windows service that calls a winform/wpf app that resides on each computer that simply pops up with the message. Not sure how viable an idea that is but this is just brain-storming. A different route, I thought, could be an app that resides in the systray on each computer that polls a db table and using the Query Notifications could pop up a message each time a new row is added. Then simply create an insanely basic app for writing a row to that table. So, what I am asking is if any one else has walked this path. If so, how? What things did you take into consideration? Are either of my ideas valid starting points or are "egg and my face in perfect alignment"? Is there a different way that is even simpler? Thanks

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  • Delegates in .NET: how are they constructed ?

    - by Saulius
    While inspecting delegates in C# and .NET in general, I noticed some interesting facts: Creating a delegate in C# creates a class derived from MulticastDelegate with a constructor: .method public hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(object 'object', native int 'method') runtime managed { } Meaning that it expects the instance and a pointer to the method. Yet the syntax of constructing a delegate in C# suggests that it has a constructor new MyDelegate(int () target) where I can recognise int () as a function instance (int *target() would be a function pointer in C++). So obviously the C# compiler picks out the correct method from the method group defined by the function name and constructs the delegate. So the first question would be, where does the C# compiler (or Visual Studio, to be precise) pick this constructor signature from ? I did not notice any special attributes or something that would make a distinction. Is this some sort of compiler/visualstudio magic ? If not, is the T (args) target construction valid in C# ? I did not manage to get anything with it to compile, e.g.: int () target = MyMethod; is invalid, so is doing anything with MyMetod, e.g. calling .ToString() on it (well this does make some sense, since that is technically a method group, but I imagine it should be possible to explicitly pick out a method by casting, e.g. (int())MyFunction. So is all of this purely compiler magic ? Looking at the construction through reflector reveals yet another syntax: Func CS$1$0000 = new Func(null, (IntPtr) Foo); This is consistent with the disassembled constructor signature, yet this does not compile! One final interesting note is that the classes Delegate and MulticastDelegate have yet another sets of constructors: .method family hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(class System.Type target, string 'method') cil managed Where does the transition from an instance and method pointer to a type and a string method name occur ? Can this be explained by the runtime managed keywords in the custom delegate constructor signature, i.e. does the runtime do it's job here ?

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  • How do I encapsulate form/post/validation[/redirect] in ViewUserControl in ASP.Net MVC 2

    - by paul
    What I am trying to achieve: encapsulate a Login (or any) Form to be reused across site post to self when Login/validation fails, show original page with Validation Summary (some might argue to just post to Login Page and show Validation Summary there; if what I'm trying to achieve isn't possible, I will just go that route) when Login succeeds, redirect to /App/Home/Index also, want to: stick to PRG principles avoid ajax keep Login Form (UserController.Login()) as encapsulated as possible; avoid having to implement HomeController.Login() since the Login Form might appear elsewhere All but the redirect works. My approach thus far has been: Home/Index includes Login Form: <%Html.RenderAction("Login","User");%> User/Login ViewUserControl<UserLoginViewModel> includes: <%=Html.ValidationSummary("") % using(Html.BeginForm()){} includes hidden form field "userlogin"="1" public class UserController : BaseController { ... [AcceptPostWhenFieldExists(FieldName = "userlogin")] public ActionResult Login(UserLoginViewModel model, FormCollection form){ if (ModelState.IsValid) { if(checkUserCredentials()) { setUserCredentials() return this.RedirectToAction<Areas.App.Controllers.HomeController>(x = x.Index()); } else { return View(); } } ... } Works great when: ModelState or User Credentials fail -- return View() does yield to Home/Index and displays appropriate validation summary. (I have a Register Form on the same page, using the same structure. Each form's validation summary only shows when that form is submitted.) Fails when: ModelState and User Credentials valid -- RedirectToAction<>() gives following error: "Child actions are not allowed to perform redirect actions." It seems like in the Classic ASP days, this would've been solved with Response.Buffer=True. Is there an equivalent setting or workaround now? Btw, running: ASP.Net 4, MVC 2, VS 2010, Dev/Debugging Web Server I hope all of that makes sense. So, what are my options? Or where am I going wrong in my approach? tia!

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  • How to either return JSON or RedirectToAction?

