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  • How to cancel a jquery.load()?

    - by Dirk Jönsson
    I'd like to cancel a .load() operation, when the load() does not return in 5 seconds. If it's so I show an error message like 'sorry, no picture loaded'. What I have is... ...the timeout handling: jQuery.fn.idle = function(time, postFunction){ var i = $(this); i.queue(function(){ setTimeout(function(){ i.dequeue(); postFunction(); }, time); }); return $(this); }; ... initializing of the error message timeout: var hasImage = false; $('#errorMessage') .idle(5000, function() { if(!hasImage) { // 1. cancel .load() // 2. show error message } }); ... the image loading: $('#myImage') .attr('src', '/url/anypath/image.png') .load(function(){ hasImage = true; // do something... }); The only thing I could not figure out is how to cancel the running load() (if it's possible). Please help. Thanks! Edit: Another way: How do I prevent the .load() method to call it's callback function when it's returning?

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  • Django: Serving a Download in a Generic View

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I want to serve a couple of mp3s from a folder in /home/username/music. I didn't think this would be such a big deal but I am a bit confused on how to do it using generic views and my own url. urls.py url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), The example I am following is found in the generic view section of the Django documentations: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/generic-views/ (It's all the way at the bottom) I am not 100% sure on how to tailor this to my needs. Here is my views.py def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) response = object_detail( request, object_id = song_id, mimetype = "audio/mpeg", ) response['Content-Disposition'= "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response I am actually at a loss of how to convey that I want it to spit out my mp3 instead of what it does now which is to output a .mp3 with all of the current pages html contained. Should my template be my mp3? Do I need to setup apache to serve the files or is Django able to retrieve the mp3 from the filesystem(proper permissions of course) and serve that? If it do need to configure Apache how do I tell Django that? Thanks in advanced. These files are all on the HD so I don't need to "generate" anything on the spot and I'd like to prevent revealing the location of these files if at all possible. A simple /song/1234/download would be fantastic.

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  • [C++][OpenMP] Proper use of "atomic directive" to lock STL container

    - by conradlee
    I have a large number of sets of integers, which I have, in turn, put into a vector of pointers. I need to be able to update these sets of integers in parallel without causing a race condition. More specifically. I am using OpenMP's "parallel for" construct. For dealing with shared resources, OpenMP offers a handy "atomic directive," which allows one to avoid a race condition on a specific piece of memory without using locks. It would be convenient if I could use the "atomic directive" to prevent simultaneous updating to my integer sets, however, I'm not sure whether this is possible. Basically, I want to know whether the following code could lead to a race condition vector< set<int>* > membershipDirectory(numSets, new set<int>); #pragma omp for schedule(guided,expandChunksize) for(int i=0; i<100; i++) { set<int>* sp = membershipDirectory[5]; #pragma omp atomic sp->insert(45); } (Apologies for any syntax errors in the code---I hope you get the point) I have seen a similar example of this for incrementing an integer, but I'm not sure whether it works when working with a pointer to a container as in my case.

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • how to upgrade compact framework applications?

    - by Derick Bailey
    i'm looking for a way to manage application upgrades for my compact framework app. let's say i have v1 of the app installed on my device, and v1.1 has been released. I want the app to make a call to my server to see if there is a new version. since a new version is found, i want to send down the new version of the app to the device and have it installed, replacing the old version. my first thought was just to have the app download the .cab file and kick off the cab file just before exiting the app. this would mostly get the job done but it would prompt the user to pick the installation location if they have a storage card or other partitions on their device. i would like to prevent any user input and just have the new version of the app installed, replacing the old app. i'm certain that there are others doing this already and i don't want to reinvent the wheel, here. what application management tools and systems exist for this type of process? how can I facilitate this type of process?

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  • What characters are NOT escaped with a mysqli prepared statement?

