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  • Fluent NHibernate Many to one mapping

    - by Jit
    I am creating a NHibenate application with one to many relationship. Like City and State data. City table CREATE TABLE [dbo].[State]( [StateId] [varchar](2) NOT NULL primary key, [StateName] [varchar](20) NULL) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[City]( [Id] [int] primary key IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL , [State_id] [varchar](2) NULL refrences State(StateId), [CityName] [varchar](50) NULL) My mapping is follows public CityMapping() { Id(x = x.Id); Map(x = x.State_id); Map(x = x.CityName); HasMany(x = x.EmployeePreferedLocations) .Inverse() .Cascade.SaveUpdate() ; References(x = x.State) //.Cascade.All(); //.Class(typeof(State)) //.Not.Nullable() .Cascade.None() .Column("State_id") ; } public StateMapping() { Id(x => x.StateId) .GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.StateName); HasMany(x => x.Jobs) .Inverse(); //.Cascade.SaveUpdate(); HasMany(x => x.EmployeePreferedLocations) .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.Cities) // .Inverse() .Cascade.SaveUpdate() //.Not.LazyLoad() ; } Models are as follows: [Serializable] public partial class City { public virtual System.String CityName { get; set; } public virtual System.Int32 Id { get; set; } public virtual System.String State_id { get; set; } public virtual IList<EmployeePreferedLocation> EmployeePreferedLocations { get; set; } public virtual JobPortal.Data.Domain.Model.State State { get; set; } public City(){} } public partial class State { public virtual System.String StateId { get; set; } public virtual System.String StateName { get; set; } public virtual IList<City> Cities { get; set; } public virtual IList<EmployeePreferedLocation> EmployeePreferedLocations { get; set; } public virtual IList<Job> Jobs { get; set; } public State() { Cities = new List<City>(); EmployeePreferedLocations = new List<EmployeePreferedLocation>(); Jobs = new List<Job>(); } //public virtual void AddCity(City city) //{ // city.State = this; // Cities.Add(city); //} } My Unit Testing code is below. City city = new City(); IRepository<State> rState = new Repository<State>(); Dictionary<string, string> critetia = new Dictionary<string, string>(); critetia.Add("StateId", "TX"); State frState = rState.GetByCriteria(critetia); city.CityName = "Waco"; city.State = frState; IRepository<City> rCity = new Repository<City>(); rCity.SaveOrUpdate(city); City frCity = rCity.GetById(city.Id); The problem is , I am not able to insert record. The error is below. "Invalid index 2 for this SqlParameterCollection with Count=2." But the error will not come if I comment State_id mapping field in the CityMapping file. I donot know what mistake is I did. If do not give the mapping Map(x = x.State_id); the value of this field is null, which is desired. Please help me how to solve this issue.

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  • Injection of an EJB into a web java class under JBoss 7.1.1

    - by Dobbo
    I am trying to build a website using JBoss 7.1.1 and RESTeasy. I have managed to constructed and deploy and EAR with a both a WAR and an EJB-JAR contained within: voyager-app.ear META-INF/MANIFEST.MF META-INF/application.xml META-INF/jboss-app.xml lib/voyager-lib.jar voyager-adm.war voyager-ejb.jar voyager-web.war So far things are very simple. voyager-adm.war & voyager-lib.jar are empty (just the manifest file) but I know that I'm going to have code for them shortly. There is just one Stateful EJB - HarbourMasterBean (with just a local interface) and a few Database Entity Beans in the EJB jar file: voyager-ejb.jar META-INF/MANIFEST.MF META-INF/persistence.xml com/nutrastat/voyager/db/HarbourMasterBean.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/HarbourMasterLocal.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/PortEntity.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/ShipEntity.class As far as I can tell the EJBs deploy correctly because the database units are created and the log shows that the publication of some HarbourMaster references: java:global/voyager-app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:module/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:global/voyager-app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master java:app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master java:module/harbour-master The problem lies in getting the HarbourMaster EJB injected into my web bean. The reference to it is alway NULL no matter what I try. voyager-web.war META-INF/MANIFEST.MF WEB-INF/web.xml WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/ WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/Ships.class WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/VoyagerApplication.class Ships.java: @Path("fleet") public class Ships { protected transient final Logger log; @EJB private HarbourMasterLocal harbourMaster; public Ships() { log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(getClass()); } @GET @Path("ships") @Produces({"text/plain"}) public String listShips() { if (log.isDebugEnabled()) log.debug("Harbour master value: " + harbourMaster); return "Harbour Master: " + harbourMaster; } } &lt;web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_3_0.xsd" version="3.0" &gt; <display-name>Voyager Web Application</display-name> <listener> <listener-class> org.jboss.resteasy.plugins.server.servlet.ResteasyBootstrap </listener-class> </listener> <servlet> <servlet-name>Resteasy</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.jboss.resteasy.plugins.server.servlet.HttpServletDispatcher </servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name> javax.ws.rs.Application </param-name> <param-value> com.nutrastat.voyager.web.VoyagerApplication </param-value> </init-param> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Resteasy</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> &lt;/web-app&gt; I have been searching the web for an answer and read a number of places, both on StackOverflow and elsewhere that suggests is can be done, and that the problems lies with configuration. But they post only snippets and I'm never sure if I'm doing things correctly. Many thanks for any help you can provide. Dobbo