    - by DaveDev
    I have an Action Method that I'd either like to return JSON from on one condition or redirect on another condition. I thought that I could do this by returning ActionResult from my method but doing this causes the error "not all code paths return a value" Can anyone tell me what I'm doing wrong? Or how to achieve the desired result? Here's the code below: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { var myErrors = new Dictionary<string, string>(); try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { RedirectToAction("Index", "Group"); //return Json("Valid"); } else { return Json("Invalid"); } } else { foreach (KeyValuePair<string, ModelState> keyValuePair in ViewData.ModelState) { if (keyValuePair.Value.Errors.Count > 0) { List<string> errors = new List<string>(); myErrors.Add(keyValuePair.Key, keyValuePair.Value.Errors[0].ErrorMessage); } } return Json(myErrors); } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } }

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  • What could be causing a "Cannot access a disposed object" error in WCF?

    - by Nima
    I am using the following code: private WSHttpBinding ws; private EndpointAddress Srv_Login_EndPoint; private ChannelFactory<Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin> Srv_LoginChannelFactory; private Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin LoginService; The Login is my constructor: public Login() { InitializeComponent(); ws = new WSHttpBinding(); Srv_Login_EndPoint = new EndpointAddress("http://localhost:2687/Srv_Login.svc"); Srv_LoginChannelFactory = new ChannelFactory<Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin>(ws, Srv_Login_EndPoint); } And I'm using service this way: private void btnEnter_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { LoginService = Srv_LoginChannelFactory.CreateChannel(); Srv_Login.LoginResult res = new Srv_Login.LoginResult(); res = LoginService.IsAuthenticated(txtUserName.Text.Trim(), txtPassword.Text.Trim()); if (res.Status == true) { int Id = int.Parse(res.Result.ToString()); } else { lblMessage.Text = "Not Enter"; } } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { Srv_LoginChannelFactory.Close(); } } When the user enters a valid username and password, everything is fine. When the user enters a wrong username and password, the first try correctly displays a "Not Enter" message, but on the second try, the user sees this message: {System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1[Test_Poosesh.Srv_Login.Srv_ILogin]'. at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.ThrowIfDisposed() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory.EnsureOpened() at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.ChannelFactory`1.CreateChannel() How can I fix my code to prevent this error from occurring?

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  • How to compile a schema that uses a DataSet (xs:schema)?

    - by Yaron Naveh
    I have created the simplest web service in c#: public void AddData(DataSet ds) The generated schema (Wsdl) looks like this: <s:schema xmlns:s="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> ... <s:element ref="s:schema" /> ... </s:schema> Note the schema does not contain any import/include elements. I am trying to load this schema to a c# System.Xml.XmlSchema and add it to System.Xml.XmlSchemaSet: var set = new XmlSchemaSet(); var fs = new FileStream(@"c:\temp\schema.xsd", FileMode.Open); var s = XmlSchema.Read(fs, null); set.Add(s); set.Compile(); The last line throws this exception: The 'http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema:schema' element is not declared. It kind of makes sense: The schema generated by .Net uses the "s:schema" type which is declared in a schema which is not imported. Why does .Net create a non valid schema? How to compile the schema anyway? Whay I did is download the schema in http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema and added it to the XmlSchemaSet also. This did not work since that online schema contains DTD definition. I had to manually remove it and now all works. Does this make sense or am I missing something?

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  • Hibernate limitations on using variables in queries

    - by sammichy
    I had asked the following question I have the following table structure for a table Player Table Player { Long playerID; Long points; Long rank; } Assuming that the playerID and the points have valid values, can I update the rank for all the players based on the number of points in a single query? If two people have the same number of points, they should tie for the rank. And received the answer from Daniel Vassalo (thank you). UPDATE player JOIN (SELECT p.playerID, IF(@lastPoint <> p.points, @curRank := @curRank + 1, @curRank) AS rank, IF(@lastPoint = p.points, @curRank := @curRank + 1, @curRank), @lastPoint := p.points FROM player p JOIN (SELECT @curRank := 0, @lastPoint := 0) r ORDER BY p.points DESC ) ranks ON (ranks.playerID = player.playerID) SET player.rank = ranks.rank; When I try to execute this as a native query in Hibernate, the following exception is thrown. java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: org.hibernate.QueryException: Space is not allowed after parameter prefix ':' Apparently this has been an open issue for the last couple of years, I want to know if the ranking query can be made to work either Without using any variables in the SQL query OR Using any workaround for Hibernate.

