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• How to map a 0..1 to 1 relationship in Entity Framework 3

  - by sako73

  I have two tables, Users, and Address. A the user table has a field that maps to the primary key of the address table. This field can be null. In plain english, Address exist independent of other objects. A user may be associated with one address. In the database, I have this set up as a foreign key relationship. I am attempting to map this relationship in the Entity Framework. I am getting errors on the following code: <Association Name="fk_UserAddress"> <End Role="User" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.User" Multiplicity="1"/> <End Role="Address" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.Address" Multiplicity="0..1" /> <ReferentialConstraint> <Principal Role="Address"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Principal> <Dependent Role="User"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Dependent> </ReferentialConstraint> </Association> It is giving a "The Lower Bound of the multiplicity must be 0" error. I would appreciate it if anyone could explain the error, and the best way to solve it. Thanks for any help.

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• Selecting random top 3 listings per shop for a range of active advertising shops

  - by GraGra33

  I’m trying to display a list of shops each with 3 random items from their shop, if they have 3 or more listings, that are actively advertising. I have 3 tables: one for the shops – “Shops”, one for the listings – “Listings” and one that tracks active advertisers – “AdShops”. Using the below statement, the listings returned are random however I’m not getting exactly 3 listings (rows) returned per shop. SELECT AdShops.ID, Shops.url, Shops.image_url, Shops.user_name AS shop_name, Shops.title, L.listing_id AS listing_id, L.title AS listing_title, L.price as price, L.image_url AS listing_image_url, L.url AS listing_url FROM AdShops INNER JOIN Shops ON AdShops.user_id = Shops.user_id INNER JOIN Listings AS L ON Shops.user_id = L.user_id WHERE (Shops.is_vacation = 0 AND Shops.listing_count > 2 AND L.listing_id IN (SELECT TOP 3 L2.listing_id FROM Listings AS L2 WHERE L2.listing_id IN (SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT L3.listing_id FROM Listings AS L3 WHERE (L3.user_id = L.user_id) ) ORDER BY NEWID() ) ) ORDER BY Shops.shop_name I’m stumped. Anyone have any ideas on how to fix it? The ideal solution would be one record per store with the 3 listings (and associated data) were in columns and not rows – is this possible?

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• Can someone explain the declaration of these java generic methods?

  - by Tony Giaccone

  I'm reading "Generics in the Java Programming Language" by Gilad Bracha and I'm confused about a style of declaration. The following code is found on page 8: interface Collection<E> { public boolean containsAll(Collection<?> c); public boolean addAll(Collection<? extends E> c); } interface Collection<E> { public <T> boolean containsAll(Collection<T> c); public <T extends E> boolean addAll(Collection<T> c); // hey, type variables can have bounds too! } My point of confusion comes from the second declaration. It's not clear to me what the purpose the <T> declaration serves in the following line: public <T> boolean containsAll(Collection<T> c); The method already has a type (boolean) associated with it. Why would you use the <T> and what does it tell the complier? I think my question needs to be a bit more specific. Why would you write: public <T> boolean containsAll(Collection<T> c); vs public boolean containsAll(Collection<T> c); It's not clear to me, what the purpose of <T> is, in the first declaration of containsAll.

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• How to avoid hard coding credentials into Sharepoint webpart?

  - by SeeBees

  I am building a Sharepoint web part that will be used by all users. The web part connects to a web service which needs credentials with higher privileges than common users. I hard coded credentials in the web part's code. query.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain"); query is an instance of the web service class This may not be a good approach. In regard with security, source code of the web apart is available to people who are not allowed to see the credential. This is bad enough, But is there any other drawback of this approach? A web part doesn't have a .config file associated. The .config file is in application-level of the sharepoint site, and I don't want to modify it for a single webpart. I wonder if there is a webpart-specific way to solve this problem? Say provide a WebBrowsable property to an admin so that he/she can set credentials. Is this possible? Thanks

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• Magento products will not show in category

