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  • onfocus="this.blur();" problem

    - by carpenter
    // I am trying to apply an "onfocus="this.blur();"" so as to remove the dotted border lines around pics that are being clicked-on // the effect should be applied to all thumb-nail links/a-tags within a div.. // sudo code (where I am): $(".box a").focus( // so as to effect only a tags within divs of class=box | mousedown vs. onfocus vs. *** ?? | javascript/jquery... ??? function () { var num = $(this).attr('id').replace('link_no', ''); alert("Link no. " + num + " was clicked on, but I would like an onfocus=\"this.blur();\" effect to work here instead of the alert..."); // sudo bits of code that I'm after: // $('#link_no' + num).blur(); // $(this).blur(); // $(this).onfocus = function () { this.blur(); }; } ); // the below works for me in firefox and ie also, but I would like it to effect only a tags within my div with class="box" function blurAnchors2() { if (document.getElementsByTagName) { var a = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { a[i].onfocus = function () { this.blur(); }; } } }

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  • XSLT string replace

    - by aximili
    I don't really know XSL but I need to fix this code, I have reduced it to make it simpler. I am getting this error Invalid XSLT/XPath function on this line <xsl:variable name="text" select="replace($text,'a','b')"/> This is the XSL <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:inm="http://www.inmagic.com/webpublisher/query" version='1.0'> <xsl:output method="text" encoding="UTF-8"/> <xsl:preserve-space elements="*"/> <xsl:template match="text()"></xsl:template> <xsl:template match="mos"> <xsl:apply-templates/> <xsl:for-each select="mosObj"> 'Notes or subject' <xsl:call-template name="rem-html"><xsl:with-param name="text" select="SBS_ABSTRACT"/></xsl:call-template> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="rem-html"> <xsl:param name="text"/> <xsl:variable name="text" select="replace($text,'a','b')"/> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> Can anyone tell me what's wrong with it? Thanks in advance.

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  • What should every developer know about databases?

    - by Aaronaught
    Whether we like it or not, many if not most of us developers either regularly work with databases or may have to work with one someday. And considering the amount of misuse and abuse in the wild, and the volume of database-related questions that come up every day, it's fair to say that there are certain concepts that developers should know - even if they don't design or work with databases today. So: What are the important concepts that developers and other software professionals ought to know about databases? Guidelines for Responses: Keep your list short. One concept per answer is best. Be specific. "Data modelling" may be an important skill, but what does that mean precisely? Explain your rationale. Why is your concept important? Don't just say "use indexes." Don't fall into "best practices." Convince your audience to go learn more. Upvote answers you agree with. Read other people's answers first. One high-ranked answer is a more effective statement than two low-ranked ones. If you have more to add, either add a comment or reference the original. Don't downvote something just because it doesn't apply to you personally. We all work in different domains. The objective here is to provide direction for database novices to gain a well-founded, well-rounded understanding of database design and database-driven development, not to compete for the title of most-important.

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  • How to add and relate a node within the parent nodes add form in Drupal.

    - by Espen Christensen
    Hi, I want to accomplish the following scenario in Drupal: You have 2 content-types. Lets say, an application-form for a lisence, and a content-type for persons. Then when you go to add a lisence in the "node/add" submission form in Drupal, i would like to add a relative number of persons that would be related to this lisence, and only this lisence. Say you would like to apply for a lisence, and relate 4 persons to this lisence, then insted of creating the lisence and then create the 4 persons and relate them to the lisence, i would like to do this "inline". So when i add a lisence, there would be a way to add 1 or more persons that would relate to the lisence node. Is this possible, and if so how? I have been looking at the node reference module, and that manages to reference a node to another, but not to add them inline with the other. With the web-development framework Django, there is a way to this with something called "inline-editing", where you get the content-type fields inside another content-type creation form. There you bind them togheter with a ForeignKey. Anybody know of something simular in Drupal, if not, is it another way to achive something simular, that would be as user-friendly?

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  • What's the purpose of "import package"?