    - by barfoon
    Hey everyone, I'm trying to harden some of my PHP code and use mysqli prepared statements to better validate user input and prevent injection attacks. I switched away from mysqli_real_escape_string as it does not escape % and _. However, when I create my query as a mysqli prepared statement, the same flaw is still present. The query pulls a users salt value based on their username. I'd do something similar for passwords and other lookups. Code: $db = new sitedatalayer(); if ($stmt = $db->_conn->prepare("SELECT `salt` FROM admins WHERE `username` LIKE ? LIMIT 1")) { $stmt->bind_param('s', $username); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($salt); while ($stmt->fetch()) { printf("%s\n", $salt); } $stmt->close(); } else return false; Am I composing the statement correctly? If I am what other characters need to be examined? What other flaws are there? What is best practice for doing these types of selects? Thanks,

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  • How does DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would pass the same end-date to the sql proc (per day). And the user would still get the latest data. Please speak to this as well. Given Example: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees 5/1/2010 to 5/4/2010. But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Example proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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  • Safari Web Inspector is not updating when I update an element with ajax

    - by Ashley
    I have a checkout page http://www.oipolloi.com/oipolloi/shop/viewbasket.php with multiple ajax calls after certain items update (EG look up postage cost when country is changed, then update discount boxes etc). I've asked for help in the past about the best method of making sure ALL calls have returned before allowing the form to be submitted for payment processing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2290372/how-do-i-prevent-form-submission-until-multiple-ajax-calls-have-finished-jquery I was fairly happy that the logic in the finished solution was correct, but I have still been receiving reports that people using Safari are able to submit the form without the ajax calls returning properly. I have tried using the Safari Web Inspector to debug but it seems that when you Inspect Element, then update an element with an ajax call, the Inspector doesn't seem to update. I am updating hidden fields, so it's hard to be able to know whether the problem lies with the DOM not being updated properly, or the Inspector itself. I'm using Safari 4.0.5 on PC and you can reproduce the problem above by looking for a div id="countryFieldsBilling" with Web Inspector. It should contain three hidden fields that are initially empty. You can try to make it update (or not) by choosing a country from the select menu at the bottom of 'Shipping Address' box, and then clicking the 'click to use Shipping Address' link at the top of the 'Billing Address' just below. The behaviour I am seeing is that the country chosen in the shipping select gets copied correctly to the country in the billing select, but the hidden inputs in the Web Inspector do not get updated. When these hidden inputs do not get updated, this causes the problem that Mac Safari users report. If you can let me know either how to get Web Inspector to work properly, or something else I may have missed in the behaviour of Mac Safari that may cause these problems, that would be great. Thanks in advance

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  • Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

    - by Ben Robinson
    We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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  • Modify SQL result set before returning from stored procedure

    - by m0sa
    I have a simple table in my SQL Server 2008 DB: Tasks_Table -id -task_complete -task_active -column_1 -.. -column_N The table stores instructions for uncompleted tasks that have to be executed by a service. I want to be able to scale my system in future. Until now only 1 service on 1 computer read from the table. I have a stored procedure, that selects all uncompleted and inactive tasks. As the service begins to process tasks it updates the task_active flag in all the returned rows. To enable scaleing of the system I want to enable deployment of the service on more machines. Because I want to prevent a task being returned to more than 1 service I have to update the stored procedure that returns uncompleted and inactive tasks. I figured that i have to lock the table (only 1 reader at a time - I know I have to use an apropriate ISOLATION LEVEL), and updates the task_active flag in each row of the result set before returning the result set. So my question is how to modify the SELECT result set iin the stored procedure before returning it?

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • Java website protection solutions (especially XSS)

    - by Mark
    I'm developing a web application, and facing some security problems. In my app users can send messages and see other's (a bulletin board like app). I'm validating all the form fields that users can send to my app. There are some very easy fields, like "nick name", that can be 6-10 alpabetical characters, or message sending time, which is sended to the users as a string, and then (when users ask for messages, that are "younger" or "older" than a date) I parse this with SimpleDateFormat (I'm developing in java, but my question is not related to only java). The big problem is the message field. I can't restrict it to only alphabetical characters (upper or lowercase), because I have to deal with some often use characters like ",',/,{,} etc... (users would not be satisfied if the system didn't allow them to use these stuff) According to this http://ha.ckers.org/xss.html, there are a lot of ways people can "hack" my site. But I'm wondering, is there any way I can do to prevent that? Not all, because there is no 100% protection, but I'd like a solution that can protect my site. I'm using servlets on the server side, and jQuery, on the client side. My app is "full" AJAX, so users open 1 JSP, then all the data is downloaded and rendered by jQuery using JSON. (yeah, I know it's not "users-without-javascript" friendly, but it's 2010, right? :-) ) I know front end validation is not enough. I'd like to use 3 layer validation: - 1. front end, javascript validate the data, then send to the server - 2. server side, the same validation, if there is anything, that shouldn't be there (because of client side javascript), I BAN the user - 3. if there is anything that I wasn't able to catch earlier, the rendering process handle and render appropriately Is there any "out of the box" solution, especially for java? Or other solution that I can use?