  - by Aaron

  I've recently been tasked with the build and deployment of a large Ecommerce site. In the past we've had to use the clients legacy X-cart installation for redevelopment (too far integrated with their existing work flow). We'd heard good things about Magento, so I've set up a test install to get to grips with it. After a couple of initial issues, there is a live development site which displays categories on the default theme. The problem we've hit now is that products don't display..! After a lot more in-depth research into this, all I've been able to discover is that quite a number of developers endorse using other solutions entirely, with the other 50% saying after the steep learning curve the platform is as wonderful as we'd initially been led to believe. Now, my test category is showing, so I know this is configured properly. I've set up three test products and associated them with this (all done following the Magento user guide), checked double checked and thrice checked the products are enabled and visible individually, yet still the front end says the category has no products in it. I've cleared the cache repeatedly, reset everything possible many times in index management - no products show up. I have to make a call tomorrow morning on whether we're going ahead with Magento. If I can't even get it to show products I'm going to have to go with something with a more established track record and more community support available. Can anybody advise what could possibly be wrong here?

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• How to exclude rows where matching join is in an SQL tree

  - by Greg K

  Sorry for the poor title, I couldn't think how to concisely describe this problem. I have a set of items that should have a 1-to-1 relationship with an attribute. I have a query to return those rows where the data is wrong and this relationship has been broken (1-to-many). I'm gathering these rows to fix them and restore this 1-to-1 relationship. This is a theoretical simplification of my actual problem but I'll post example table schema here as it was requested. item table: +------------+------------+-----------+ | item_id | name | attr_id | +------------+------------+-----------+ | 1 | BMW 320d | 20 | | 1 | BMW 320d | 21 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 23 | | 2 | BMW 335i | 34 | +------------+------------+-----------+ attribute table: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | | 23 | AC | 24 | | 24 | Climate control | 0 | .... | 34 | Leather seats | 0 | +---------+-----------------+------------+ A simple query to return items with more than one attribute. SELECT item_id, COUNT(DISTINCT(attr_id)) AS attributes FROM item GROUP BY item_id HAVING attributes > 1 This gets me a result set like so: +-----------+------------+ | item_id | attributes | +-----------+------------+ | 1 | 2 | | 2 | 2 | | 3 | 2 | -- etc. -- However, there's an exception. The attribute table can hold a tree structure, via parent links in the table. For certain rows, parent_id can hold the ID of another attribute. There's only one level to this tree. Example: +---------+-----------------+------------+ | attr_id | value | parent_id | +---------+-----------------+------------+ | 20 | SE | 21 | | 21 | M Sport | 0 | .... I do not want to retrieve items in my original query where, for a pair of associated attributes, they related like attributes 20 & 21. I do want to retrieve items where: the attributes have no parent for two or more attributes they are not related (e.g. attributes 23 & 34) Example result desired, just the item ID: +------------+ | item_id | +------------+ | 2 | +------------+ How can I join against attributes from items and exclude these rows? Do I use a temporary table or can I achieve this from a single query? Thanks.

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• On XP, how do I get the tooltip to appear above a transclucent form?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have an form with an Opacity less then 1.0. I have a tooltip associated with a label on the form. When I hover the mouse over the label, the tooltip shows up under the form instead of over the form. If I leave the Opacity at its default value of 1.0, the tooltip correctly appears over the form. However, my form is obviously no longer translucent. ;-) I have tried manually adjusting the position of the ToolTip with SetWindowPos() and creating a ToolTip "by hand" using CreateWindowEx(), but the problem remains. This makes me suspect its a Win32 API problem, not a problem with the Windows Forms implementation that runs on top of Win32. Why does the tooltip appear under the form, and, more importantly, how can I get it to appear over the form where it should? Edit: this appears to be an XP-only problem. Vista and Windows 7 work correctly. I'd still like to find a workaround to get the tooltip to appear above the form on XP. Here is a minimal program to demonstrate the problem: using System; using System.Windows.Forms; public class Form1 : Form { private ToolTip toolTip1; private Label label1; [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } public Form1() { toolTip1 = new ToolTip(); label1 = new Label(); label1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(105, 127); label1.Text = "Hover over me"; label1.AutoSize = true; toolTip1.SetToolTip(label1, "This is a moderately long string, " + "designed to be very long so that it will also be quite long."); ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(292, 268); Controls.Add(label1); Opacity = 0.8; } }

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• Boost::Thread linking error on OSX?