    - by codethief
    As I just found out import package does not make the package's modules available through package.module. The same obviously holds true for from package import subpackage as well as from package import * What's the purpose of importing a package at all then if I can't access its submodules but only the objects defined in __init__.py? It makes sense to me that from package import * would bloat the namespace, which, however, doesn't apply in case of the other two ways! I also understand that loading all submodules might take a long time. But I don't know what these unwanted side-effects, "that should only happen when the sub-module is explicitly imported", are which the author of the previous link mentions. To me it looks like doing an import package[.subpackage] (or from package import subpackage) makes absolutely no sense if I don't exactly want to access objects provided in __init__.py. Are those unwanted side effects really that serious that the language actually has to protect the programmer from causing them? Actually, I thought that Python was a little bit more about "If the programmer wants to do it, let him do it." In my case, I really do want to import all submodules with the single statement from package import subpackage, because I need all of them! Telling Python in the init.py file which submodules I'm exactly talking about (all of them!) is quite cumbersome from my point of view. Please enlighten me. :)

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  • Can I perform some processing on the POST data before ASP.NET MVC UpdateModel happens?

    - by Domenic
    I would like to strip out non-numeric elements from the POST data before using UpdateModel to update the copy in the database. Is there a way to do this? // TODO: it appears I don't even use the parameter given at all, and all the magic // happens via UpdateModel and the "controller's current value provider"? [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index([Bind(Include="X1, X2")] Team model) // TODO: stupid magic strings { if (this.ModelState.IsValid) { TeamContainer context = new TeamContainer(); Team thisTeam = context.Teams.Single(t => t.TeamId == this.CurrentTeamId); // TODO HERE: apply StripWhitespace() to the data before using UpdateModel. // The data is currently somewhere in the "current value provider"? this.UpdateModel(thisTeam); context.SaveChanges(); this.RedirectToAction(c => c.Index()); } else { this.ModelState.AddModelError("", "Please enter two valid Xs."); } // If we got this far, something failed; redisplay the form. return this.View(model); } Sorry for the terseness, up all night working on this; hopefully my question is clear enough? Also sorry since this is kind of a newbie question that I might be able to get with a few hours of documentation-trawling, but I'm time-pressured... bleh.

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  • DDD: Persisting aggregates

    - by Mosh
    Hello, Let's consider the typical Order and OrderItem example. Assuming that OrderItem is part of the Order Aggregate, it an only be added via Order. So, to add a new OrderItem to an Order, we have to load the entire Aggregate via Repository, add a new item to the Order object and persist the entire Aggregate again. This seems to have a lot of overhead. What if our Order has 10 OrderItems? This way, just to add a new OrderItem, not only do we have to read 10 OrderItems, but we should also re-insert all these 10 OrderItems again. (This is the approach that Jimmy Nillson has taken in his DDD book. Everytime he wants to persists an Aggregate, he clears all the child objects, and then re-inserts them again. This can cause other issues as the ID of the children are changed everytime because of the IDENTITY column in database.) I know some people may suggest to apply Unit of Work pattern at the Aggregate Root so it keeps track of what has been changed and only commit those changes. But this violates Persistence Ignorance (PI) principle because persistence logic is leaking into the Domain Model. Has anyone thought about this before? Mosh

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  • Is there a disassembler + debugger for java (ala OllyDbg / SoftICE for assembler)?

    - by Ran Biron
    Is there a utility similar to OllyDbg / SoftICE for java? I.e. execute class (from jar / with class path) and, without source code, show the disassembly of the intermediate code with ability to step through / step over / search for references / edit specific intermediate code in memory / apply edit to file... If not, is it even possible to write something like this (assuming we're willing to live without hotspot for the debug duration)? Edit: I'm not talking about JAD or JD or Cavaj. These are fine decompilers, but I don't want a decompiler for several reasons, most notable is that their output is incorrect (at best, sometimes just plain wrong). I'm not looking for a magical "compiled bytes to java code" - I want to see the actual bytes that are about to be executed. Also, I'd like the ability to change those bytes (just like in an assembly debugger) and, hopefully, write the changed part back to the class file. Edit2: I know javap exists - but it does only one way (and without any sort of analysis). Example (code taken from the vmspec documentation): From java code, we use "javac" to compile this: void setIt(int value) { i = value; } int getIt() { return i; } to a java .class file. Using javap -c I can get this output: Method void setIt(int) 0 aload_0 1 iload_1 2 putfield #4 5 return Method int getIt() 0 aload_0 1 getfield #4 4 ireturn This is OK for the disassembly part (not really good without analysis - "field #4 is Example.i"), but I can't find the two other "tools": A debugger that goes over the instructions themselves (with stack, memory dumps, etc), allowing me to examine the actual code and environment. A way to reverse the process - edit the disassembled code and recreate the .class file (with the edited code).