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  • Google App Engine: JDO does the job, JPA does not

    - by Phuong Nguyen de ManCity fan
    I have setup a project using both Jdo and Jpa. I used Jpa Annotation to Declare my Entity. Then I setup my testCases based on LocalTestHelper (from Google App Engine Documentation). When I run the test, a call to makePersistent of Jdo:PersistenceManager is perfectly OK; a call to persist of Jpa:EntityManager raised an error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Type ("org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel") is not that of an entity but needs to be for this operation at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:888) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:385) Caused by: org.datanucleus.exceptions.NoPersistenceInformationException: The class "org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel" is required to be persistable yet no Meta-Data/Annotations can be found for this class. Please check that the Meta-Data/annotations is defined in a valid file location. at org.datanucleus.ObjectManagerImpl.assertClassPersistable(ObjectManagerImpl.java:3894) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:884) ... 27 more How can it be the case? Below is the link to the source code of the maven projects that reproduce that problem: http://seamoo.com/jpa-bug-reproduce.tar.gz Execute the maven test goal over the parent pom you will notice that 3/4 tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jdo.JdoGenericDAOImplTest passed, while all tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.JpaGenericDAOImplTest failed.

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  • After Filter redirects to login.jsp, proper servlet doesnt get called

    - by gnomeguru
    My simple project structure is shown in this link. I am using Eclipse and Tomcat 6. There is login.jsp which submits its form to login_servlet. The login_servlet sets a session variable and then redirects to home.jsp. The home.jsp file has links to the 4 JSP files under a directory called /sam. In web.xml I have given the url-pattern as /sam/* for the LogFiler filter. The LogFilter just reads the session variable and does doChain(request,resposne) if valid, else it redirects to /login.jsp. RequestDispatcher rd = request.getRequestDispatcher("/login.jsp"); rd.forward(request,response); Basically I don't want anyone to access files inside /sam directory directly. Now let's say, I try to directly access a file inside /sam directory, the filter kicks in and the redirection to login.jsp works and even the broswers contents are that of login.jsp, but the url in the browser doesn't change. When I enter details and press submit, instead of sending the data to login_servlet, it sends it to sam/login_servlet and then tomcat tells me there is no such servlet here! Obviously there isn't. My doubt is why is it sending it so sam/login_servlet instead of /login_servlet which is usually what it does when I start running the login.jsp on my own. One more thing, is there a way I can apply the servlet to ONLY .jsp files inside /sam diectory? I tried giving the url-pattern like /sam/*.jsp, but Tomcat was refusing to accept that url-pattern.

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  • document.getElementById() returns null when using mozrepl (but not in firebug)

    - by teamonkey
    I'm trying to use the mozrepl Firefox extension to give me a Javascript REPL from within emacs. I think I've got it set up correctly. I can interact with the REPL from emacs and can explore the document pretty much as described in the tutorial pages. The problem comes when I try to do something really simple, like get a context to a canvas element: repl> document.getElementById("mycanvas").getContext("2d") !!! TypeError: document.getElementById("mycanvas") is null Details: message: document.getElementById("mycanvas") is null fileName: chrome://mozrepl/content/repl.js -> file:///C:/Users/teamonkey/AppData/Roaming/Mozilla/Firefox/Profiles/chfdenuz.default/mozrepl.tmp.js lineNumber: 1 stack: @chrome://mozrepl/content/repl.js -> file:///C:/Users/teamonkey/AppData/Roaming/Mozilla/Firefox/Profiles/chfdenuz.default/mozrepl.tmp.js:1 name: TypeError It's not just that particular instance: any call to getElementById will just return null. If I start up firebug I can enter the same thing and it will return a valid context, but I'd really like to get the REPL working in emacs. I don't think this is a bug but I've probably not configured mozrepl correctly. Can anyone help? Mozrepl 1.0, Firefox 3.6

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  • Getting a gestureoverlayview