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  • URL development and mod_rewrite

    - by iRector
    My site is made-up of the main page, and multiple sub-directories, all under the same domain. My URLS are currently like .................| Ideal clean version: mysite.com mysite.com/?content=content1 ......................| mysite.com/content1/ mysite.com/?content=content2&page=4 ........| mysite.com/content2/4/ mysite.com/?content=content3 ......................| mysite.com/content3/ mysite.com/?content=content4 ......................| mysite.com/content4/ mysite.com/?content=article&id=34 ............| mysite.com/article/34/ Then the sub-directories are essentially the same: mysite.com/subdir, mysite.com/subdir2, mysite.com/subdir3, etc mysite.com/subdir/?content=content1 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content1/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content2&page=4 .....| mysite.com/subdir/content2/4/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content3 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content3/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=content4 ...................| mysite.com/subdir/content4/ mysite.com/subdir/?content=article&id=34 .........| mysite.com/subdir/article/34/ I've used mod_rewrite briefly, but I'm not sure how to approach these multiple variables. Also, how would I differentiate between the actually subfolders, and the content variable. As so to prevent 'subdir' or 'subdir2' from being plugged in as the content variable for the root site. I've played around with plenty of code snippets, but I've wiped my .htaccess slate clean, and approach you all in an attempt to help me repopulate it. Your input would thoroughly be appreciated. Note: The only time the page query string will be needed is when 'content' == 'content2' ?content=content2&page=4 **Same rule is shared by the article/id relationship, all other 'content' values are expected to be dynamic.

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  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

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  • How should I define a JavaScript 'namespace' to satisfy JSLint?

    - by Matthew Murdoch
    I want to be able to package my JavaScript code into a 'namespace' to prevent name clashes with other libraries. Since the declaration of a namespace should be a simple piece of code I don't want to depend on any external libraries to provide me with this functionality. I've found various pieces of advice on how to do this simply but none seem to be free of errors when run through JSLint (using 'The Good Parts' options). As an example, I tried this from Advanced JavaScript (section Namespaces without YUI): "use strict"; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { MyNamespace = {}; } Running this through JSLint gives the following errors: Problem at line 2 character 12: 'MyNamespace' is not defined. Problem at line 3 character 5: 'MyNamespace' is not defined. Implied global: MyNamespace 2,3 The 'Implied global' error can be fixed by explicitly declaring MyNamespace... "use strict"; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { var MyNamespace = {}; } ...and the other two errors can be fixed by declaring the variable outside the if block. "use strict"; var MyNamespace; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { MyNamespace = {}; } So that works, but it seems to me that (since MyNamespace will always be undefined at the point it is checked?) it is equivalent to the much simpler: "use strict"; var MyNamespace = {}; JSLint is content with this but I'm concerned that I've simplified the code to such an extent that it will no longer function correctly as a namespace. Is this final formulation sensible?

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  • Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

    - by DBase486
    Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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  • C# struct with object as data member

    - by source-energy
    As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

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  • How to move point on arc?