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  • Check if UINavigationItem title is truncated

    - by PartiallyFinite
    I want to check whether the title of a UINavigationItem is truncated. I set the title like this: self.navigationItem.title = whatever. I know I can check if the text in a UILabel is truncated like this: CGSize size = [label.text sizeWithFont:[UIFont fontWithName:@"myfont" size:18.0]]; if (size.width > label.bounds.size.width) { // set a shorter title } And I can even find the UINavigationItemView object in which the title is displayed like so: UIView *navItemView; for (UIView *view in self.navigationController.navigationBar.subviews) { if ([view isKindOfClass:NSClassFromString(@"UINavigationItemView")]) { navItemView = view; } } But I cannot apply this method to the navItemView because is always seems to have a width of exactly 58, which is much less than the title in it, so according to that, it would appear that the title is truncated, even when it isn't. So, my question comes down to this: How do I find the width of the title displayed in the UINavigationItem? UPDATE: I have found a solution to my problem, but it isn't exactly ideal, perfect, or reliable, so I am not marking it as an answer yet. If anyone has any better solutions, please share them.

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  • '$.fn' is null or not an object

    - by metal-gear-solid
    Problem 1 Error: Microsoft JScript runtime error: '$.fn' is null or not an object Error area: $.fn.apply=function(item,content,header){ $(".featureBox"+item).css('z-index', "1000"); $("img.featureBox" + item +"top").attr("src",basepath + "box-big-top.jpg"); $("img.featureBox" + item +"imgcut").attr("src",basepath + "box-big-img"+item+".jpg"); featureboxcont[item].attr("src",basepath + "box-big-cont.jpg"); $("img.featureBox" + item +"foot").attr("src",basepath + "box-big-bot2.jpg"); //$("#NoteModalDialog > #x-dlg-bd > #x-dlg-tab > #acc-ct") $("#box"+item+"headtext > .h2div > h2").text(header); $("#box"+item+"bottext").css({"top":"181px","width":"205px","font-size":"12px","color":"#ffffff","left":"10"}); $("#box"+item+"foottext").css({"top":footheight+"px","width":"215px","left":"20"}); $("#box"+item+"hidden").css({"display":"block"}); $("#box"+item+"bottext").text(content); $("#box"+item+"headtext > .h2div > h2").removeClass("sIFR-replaced"); callsIFR(); } Problem 2 Error : Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'null' is null or not an object Error area : $("#innerWrapper").addClass("js-version"); I'm also using protoype.js on page.

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  • XSLT: use parameters in xls:sort attributes

    - by fireeyedboy
    How do I apply a parameter to a select and order attribute in a xsl:sort element? I'ld like to do this dynamic with PHP with something like this: $xsl = new XSLTProcessor(); $xslDoc = new DOMDocument(); $xslDoc->load( $this->_xslFilePath ); $xsl->importStyleSheet( $xslDoc ); $xsl->setParameter( '', 'sortBy', 'viewCount' ); $xsl->setParameter( '', 'order', 'descending' ); But I'ld first have to now how to get this to work. I tried the following, but it gives me a 'compilation error' : 'invalid value $order for order'. $sortBy doesn't seem to do anything either: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="xml" indent="yes"/> <xsl:param name="sortBy" select="viewCount"/> <xsl:param name="order" select="descending"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <media> <xsl:for-each select="media/medium"> <xsl:sort select="$sortBy" order="$order"/> // <someoutput> </xsl:for-each> </media> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

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  • How to route tree-structured URLs with ASP.NET Routing?