  - by gct

  So I'm going nuts trying to figure this one out. Here's my basic setup: I'm compiling a shared library with a bunch of core functionality that uses a lot of boost stuff. We'll call this library libpf_core.so. It's linked with the boost static libraries, specifically the python, system, filesystem, thread, and program_options libraries. This all goes swimmingly. Now, I have a little test program called test_socketio which is compiled into a shared library (it's loaded as a plugin at runtime). It uses some boost stuff like boost::bind and boost::thread, and it's linked again libpf_core.so (which has the boost libraries included remember). When I go to compile test_socketio though, out of all my plugins it gives me a linking error: [ Building test_socketio ] g++ -c -pg -g -O0 -I/usr/local/include -I../include test_socketio.cc -o test_socketio.o g++ -shared test_socketio.o -lpy_core -o test_socketio.so Undefined symbols: "boost::lock_error::lock_error()", referenced from: boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex>::lock() in test_socketio.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status And I'm going crazy trying to figure out why this is. I've tried explicitly linking boost::thread into the plugin to no avail, tried ensuring that I'm using the boost headers associated with the libraries linked into libpf_core.so in case there was a conflict there. Is there something OSX specific regarding boost that I'm missing? In my searching on google I've seen a number of other people get this error but no one seems to have come up with a satisfactory solution.

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• Do I need to write a trigger for such a simple constraint?

  - by Paul Hanbury

  I really had a hard time knowing what words to put into the title of my question, as I am not especially sure if there is a database pattern related to my problem. I will try to simplify matters as much as possible to get directly to the heart of the issue. Suppose I have some tables. The first one is a list of widget types: create table widget_types ( widget_type_id number(7,0) primary key, description varchar2(50) ); The next one contains icons: create table icons ( icon_id number(7,0) primary key, picture blob ); Even though the users get to select their preferred widget, there is a predefined subset of widgets that they can choose from for each widget type. create table icon_associations ( widget_type_id number(7,0) references widget_types, icon_id number(7,0) references icons, primary key (widget_type_id, icon_id) ); create table icon_prefs ( user_id number(7,0) references users, widget_type_id number(7,0), icon_id number(7,0), primary key (user_id, widget_type_id), foreign key (widget_type_id, icon_id) references icon_associations ); Pretty simple so far. Let us now assume that if we are displaying an icon to a user who has not set up his preferences, we choose one of the appropriate images associated with the current widget. I'd like to specify the preferred icon to display in such a case, and here's where I run into my problem: alter table icon_associations add ( is_preferred char(1) check( is_preferred in ('y','n') ) ) ; I do not see how I can enforce that for each widget_type there is one, and only one, row having is_preferred set to 'y'. I know that in MySQL, I am able to write a subquery in my check constraint to quickly resolve this issue. This is not possible with Oracle. Is my mistake that this column has no business being in the icon_associations table? If not where should it go? Is this a case where, in Oracle, the constraint can only be handled with a trigger? I ask only because I'd like to go the constraint route if at all possible. Thanks so much for your help, Paul

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• str_replace() and strpos() for arrays?

  - by Josh

  I'm working with an array of data that I've changed the names of some array keys, but I want the data to stay the same basically... Basically I want to be able to keep the data that's in the array stored in the DB, but I want to update the array key names associated with it. Previously the array would have looked like this: $var_opts['services'] = array('foo-1', 'foo-2', 'foo-3', 'foo-4'); Now the array keys are no longer prefixed with "foo", but rather with "bar" instead. So how can I update the array variable to get rid of the "foos" and replace with "bars" instead? Like so: $var_opts['services'] = array('bar-1', 'bar-2', 'bar-3', 'bar-4'); I'm already using if(isset($var_opts['services']['foo-1'])) { unset($var_opts['services']['foo-1']); } to get rid of the foos... I just need to figure out how to replace each foo with a bar. I thought I would use str_replace on the whole array, but to my dismay it only works on strings (go figure, heh) and not arrays.

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• asp.net custom control with form field validation issue

  - by Ibrar Afzal

  Hi, I have created a custom asp .net control some fields have validation controal associated with them. The problem arised when I declare more than one initializtion on a page. When I hit submit on one of the intialized control. Form validation occur on all other control that were declared. Due to this issue I can submit a for. Here is the code `<%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="FinancialAdvisorHelp.ascx.cs" Inherits="FinancialAdvisorHelp" %                                           Invalid Email." Member Name* E-Mail Address* Telephone Number Ask Darryl your question Note: you should receive a response within two (2) business days. *Required information.   `

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• How to optimize a postgreSQL server for a "write once, read many"-type infrastructure ?