    - by Codejoy
    I have been using some nice tutorials on drawing graphics on my android. I wanted to also add in the cool gesture demo found here: http://developer.android.com/resources/articles/gestures.html That takes these lines of code: GestureOverlayView gestures = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures); gestures.addOnGesturePerformedListener(this); This is fine and dandy yet I realize in my demo i'm trying to build using code from "Playing with Graphics in Android". The demos make sense, everything makes sense but I found out by using: setContentView(new Panel(this)); as is required by the Playing With Graphics tutorials, then the findViewById seems to no longer be valid and returns null. At first I was about to post a stupider question as to why this is happening, a quick test of playing with the setContentView made me realize the cause of findViewById returning null, I just do not know how to remedy this issue. Whats the key I am missing here? I realize that the new Panel is doinking some reference up but I am not sure how to make the connection here. THe: R.id.gestures is defined right int he main.xml as: (just like the tutorial) Thanks, Shane p.s. im new here be gentle.

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  • Webservice error

    - by Parth
    i am new to webservices, I have created a basic stockmarket webservice, I have successfully created the server script for it and placed it in my server, Now I also creted a clent script and accessed it hruogh the same server.. Is it valid ? can boh files be accesed from the same server? or do I have to place them in different servers? If yes Then Y? If No then why do i get the blank page? I am using nusoap library for webservice. When I use my cleint script from my local machine I get these errors "Deprecated: Assigning the return value of new by reference is deprecated in D:\wamp\www\pranav_test\nusoap\lib\nusoap.php on line 6506 Fatal error: Class 'soapclient' not found in D:\wamp\www\pranav_test\stockclient.php on line 3" stockserver.php at server <?php function getStockQuote($symbol) { mysql_connect('localhost','root','******'); mysql_select_db('pranav_demo'); $query = "SELECT stock_price FROM stockprices " . "WHERE stock_symbol = '$symbol'"; $result = mysql_query($query); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); return $row['stock_price']; } require('nusoap/lib/nusoap.php'); $server = new soap_server(); $server->configureWSDL('stockserver', 'urn:stockquote'); $server->register("getStockQuote", array('symbol' => 'xsd:string'), array('return' => 'xsd:decimal'), 'urn:stockquote', 'urn:stockquote#getStockQuote'); $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA = isset($HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA) ? $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA : ''; $server->service($HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA); ?> stockclient.php <?php require_once('nusoap/lib/nusoap.php'); $c = new soapclient('http://192.168.1.20/pranav_test/stockserver.php'); $stockprice = $c->call('getStockQuote', array('symbol' => 'ABC')); echo "The stock price for 'ABC' is $stockprice."; ?> please help...

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  • OleDb database to DataSet and back in c#?

    - by Troy
    I'm writing a program that lets a user: Connect to an (arbitrary) View all of the tables in that database in separate DataGridViews Edit them in the program, generate random data, and see the results Choose to commit those changes or revert So I discovered the DataSet class, which looks like it's capable of holding everything that a database would, and I decided that the best thing to do here would be to load everything into one dataset, let the user edit it, and then save the dataset back to the database. The problem is that the only way I can find to load the database tables is this: set = new DataSet(); DataTable schema = connection.GetOleDbSchemaTable( OleDbSchemaGuid.Tables, new string[] { null, null, null, "TABLE" }); foreach (DataRow row in schema.Rows) { string tableName = row.Field<string>("TABLE_NAME"); DataTable dTable = new DataTable(); new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM " + tableName, connection).Fill(dTable); dTable.TableName = tableName; set.Tables.Add(dTable); } while it seems like there should be a simpler way given that datasets appear to be designed for exactly this purpose. The real problem though is when I try saving these things. In order to use the OleDbDataAdapter.Update() method, I'm told that I have to provide valid INSERT queries. Doesn't that kind of negate the whole point of having a class to handle this stuff for me? Anyway, I'm hoping somebody can either explain how to load and save a database into a dataset or maybe give me a better idea of how to do what I'm trying to do. I could always parse the commands together myself, but that doesn't seem like the best solution.