    - by Venemo
    Hello Everyone, I would like to achieve something very similar to this question, with some enhancements. There is an ASP.NET MVC web application. I have a tree of entities. For example, a Page class which has a property called Children, which is of type IList<Page>. (An instance of the Page class corresponds to a row in a database.) I would like to assign a unique URL to every Page in the database. I handle Page objects with a Controller called PageController. Example URLs: http://mysite.com/Page1/ http://mysite.com/Page1/SubPage/ http://mysite.com/Page/ChildPage/GrandChildPage/ You get the picture. So, I'd like every single Page object to have its own URL that is equal to its parent's URL plus its own name. In addition to that, I also would like the ability to map a single Page to the / (root) URL. I would like to apply these rules: If a URL can be handled with any other route, or a file exists in the filesystem in the specified URL, let the default URL mapping happen If a URL can be handled by the virtual path provider, let that handle it If there is no other, map the other URLs to the PageController class I also found this question, and also this one and this one, but they weren't of much help, since they don't provide an explanation about my first two points. I see the following possible soutions: Map a route for each page invidually. This requires me to go over the entire tree when the application starts, and adding an exact match route to the end of the route table. I could add a route with {*path} and write a custom IRouteHandler that handles it, but I can't see how could I deal with the first two rules then, since this handler would get to handle everything. So far, the first solution seems to be the right one, because it is also the simplest. I would really appreciate your thoughts on this. Thank you in advance!

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  • Usage of static analysis tools - with Clear Case/Quest

    - by boyd4715
    We are in the process of defining our software development process and wanted to get some feed back from the group about this topic. Our team is spread out - US, Canada and India - and I would like to put into place some simple standard rules that all teams will apply to their code. We make use of Clear Case/Quest and RAD I have been looking at PMD, CPP, checkstyle and FindBugs as a start. My thought is to just put these into ANT and have the developers run these manually. I realize doing this you have to have some trust in that each developer will do this. The other thought is to add in some builders in to the IDE which would run a subset of the rules (keep the build process light) and then add another set (heavy) when they check in the code. Some other ideals is to make use of something like Cruse Control and have it set up to run these static analysis tools along with the unit test when ever Clear Case/Quest is idle. Wondering if others have done this and if it was successfully or can provide lessons learned.

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  • .NET RichTextBox: unable to change Rtf property.

    - by Dave
    Hey guys, Perhaps I'm missing something real simple here, but I've been struggling to change the RTF property of my RichTextBox in order to apply some color coding to my text. Probably the most straight-forward example of the problem I'm having is setting the Rtf property to include a color table in its header. The default RTF string returned by the Rtf property: {\rtf1\ansi\ansicpg1252\deff0\deflang1033{\fonttbl{\f0\fnil\fcharset0 Microsoft Sans Serif;}}\viewkind4\uc1\pard\f0\fs17\par} And the new RTF string I'd like to set with my color table: {\rtf1\ansi\ansicpg1252\deff0\deflang1033{\fonttbl{\f0\fnil\fcharset0 Microsoft Sans Serif;}{\colortbl;\red128\green0\blue0;\red0\green128\blue0;\red0\green0\blue255;}}\viewkind4\uc1\pard\f0\fs17\par} And I set this using: RichTextBox richTextBox = new RichTextBox(); richTextBox.Rtf = rtfStr; // My new RTF string, as seen above. However, via debugger, it can be observed the that Rtf property stubbornly refuses to change; no exceptions are thrown, it just refuses to change. Same issue happens when I string.Replace() words to include RTF color tags around them. I've also tried turning off any ReadOnly properties on the text box. Any suggestions would be most helpful, thanks! Dave

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  • How can I sync files in two different git repositories (not clones) and maintain history?

    - by brian d foy
    I maintain two different git repos that need to share some files, and I'd like the commits in one repo to show up in the other. What's a good way to do that for ongoing maintenance? I've been one of the maintainers of the perlfaq (Github), and recently I fell into the role of maintaining the Perl core documentation, which is also in git. Long before I started maintaining the perlfaq, it lived in a separate source control repository. I recently converted that to git. Periodically, one of the perl5-porters would sync the shared files in the perlfaq repo and the perl repo. Since we've switched to git, we'e been a bit lazy converting the tools, and I'm now the one who does that. For the time being, the two repos are going to stay separate. Currently, to sync the FAQ for a new (monthly) release of perl, I'm almost ashamed to say that I merely copy the perlfaq*.pod files in the perlfaq repo and overlay them in the perl repo. That loses history, etc. Additionally, sometimes someone makes a change to those files in the perl repo and I end up overwriting it (yes, check git diff you idiot!). The files do not have the same paths in the repo, but that's something that I could change, I think. What I'd like to do, in the magical universe of rainbows and ponies, is pull the objects from the perlfaq repo and apply them in the perl repo, and vice-versa, so the history and commit ids correspond in each. Creating patches works, but it's also a lot work to manage it Git submodules seem to only work to pull in the entire external repo I haven't found something like svn's file externals, but that would work in both directions anyway I'd love to just fetch objects from one and cherry-pick them in the other What's a good way to manage this?