    - by bbZ
    I am writing an app that is simulating RobotArm movement. What I want to achieve, and where I have couple of problems is moving a Point on arc (180degree) that is arm range of movement. I am moving an arm by grabbing with mouse end of arm (Elbow, the Point I was talking about), robot can have multiple arms with diffrent arm lenghts. If u can help me with this part, I'd be grateful. This is what I have so far, drawing function: public void draw(Graphics graph) { Graphics2D g2d = (Graphics2D) graph.create(); graph.setColor(color); graph.fillOval(location.x - 4, location.y - 4, point.width, point.height); //Draws elbow if (parentLocation != null) { graph.setColor(Color.black); graph.drawLine(location.x, location.y, parentLocation.x, parentLocation.y); //Connects to parent if (arc == null) { angle = new Double(90 - getAngle(parentInitLocation)); arc = new Arc2D.Double(parentLocation.x - (parentDistance * 2 / 2), parentLocation.y - (parentDistance * 2 / 2), parentDistance * 2, parentDistance * 2, 90 - getAngle(parentInitLocation), 180, Arc2D.OPEN); //Draws an arc if not drawed yet. } else if (angle != null) //if parent is moved, angle is moved also { arc = new Arc2D.Double(parentLocation.x - (parentDistance * 2 / 2), parentLocation.y - (parentDistance * 2 / 2), parentDistance * 2, parentDistance * 2, angle, 180, Arc2D.OPEN); } g2d.draw(arc); } if (spacePanel.getElbows().size() > level + 1) {//updates all childElbows position updateChild(graph); } } I just do not know how to prevent moving Point moving outside of arc line. It can not be inside or outside arc, just on it. Here I wanted to put a screenshot, sadly I don't have enough rep. Am I allowed to put link to this? Maybe you got other ways how to achieve this kind of thing. Here is the image: Red circle is actual state, and green one is what I want to do. EDIT2: As requested, repo link: https://github.com/dspoko/RobotArm

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  • How to synchronize Silverlight clients with WCF?

    - by user564226
    Hi, this is probably only some conceptual problem, but I cannot seem to find the ideal solution. I'd like to create a Silverlight client application that uses WCF to control a third party application via some self written webservice. If there is more than one Silverlight client, all clients should be synchronized, i.e. parameter changes from one client should be propagated to all clients. I set up a very simple Silverlight GUI that manipulates parameters which are passed to the server (class inherits INotifyPropertyChanged): public double Height { get { return frameworkElement.Height; } set { if (frameworkElement.Height != value) { frameworkElement.Height = value; OnPropertyChanged("Height", value); } } } OnPropertyChanged is responsible for transferring data. The WCF service (duplex net.tcp) maintains a list of all clients and as soon as it receives a data packet (XElement with parameter change description) it forwards this very packet to all clients but the one the packet was received from. The client receives the package, but now I'm not sure, what's the best way to set the property internally. If I use "Height" (see above) a new change message would be generated and sent to all other clients a.s.o. Maybe I could use the data field (frameworkElement.Height) itself or a function - but I'm not sure whether there would arise problems with data binding later on. Also I don't want to simply copy parts of the code properties, to prevent bugs with redundant code. So what would you recommend? Thanks!

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  • Is something along the lines of nested memoization needed here?

    - by Daniel
    System.Transactions notoriously escalates transactions involving multiple connections to the same database to the DTC. The module and helper class, ConnectionContext, below are meant to prevent this by ensuring multiple connection requests for the same database return the same connection object. This is, in some sense, memoization, although there are multiple things being memoized and the second is dependent on the first. Is there some way to hide the synchronization and/or mutable state (perhaps using memoization) in this module, or perhaps rewrite it in a more functional style? (It may be worth nothing that there's no locking when getting the connection by connection string because Transaction.Current is ThreadStatic.) type ConnectionContext(connection:IDbConnection, ownsConnection) = member x.Connection = connection member x.OwnsConnection = ownsConnection interface IDisposable with member x.Dispose() = if ownsConnection then connection.Dispose() module ConnectionManager = let private _connections = new Dictionary<string, Dictionary<string, IDbConnection>>() let private getTid (t:Transaction) = t.TransactionInformation.LocalIdentifier let private removeConnection tid = let cl = _connections.[tid] for (KeyValue(_, con)) in cl do con.Close() lock _connections (fun () -> _connections.Remove(tid) |> ignore) let getConnection connectionString (openConnection:(unit -> IDbConnection)) = match Transaction.Current with | null -> new ConnectionContext(openConnection(), true) | current -> let tid = getTid current // get connections for the current transaction let connections = match _connections.TryGetValue(tid) with | true, cl -> cl | false, _ -> let cl = Dictionary<_,_>() lock _connections (fun () -> _connections.Add(tid, cl)) cl // find connection for this connection string let connection = match connections.TryGetValue(connectionString) with | true, con -> con | false, _ -> let initial = (connections.Count = 0) let con = openConnection() connections.Add(connectionString, con) // if this is the first connection for this transaction, register connections for cleanup if initial then current.TransactionCompleted.Add (fun args -> let id = getTid args.Transaction removeConnection id) con new ConnectionContext(connection, false)