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  • DotNetOpenAuth OpenID on ISA 2006 Reverse Proxy problem

    - by userb00
    I am trying to host my site that uses DotNetOpenAuth (OpenID) behind ISA 2006 (reverse proxy), and after it authenticated with a provider (such as Google), and it returns with a URL with %253A in the URL. However, ISA HTTP filter rejects the request. What I need to do is, on ISA web publishing rule, right click config HTTP policy properties uncheck "Verify Normalization" and it worked. Is this a problem on ISA 2006 generally? Are other firewalls having similar problems? Or, is it an OpenID or DotNetOpenAuth issue? Is it safe to disable Normalization checking on ISA? According to MSDN, quote "Web servers receive requests that are URL encoded. This means that certain characters may be replaced with a percent sign (%) followed by a particular number. For example, %20 corresponds to a space, so a request for http://myserver/My%20Dir/My%20File.htm is the same as a request for http://myserver/My Dir/My File.htm. Normalization is the process of decoding URL-encoded requests. Because the % can be URL encoded, an attacker can submit a carefully crafted request to a server that is basically double-encoded. If this occurs, Internet Information Services (IIS) may accept a request that it would otherwise reject as not valid. When you select Verify Normalization, the HTTP filter normalizes the URL two times. If the URL after the first normalization is different from the URL after the second normalization, the filter rejects the request. This prevents attacks that rely on double-encoded requests. Note that while we recommend that you use the Verify Normalization function, it may also block legitimate requests that contain a %."

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS NSUrlConnection

    - by Lars
    Hi all, i got an EXC_BAD_ACCESS when i perform the last line of the function (webData). -(void)requestSoap{ NSString *requestUrl = @"http://www.website.com/webservice.php"; NSString *soapMessage = @"the soap message"; //website and soapmessage are valid in original code. NSError **error; NSURLResponse *response; //Convert parameter string to url NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:requestUrl]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:10]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; //Create an XML message for webservice [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSData *webData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:theRequest returningResponse:&response error:error]; } I tried not to release a thing, because what i read on the net is it's almost always a memory thing. When i debug the code (NSZombieEnabled = YES) this is what i get: [Session started at 2010-05-31 15:56:13 +0200.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1461.2) (Fri Mar 5 04:43:10 UTC 2010) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 19856. test(19856) malloc: recording malloc stacks to disk using standard recorder test(19856) malloc: enabling scribbling to detect mods to free blocks test(19856) malloc: process 19832 no longer exists, stack logs deleted from /tmp/stack-logs.19832.test.w9Ek4L.index test(19856) malloc: stack logs being written into /tmp/stack-logs.19856.test.URRpQF.index Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. Does anybody have a clue?? Thanks a lot! Lars

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  • Postback event not firing on FIRST button click..

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have a form which accepts two arguments. The first one is mode - this is either view, new or edit. If it is new then the second argument is type - this is either range, collection or design. When set to new, and the type is valid, a new instance of that type is created and the data from the form is added to it. The item (range, collection or design) then validates the data. If any of the data is invalid then it throws an error, and this error is displayed at the top of the form telling the user why it is invalid. A variable, _Databind, is set to false so that it does not change the data input by the user (in the form fields). The button used to submit the button is called btnSave, and is created in the html source. The click event is wired up in the form Protected Sub Blah(sender, e) Handles btnSave.Click. Strangely, whenever I edit an item that already exists the form submits fine the first time - the click event is fired. However when in "new" mode I have to click the button twice to fire the event. It also blanks all the form fields out on first click. I have even put a Response.Write("Hello World") line at the start of the click event - this is not being output on first click when adding a new item either. It is on first load when the mode is set to edit however. Does anyone have any ideas as to what is causing it to behave this way? Thanks in advance for any help. Regards, Richard

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  • RIA Services: Inserting multiple presentation-model objects

    - by nlawalker
    I'm sharing data via RIA services using a presentation model on top of LINQ to SQL classes. On the Silverlight client, I created a couple of new entities (album and artist), associated them with each other (by either adding the album to the artist's album collection, or setting the Artist property on the album - either one works), added them to the context, and submitted changes. On the server, I get two separate Insert calls - one for the album and one for the artist. These entitites are new so their ID values are both set to the default int value (0 - keep in mind that depending on my DB, this could be a valid ID in the DB) because as far as I know you don't set IDs for new entities on the client. This all would work fine if I was transferring the LINQ to SQL classes via my RIA services, because even though the Album insert includes the Artist and the Artist insert includes the Album, both are Entities and the L2S context recognizes them. However, with my custom presentation model objects, I need to convert them back to the LINQ to SQL classes maintaining the associations in the process so they can be added to the L2S context. Put simply, as far as I can tell, this is impossible. Each entity gets its own Insert call, but there's no way you can just insert the one entity because without IDs the associations are lost. If the database used GUID identifiers it would be a different story because I could set those on the client. Is this possible, or should I be pursuing another design?