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  • Syntax Error with John Resig's Micro Templating.

    - by optician
    I'm having a bit of trouble with John Resig's Micro templating. Can anyone help me with why it isn't working? This is the template <script type="text/html" id="row_tmpl"> test content {%=id%} {%=name%} </script> And the modified section of the engine str .replace(/[\r\t\n]/g, " ") .split("{%").join("\t") .replace(/((^|%>)[^\t]*)'/g, "$1\r") .replace(/\t=(.*?)%>/g, "',$1,'") .split("\t").join("');") .split("%}").join("p.push('") .split("\r").join("\\'") + "');}return p.join('');"); and the javascript var dataObject = { "id": "27", "name": "some more content" }; var html = tmpl("row_tmpl", dataObject); and the result, as you can see =id and =name seem to be in the wrong place? Apart from changing the template syntax blocks from <% % to {% %} I haven't changed anything. This is from Firefox. Error: syntax error Line: 30, Column: 89 Source Code: var p=[],print=function(){p.push.apply(p,arguments);};with(obj){p.push(' test content ');=idp.push(' ');=namep.push(' ');}return p.join('');

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  • Wordpress.. Is it a CMS?

    - by madcolor
    I recently was contacted by a client who simply wanted to increase their organic rankings in Google. My approach was to do the following: A) Take them off of their overpriced host and move them to a nicer, cheaper, more feature-rich hosting solution which included a simple Wordpress install. B) Apply a theme to WordPress which followed the look and feel of their existing website. C) Train my client on how to login to their copy of Wordpress and create/manage pages/posts. This took me very little time.. Most of the work in converting asp forms into php and tweaking a theme to fit their design. Now my client is able to create/manage as many pages or posts as they desire. I believe, for this purpose, Worpress was the easiest solution. Would you categorize Wordpress as a CMS? Similar: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/250880/is-there-any-cms-better-than-wordpress-or-should-i-roll-my-own http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1101818/wordpress-as-a-cms-option http://stackoverflow.com/questions/490899/which-cms-to-choose http://stackoverflow.com/questions/629203/is-it-advisable-to-use-wordpress-as-cms-closed http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1451326/is-wordpress-good-for-building-a-large-cms-site-with-many-pages-about-over-100-00 External: http://codex.wordpress.org/User%3ALastnode/Wordpress%5FCMS http://wordpress.org/development/2009/11/wordpress-wins-cms-award/

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  • vb.net, How can I limit a textchanged event for a textbox to keyboard input only?

    - by Luay
    Hi everyone, Please allow me to explain what I have and what I am trying to achieve. I have a textbox (called txtb1) and a button under it (called btn_browse) on a winform in a vb.net project. When the user clicks the button a folder browser dialog appears. The user selects his desired folder and when he/she clicks 'ok' the dialog closes and the path of the folder selected appears in the textbox. I also want to store that value in a variable to be used somewhere else(the value will be copied to an xml file when the user clicks 'apply' on the form, but this has no effect nor is related to my problem). To achieve that I have the following code: Public myVar As String Private Sub btn_browse_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btn_browse.Click Dim f As New FolderBrowserDialog If f.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then txtb1.Text = f.SelectedPath End If myVar = txtb1.text f.Dispose() End Sub This part works with no problems. Now, what if the user either: 1- decides to enter the path manually rather than use the browse button. or, 2- after using the browse button and selecting the folder they decide to manually change the location In trying to solve this I added a textchanged event to the textbox as follows: Private Sub txtb1_TextChanged(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles txtb1.TextChanged myVar = txtb1.Text End Sub However, this is not working. Apparently, and I don't know if this is relevant, when the user selects the desired folder using the browse button the textchanged event is also triggered. and when I click on the textbox (to give it focus) and press any keyboard key the application simply stops responding. So my questions are: am I going about this the right way? if my logic is flawed, could someone point me to how usually such a thing could be achieved? is it possible to limit the triggering events to only keyboard input as a way around this? I tried the keydown and keypress events but I am getting the freeze. I would be grateful for your help. Thanks