  - by mhu

  Greetings, I am working on a piece of software that logs entries (and related tagging) in a PostgreSQL database for storage and retrieval. We never update any data once it has been inserted; we might remove it when the entry gets too old, but this is done at most once a day. Stored entries can be retrieved by users. The insertion of new entries can happen rather fast and regularly, thus the database will commonly hold several millions elements. The tables used are pretty simple : one table for ids, raw content and insertion date; and one table storing tags and their values associated to an id. User search mostly concern tags values, so SELECTs usually consist of JOIN queries on ids on the two tables. To sum it up : 2 tables Lots of INSERT no UPDATE some DELETE, once a day at most some user-generated SELECT with JOIN huge data set What would an optimal server configuration (software and hardware, I assume for example that RAID10 could help) be for my PostgreSQL server, given these requirements ? By optimal, I mean one that allows SELECT queries taking a reasonably little amount of time. I can provide more information about the current setup (like tables, indexes ...) if needed.

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• T-SQL Query, combine columns from multiple rows into single column

  - by Shayne

  I have seeen some examples of what I am trying to do using COALESCE and FOR XML (seems like the better solution). I just can't quite get the syntax right. Here is what I have (I will shorten the fields to only the key ones): Table Fields ------ ------------------------------- Requisition ID, Number IssuedPO ID, Number Job ID, Number Job_Activity ID, JobID (fkey) RequisitionItems ID, RequisitionID(fkey), IssuedPOID(fkey), Job_ActivityID (fkey) I need a query that will list ONE Requisition per line with its associated Jobs and IssuedPOs. (The requisition number start with "R-" and the Job Number start with "J-"). Example: R-123 | "PO1; PO2; PO3" | "J-12345; J-6780" Sure thing Adam! Here is a query that returns multiple rows. I have to use outer joins, since not all Requisitions have RequisitionItems that are assigned to Jobs and/or IssuedPOs (in that case their fkey IDs would just be null of course). SELECT DISTINCT Requisition.Number, IssuedPO.Number, Job.Number FROM Requisition INNER JOIN RequisitionItem on RequisitionItem.RequisitionID = Requisition.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job_Activity on RequisitionItem.JobActivityID = Job_Activity.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Job on Job_Activity.JobID = Job.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN IssuedPO on RequisitionItem.IssuedPOID = IssuedPO.ID

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• LSUIElement behaves inconsistently with activateIgnoringOtherApps

  - by iconmaster

  Specifically, it behaves inconsistently regarding text field focus. I have an LSUIElement popping up a status menu. Within that menu there is a view containing a text field. The text field needs to be selectable -- not necessarily selected by default, but whichever. When the status item is clicked, it triggers [NSApp activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; And it works, about half the time.* The other half the status menu seems to consider itself "in the background" and won't let me put focus on the text field even by clicking on it. (I know the status item click-trigger is firing b/c there's an NSLog on it.) Is this a bug in the way Apple handles these status items, or am I mishandling activateIgnoringOtherApps? *In fact, it seems to fail only the first time after another app is activated. After that it works fine. The complete snippet: -(void)statusItemClicked:(id)sender { //show the popup menu associated with the status item. [statusItem popUpStatusItemMenu:statusMenu]; //activate *after* showing the popup menu to obtain focus for the text field. [NSApp activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; }

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• How to write a "thread safe" function in C ?

  - by Andrei Ciobanu

  Hello I am writing some data structures in C, and I've realized that their associated functions aren't thread safe. The i am writing code uses only standard C, and I want to achieve some sort of 'synchronization'. I was thinking to do something like this: enum sync_e { TRUE, FALSE }; typedef enum sync_e sync; struct list_s { //Other stuff struct list_node_s *head; struct list_node_s *tail; enum sync_e locked; }; typedef struct list_s list; , to include a "boolean" field in the list structure that indicates the structures state: locked, unlocked. For example an insertion function will be rewritten this way: int list_insert_next(list* l, list_node *e, int x){ while(l->locked == TRUE){ /* Wait */ } l->locked = TRUE; /* Insert element */ /* -------------- */ l->locked = FALSE; return (0); } While operating on the list the 'locked' field will be set to TRUE, not allowing any other alterations. After operation completes the 'locked' field will be again set to 'TRUE'. Is this approach good ? Do you know other approaches (using only standard C).