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  • MSTest Test Context Exception Handling

    - by Flip
    Is there a way that I can get to the exception that was handled by the MSTest framework using the TestContext or some other method on a base test class? If an unhandled exception occurs in one of my tests, I'd like to spin through all the items in the exception.Data dictionary and display them to the test result to help me figure out why the test failed (we usually add data to the exception to help us debug in the production env, so I'd like to do the same for testing). Note: I am not testing that an exception was SUPPOSED TO HAPPEN (I have other tests for that), I am testing a valid case, I just need to see the exception data. Here is a code example of what I'm talking about. [TestMethod] public void IsFinanceDeadlineDateValid() { var target = new BusinessObject(); SetupBusinessObject(target); //How can I capture this in the text context so I can display all the data //in the exception in the test result... var expected = 100; try { Assert.AreEqual(expected, target.PerformSomeCalculationThatMayDivideByZero()); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.Data.Add("SomethingImportant", "I want to see this in the test result, as its important"); ex.Data.Add("Expected", expected); throw ex; } } I understand there are issues around why I probably shouldn't have such an encapsulating method, but we also have sub tests to test all the functionality of PerformSomeCalculation... However, if the test fails, 99% of the time, I rerun it passes, so I can't debug anything without this information. I would also like to do this on a GLOBAL level, so that if any test fails, I get the information in the test results, as opposed to doing it for each individual test. Here is the code that would put the exception info in the test results. public void AddDataFromExceptionToResults(Exception ex) { StringBuilder whereAmI = new StringBuilder(); var holdException = ex; while (holdException != null) { Console.WriteLine(whereAmI.ToString() + "--" + holdException.Message); foreach (var item in holdException.Data.Keys) { Console.WriteLine(whereAmI.ToString() + "--Data--" + item + ":" + holdException.Data[item]); } holdException = holdException.InnerException; } }

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  • Error: Only LDAP Connection Strings are Supported against Active Directory

    - by Brent Pabst
    I have the following ASP.NET Membership section defined in the Web.config file: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add connectionStringName="ADService" connectionUsername="umanage" connectionPassword="letmein" enablePasswordReset="true" enableSearchMethods="true" applicationName="uManage" clientSearchTimeout="30" serverSearchTimeout="30" name="AspNetActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider" type="System.Web.Security.ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </providers> </membership> The Connection string looks like this: <add name="ADService" connectionString="ldap://familynet.local" /> Whenever I call the following code: Membership.GetAllUsers(); I get the following error: Configuration Error Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Only LDAP connection strings are supported against Active Directory and ADAM. I don't understand why the system is claiming the LDAP connection string is bad because it is in fact a valid LDAP string as specified by the MSDN documentation. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.security.activedirectorymembershipprovider.aspx Any ideas?

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  • Combine NotifyIcon and ToolTip

    - by Greycrow
    I have been working with NotifyIcon in order to show an icon in the taskbar. This program has no Windows Form. I perhaps could create one and make it invisible but I was hoping to avoid it. The ToolTip functions attached to NotifyIcon are somewhat lacking, and one of the gurus here suggested I look at the ToolTip functionality. It is possible to attach ToolTip to a form. Is is possible to attach it to just the NotifyIcon? I'm trying do this: NotifyIcon CTicon = new NotifyIcon(); ToolTip toolTip = new ToolTip(); toolTip.SetToolTip(CTicon, "Test"); And I get the error "cannot convert from 'System.Windows.Forms.NotifyIcon' to 'System.Windows.Forms.Control'. Is there a way to convert? I also tried: toolTip.SetToolTip(CTicon.Container, "Test"); but a container is apparently not a valid control either. I apologize for my total lack of understanding of how this may or may not work. Thanks in advance.

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