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  • Rails: constraint violation on create but not on update

    - by justinbach
    Note: This is a "railsier" (and more succinct) version of this question, which was getting a little long. I'm getting Rails behavior on a production server that I can't replicate on the development server. The codebases are identical save for credentials and caching settings, and both are powered by Oracle 10g databases with identical schema (but different data). My Rails application contains a user model, which has_one registration; registration in turn has_and_belongs_to_many company_ownerships through a registration_ownerships table. Upon registering, users fill out data pertinent to all three models, including a series of checkboxes indicating what registration_ownerships might apply to their account. On the dev server, the registration process is seamless, no matter what data is entered. On production, however, if users check off any of the company ownership fields before submitting their registration, Oracle complains about a constraint violation on the primary key of the company_ownerships table (which is a two-field key based on company_ownership_id and registration_id) and users get the standard Rails 500 error screen. In every case, I've verified that no conflicting record on these two fields exists in the production database, so I don't know why the constraint is getting violated. To further confuse things, if a user registers without listing any ownerships and later goes back and modifies their account to reflect ownership data (which is done through the same interface), the application happily complies with their request and Oracle is well-behaved (this is both on production and dev). I've spent the past couple days trying to figure out what might be causing this problem and am reaching the end of my wits. Any advice would be greatly appreciated!

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  • ADO/SQL Server: What is the error code for "timeout expired"?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i'm trying to trap a "timeout expired" error from ADO. When a timeout happens, ADO returns: Number: 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h) SQLState: HYT00 NativeError: 0 The NativeError of zero makes sense, since the timeout is not a function of the database engine (i.e. SQL Server), but of ADO's internal timeout mechanism. The Number (i.e. the COM hresult) looks useful, but the definition of DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED in oledberr.h says: Execution stopped because a resource limit was reached. No results were returned. This error could apply to things besides "timeout expired" (some potentially server-side), such as a governor that limits: CPU usage I/O reads/writes network bandwidth and stops a query. The final useful piece is SQLState, which is a database-independent error code system. Unfortunately the only reference for SQLState error codes i can find have no mention of HYT00. What to do? What do do? Note: i can't trust 0x80040E31 (DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED) to mean "timeout expired", anymore than i could trust 0x80004005 (E_UNSPECIFIED_ERROR) to mean "Transaction was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim". My pseudo-question becomes: does anyone have documentation on what the SQLState "HYT000" means? And my real question still remains: How can i specifically trap an ADO timeout expired exception thrown by ADO? Gotta love the questions where the developer is trying to "do the right thing", but nobody knows how to do the right thing. Also gotta love how googling for DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED and this question is #9, with MSDN nowhere to be found. Update 3 From the OLEdb ICommand.Execute reference: DB_E_ABORTLIMITREACHED Execution has been aborted because a resource limit has been reached. For example, a query timed out. No results have been returned. "For example", meaning not an exhaustive list.

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  • How do I correctly modify a custom cocoa framework?

    - by Septih
    Hello, I'm working with the very-useful ID3 framework in my cocoa project. There's one tiny thing I'd like to modify in it, but I can't seem to get the changes I've made to apply to the built framework. The source code provided with the framework comes with an Xcode project, so I've opened that up and for testings sake put an NSLog(@"hello"); in. It's definetly in a place where it will be called and there are other NSLog() calls in the framework that show up so it's not just console output being supressed. To build the framework once modified I've first cleaned the build folder, made sure that it's actually removed the files, and then built it. Then in the Xcode project I'm using the framework in, I've deleted the old reference and added a new one to the framework that's freshly built. Running my project with the newly build framework doesn't call the modified framework code. I've tried with both the Development and Deployment builds that are part of the framework Xcode project. My gut instinct is that the executable that the framework code is compiled into is being cached somehow. But as I'm fairly unfamiliar with the workings of frameworks, I'm not really sure where to look.