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  • Run Javascript on the body of a Gmail message

    - by saturn
    I want to display LaTeX math in the gmail messages that I receive, so that for example $\mathbb P^2$ would show as a nice formula. Now, there are several Javascripts available (for example, this one, or MathJax which would do the job, I just need to call them at the right time to manipulate the gmail message. I know that this is possible to do in "basic HTML" and "print" views. Is it possible to do in the standard Gmail view? I tried to insert a call to the javascript right before the "canvas_frame" iframe, but that did not work. My suspicion is that manipulating a Gmail message by any Javascript would be a major security flaw (think of all the malicious links one could insert) and that Google does everything to prevent this. And so the answer to my question is probably 'no'. Am I right in this? Of course, it would be very easy for Google to implement viewing of LaTeX and MathML math simply by using MathJax on their servers. I made the corresponding Gmail Lab request, but no answer, and no interest from Google apparently. So, again: is this possible to do without Google's cooperation, on the client side?

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  • Is Assert.Fail() considered bad practice?

    - by Mendelt
    I use Assert.Fail a lot when doing TDD. I'm usually working on one test at a time but when I get ideas for things I want to implement later I quickly write an empty test where the name of the test method indicates what I want to implement as sort of a todo-list. To make sure I don't forget I put an Assert.Fail() in the body. When trying out xUnit.Net I found they hadn't implemented Assert.Fail. Of course you can always Assert.IsTrue(false) but this doesn't communicate my intention as well. I got the impression Assert.Fail wasn't implemented on purpose. Is this considered bad practice? If so why? @Martin Meredith That's not exactly what I do. I do write a test first and then implement code to make it work. Usually I think of several tests at once. Or I think about a test to write when I'm working on something else. That's when I write an empty failing test to remember. By the time I get to writing the test I neatly work test-first. @Jimmeh That looks like a good idea. Ignored tests don't fail but they still show up in a separate list. Have to try that out. @Matt Howells Great Idea. NotImplementedException communicates intention better than assert.Fail() in this case @Mitch Wheat That's what I was looking for. It seems it was left out to prevent it being abused in another way I abuse it.

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  • jquery for ruby on rails

    - by Cezar
    Hello, I am tying to use this code http://gist.github.com/110410 to dump Prototype in favor of jQuery but I do have a problem. This is my HTML (a link_to generated link): <a onclick="var f = document.createElement('form'); f.style.display = 'none'; this.parentNode.appendChild(f); f.method = 'POST'; f.action = this.href;var s = document.createElement('input'); s.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); s.setAttribute('name', 'authenticity_token'); s.setAttribute('value', 'Mi6RcR6YDyvg2uNwGrpbeIJutSHa2fYboU37wSDE7AU='); f.appendChild(s);f.submit();return false;" class="post add_to_cart " href="/line_items?product_id=547">Add to cart</a> Issue: Everything works as it should except that the page does a reload. I suspect that the submit gets thru which causes a page reload. Is there an elegant way to prevent that ? return false; doesn't seem to cut it in this case.

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  • Wrapping text and div as a unit

    - by mathee
    I have the following that I would like wrapped as units. <div class='tag-box'> <a href=#>Axe Committee</a> <div class='circle'><a href=#>x</a></div> </div> The CSS for these classes are: .tag-box { display:inline; } .circle { display:inline; padding-left:4px; padding-right:4px; background:rgb(196,15,24); /*dark red*/ -moz-border-radius:10px; -webkit-border-radius:10px; } .circle a { font-size:10px; text-decoration:none; color:#fff; position:relative; top:-2px; } I can have upwards of 20 or 30 of these tag-boxes displayed inline. The problem is that the wrapping will break the words from each other or even break the red circle from the link. This makes it hard to differentiate which circle belongs to which link. (In the future, each circle corresponds to a different action with respect to the link.) See below. How do I prevent this kind of wrapping from occurring?

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