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• Measuring how "heavily linked" a node is in a graph

  - by Eduardo León

  I have posted this question at MathOverflow.com as well. I am no mathematician and English is not my first language, so please excuse me if my question is too stupid, it is poorly phrased, or both. I am developing a program that creates timetables. My timetable-creating algorithm, besides creating the timetable, also creates a graph whose nodes represent each class I have already programmed, and whose arcs represent which pairs of classes should not be programmed at the same time, even if they have to be reprogrammed. The more "heavily linked" a node is, the more inflexible its associated class is with respect to being reprogrammed. Sometimes, in the middle of the process, there will be no option but to reprogram a class that has already been programmed. I want my program to be able to choose a class that, if reprogrammed, affects the least possible number of other already-programmed classes. That would mean choosing a node in the graph that is "not very heavily linked", subject to some constraints with respect to which nodes can be chosen. EDIT: The question was... Do you know any algorithm that measures how "heavily linked" a node is?

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• Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

  - by jim

  Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

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• Multiple XML/XSLT files in PHP, transform one with XSLT and add others but process it first with PHP

  - by ipalaus

  I am processing XML files transformations with XSLT in PHP correctly. Actually I use this code: $xml = new DOMDocument; $xml->LoadXML($xml_contents); $xsl = new DOMDocument; $xsl->load($xsl_file); $proc = new XSLTProcesoor; $proc->importStyleSheet($xsl); echo $proc->transformToXml($xml); $xml_contents is the XML processed with PHP, this is done by including the XML file first and then assigning $xml_contents = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean();. This forces to process the PHP code on the XML, and it works perfectly. My problem is that I use more than one XML file and this XML files has PHP code on it that need to be processed AND have a XSLT file associated to process the data. Actually I'm including this files in XSLT with the next code: <!-- First I add the XML file --> <xsl:param name="menu" select="document('menu.xml')" /> <!-- Next I add the transformations for menu.xml file --> <xsl:include href="menu.xsl" /> <!-- Finally, I process it on the actual ("parent") XML --> <xsl:apply-templates select="$menu/menu" /> My questiion is how I can handle this. I need to add mutiple XML(+XSLT) files to my first XML file that will containt PHP so it needs to be processed. Thank you in advance!

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• Simple question about the lunarlander example.

  - by Smills

  I am basing my game off the lunarlander example. This is the run loop I am using (very similar to what is used in lunarlander). I am getting considerable performance issues associated with my drawing, even if I draw almost nothing. I noticed the below method. Why is the canvas being created and set to null each cycle? @Override public void run() { while (mRun) { Canvas c = null; try { c = mSurfaceHolder.lockCanvas();//null synchronized (mSurfaceHolder) { updatePhysics(); doDraw(c); } } finally { // do this in a finally so that if an exception is thrown // during the above, we don't leave the Surface in an // inconsistent state if (c != null) { mSurfaceHolder.unlockCanvasAndPost(c); } } } } Most of the times I have read anything about canvases it is more along the lines of: mField = new Bitmap(...dimensions...); Canvas c = new Canvas(mField); My question is: why is Google's example done that way (null canvas), what are the benefits of this, and is there a faster way to do it?

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• How to get around LazyInitializationException in scheduled jobs?

  - by Shreerang

  I am working on a J2EE server application which is deployed on Tomcat. I use Spring source as MVC framework and Hibernate as ORM provider. My object model has lot of Lazy relationships (dependent objects are fetched on request). The high level design is like Service level methods call a few DAO methods to perform database operation. The service method is called either from the Flex UI or as a scheduled job. When it is called from Flex UI, the service method works fine i.e. it fetches some objects using DAO methods and even Lazy loading works. This is possible by the use of OpenSessionInViewFilter configured with the UI servlet. But when the same service method is called as scheduled Job, it gives LazyInitializationException. I can not configure OpenSessionInViewFilter because there is no servlet or UI request associated with that. I tried configuring Transaction around the scheduled job method so that service method starts a transaction and all the DAO methods participate in that same transaction, hoping that the transaction will remain active and hibernate session will be available. But it does not work. Please suggest if anyone has ever been able to get such a configuration working. If needed, I can post the Hibernate configuration and log messages. Thanks a lot for help! Shreerang

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• How to manage lifecycle in a ViewGroup-derived class?