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  • Syncing two separate structures to the same master data

    - by Mike Burton
    I've got multiple structures to maintain in my application. All link to the same records, and one of them could be considered the "master" in that it reflects actual relationships held in files on disk. The other structures are used to "call out" elements of the main design for purchase and work orders. I'm struggling to come up with a pattern that deals appropriately with changes to the master data. As an example, the following trees might refer to the same data: A |_ B |_ C |_ D |_ E |_ B |_ C |_ D A |_ B E C |_ D A |_ B C D E These secondary structures follow internal rules, but their overall structure is usually user-determined. In all cases (including the master), any element can be used in multiple locations and in multiple trees. When I add a child to any element in the tree, I want to either automatically build the secondary structure for each instance of the "master" element or at least advertise the situation to the user and allow them to manually generate the data required for the secondary trees. Is there any pattern which might apply to this situation? I've been treating it as a view problem, but it turns out to be more complicated than that when you look at the initial generation of the data.

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  • WPF: Selecting the Target of an Animation

    - by Phil Sandler
    I am trying to create a simple (I think) animation effect based on a property change in my ViewModel. I would like the target to be a specific textblock in the control template of a custom control, which inherits from Window. From the article examples I've seen, a DataTrigger is the easiest way to accomplish this. It appears that Window.Triggers doesn't support DataTriggers, which led me to try to apply the trigger in the style. The problem I am currently having is that I can't seem to target the TextBlock (or any other child control)--what happens is which the code below is that the animation is applied to the background of the whole window. If I leave off StoryBoard.Target completely, the effect is exactly the same. Is this the right approach with the wrong syntax, or is there an easier way to accomplish this? <Style x:Key="MyWindowStyle" TargetType="{x:Type Window}"> <Setter Property="Template" Value="{StaticResource MyWindowTemplate}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding ChangeOccurred}" Value="True"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard BeginTime="00:00:00" Duration="0:0:2" Storyboard.Target="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=TextBlock}}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Background).(SolidColorBrush.Color)"> <ColorAnimation FillBehavior="Stop" From="Black" To="Red" Duration="0:0:0.5" AutoReverse="True"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style>

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  • Javascript/PHP and timezones

    - by James
    Hi, I'd like to be able to guess the user's timezone offset and whether or not daylight savings is being applied. Currently, the most definitive code that I've found for this is here: http://www.michaelapproved.com/articles/daylight-saving-time-dst-detect/ So this gives me the offset along with the DST indicator. Now, I want to use these in my PHP scripts in order to ouput the local date/time for the user....but what's best for this? I figure I have 2 options: a) Pick a random timezone which has the same offset and DST setting from the output of timezone_abbreviations_list(). Then call date_timezone_set() with this in order to apply the correct treatment to the time. b) Continue treating the date as UTC but just do some timestamp addition to add the appropriate number of hours on. My feeling is that option B is the best way. The reason for this is that with A, I could be using a timezone which although correct in terms of offset/dst, may have some obscur rules in place behind the scene that could give surprising results (I don't know of any but nonetheless I don't think I can rule it out). I'd then re-check the timezone using Javascript at the start of each session in order to capture when either the user's timezone changes (very unlikely) or they pass in to the DST period. Sorry for the brain dump - I'm really just after some sort of reassurance that the approaches above are valid. Thanks, James.

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  • CSS Hover on parent list Item only

    - by Daniel O'Connor
    Hey Everyone, So I have some nested lists (only one level deep) and I'm running into trouble with the CSS :hover feature. I only want the hover to apply to the parent class, but I can't figure that one out. Here's my CSS <style type="text/css" media="screen"> .listblock li img { visibility: hidden; } .listblock li:hover img { visibility: visible; } </style> And here is a sample of one of the lists. <ul> <li>One <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" alt="Buy" class="buy" onClick="pageTracker._trackEvent('Outbound Links', 'Amazon');"/></a></li> <li>Two <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a> <ul> <li>Uno<a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a></li> <li>Dos <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" class="buy" /></a></li> </ul> </li> <li>Three <a href="#"><img src="img/basket.png" height="16" width="16" alt="Buy" class="buy" onClick="pageTracker._trackEvent('Outbound Links', 'Amazon');"/></a></li> </ul> The problem is that the image in the Uno and Dos list items also hovers. :( Help please! Thanks a lot

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