  - by Scott Smith

  I had a bunch of code in an activity that displays a running graph of some external data. As the activity code was getting kind of cluttered, I decided to extract this code and create a GraphView class: public class GraphView extends LinearLayout { public GraphView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); inflater.inflate(R.layout.graph_view, this, true); } public void start() { // Perform initialization (bindings, timers, etc) here } public void stop() { // Unbind, destroy timers, yadda yadda } . . . } Moving stuff into this new LinearLayout-derived class was simple. But there was some lifecycle management code associated with creating and destroying timers and event listeners used by this graph (I didn't want this thing polling in the background if the activity was paused, for example). Coming from a MS Windows background, I kind of expected to find overridable onCreate() and onDestroy() methods or something similar, but I haven't found anything of the sort in LinearLayout (or any of its inherited members). Having to leave all of this initialization code in the Activity, and then having to pass it into the view seemed like it defeated the original purpose of encapsulating all of this code into a reusable view. I ended up adding two additional public methods to my view: start() and stop(). I make these calls from the activity's onResume() and onPause() methods respectively. This seems to work, but it feels like I'm using duct tape here. Does anyone know how this is typically done? I feel like I'm missing something...

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• Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

  - by fearofawhackplanet

  I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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• can I add properties to a typo3 extbase domain model object?

  - by The Newbie Qs

  I want to store a username in a coupon object, each coupon object already has the uid of the user who created it. I can loop over the coupon objects and read the associated usernames from fe_users but how then will I save those usernames into the coupons so when they are passed to the template the usernames can be read like so coupon.username, or in some other easy way so each username will appear on the page with the right coupon as they are all printed out in a table? If I was doing basic php instead of typo3 i would just define a query but what is the typo3 v4.5 way? My code so far - which dies on the line where I try to assign the new property --creatorname -- to the $coup object. public function listAction() { $coupons = $this->couponRepository->findAll(); // @var Tx_Extbase_Domain_Repository_FrontendUserRepository $userRepository */ $userRepository = $this->objectManager->get("Tx_Extbase_Domain_Repository_FrontendUserRepository"); foreach ($coupons as $coup) { echo '<br />test '.$coup->getCreator(); echo '<br />count = '.$userRepository->countAll().'<br />'; $newObject = $userRepository->findByUid( intval($coup->getCreator())); //var_dump($newObject); var_dump($coup); echo '<br />getUsername '.$newObject->getUsername() ; $coup['creatorname'] = $newObject->getUsername(); echo '<br />creatorname '.$coup['creatorname'] ; } $this->view->assign('coupons', $coupons); }

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• Preloading data without messing up association when data is loaded the 2nd time.

  - by denniss

  This is how my model looks like User belongs_to :computer Computer has_many :user Users are created when people register for an account on the web site but computers are pre-loaded data that I create in seeds.rb/some .rake file. All is fine and good when the app is first launched and people start registering and get associated with the right computer_id. However, suppose I want to add another computer to the list Computer.destroy_all Computer.create({:name => "Akane"}) Computer.create({:name => "Yoda"}) Computer.create({:name => "Mojito"}) #newly added running the rakefile the second time around will mess up the associations because computer_id in the User table refer to the old id in Computer table. Since I have run the script above, the id keeps incrementing without any regard to the association that user has to it. Question: Is there a better way for me to pre-load data without screwing up my association? I want to be able to add new Computer without having to destroy the user's table. Destroying the computer table is fine with me and rebuilding it again but the old association that the existing users have must stay intact.

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• How to run a long task in backgroung in iOS applications?

  - by John Canady

  I am developing an application which requires running a task in background. I am trying this by calling a method which will retrieve(download) data from web server through web services. this method will call some more methods which are in different view controller classes. Here when I tap on home button of device, the method is calling but no further execution of the remaining code. This is the code I have written in (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication )application { UIApplication app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; UIBackgroundTaskIdentifier bgTask = 0; bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. NSString *updatekey = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"updatesetting"]; if([updatekey isEqualToString:@"enabled"]) { DataSettingsView *periodicUpdate = [[DataSettingsView alloc] init]; [periodicUpdate updateDataPeriodically]; //[periodicUpdate viewDidLoad]; //[periodicUpdate release]; } [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; }); } some one please help me in this background execution of long tasks with some example of code. Some help will appreciated and helpful to me.

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