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  • How do I properly add existing source code files to my Xcode project?

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    I'm new to iPhone development and I'm still getting familiar with the Mac dev environment, including Xcode. I want to add some 3rd party code to my iPhone project, but when I add the "existing files" to my Xcode project, I'm presented with a dialog box that has far too many options that I don't understand and, as such, my project isn't working. When I #import headerfilename.h, I get a build error that reads headerfilename.h: No such file or directory. Can anyone explain to me what all these options mean or give me a link to some documentation that can? I'm having a hard time finding anything in Apple's docs. Which options do I want to choose to add existing source code files to my Xcode project? I should note that the source code files that I'm trying to add are located in my project/Classes/frameworkname/ directory. After they're added, do I need to reference this new code directory in my project settings anywhere (i.e. some kind of header file directory variable)? Thanks so much! Update: I found the following answers/responses on the apple dev forums that were very useful and helped me fix my issue... To make it simple : - if you do not check the copy option, the file stay where it is. - if you check it, it is copied in your project folders In the first case (what it seems you are doing) you need to tell the compiler that the header files are in another directory : - project info - build - search paths - User Header Search Path : add the directory from where you took the header file Hope this will help You have discovered the most confusing dialog box that ever came out of Cupertino. Six years of Xcode, and this thing still is partly a mystery to me. To even get that far, I had to make many test projects to try and reverse-engineer what this thing does. The "Copy" box means that it will copy the files as they are right now, into the project. If this box is not checked, then it just references those files during a build and copies them as they are at THAT time. For source code, you want the Copy box checked. The "relative to" is a total mystery to me and I can't help you with that. I usually leave it however it is already set. Does it mean relative to where they are on disk, or the arrangement in Xcode, or in the bundle? Who knows. The last 2 radio buttons SEEM to mean that it will either re-create the folder structure of the folder you are adding, or just put "fake" folders in Xcode that point to the real folders. This is probably your problem - you are adding source code that is not all at the top level, and when it goes to find it, it does not re-create the hierarchy. Others can supply a better way, hopefully, but what I would do is put all of the source in one folder and add that, using the Copy box. Then in Xcode you can make whatever bogus folders you want and put the source file names in those fake folders.

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  • surfaceDestroyed called out of turn

    - by Avasulthiris
    I'm currently developing on minimum sdk version 3 (Android 1.5 - cupcake) and I'm having a strange unexplained issue that I have not been able to solve on my own. It is now becoming a rather urgent issue as I've already missed 1 deadline... I'm writing a high-level library to make long term android development easier and quicker. The one specific module has to capture images for a application... I've gotten everything right so far over the last couple months, except this one little thing and I don't know what to do any more: When I use the Camera object and implement a SurfaceHolder.Callback, the methods surfaceCreated() and surfaceChanged() are called one after the other. Then when the activity finishes, surfaceDestroyed() is called. This is how it should be, but when I stick the exact same code in my library (plain Java library that references the Android API - not in an activity), surfaceDestroyed() is called directly after created and changed. As a result - the camera object is closed before I can use it and the application force closes. What a pain. I can't do anything! This method call is controlled by the device.. Why does the surface close for no reason? Even when I post it to run on the activity thread through my own invokeAndWait(Runnable) method, like I do for many other things. I have 5 different working examples of different ways and implementations of capturing images in android but I still get the same issue when I plug it into my library. I don't understand what the difference is. The code is pretty much the same - and I post all the related code to the UI thread so its not a thread handling issue or anything like that. I've rewritten it about 20 times in different ways - same issue every time.. The only other way to approach it that I know of is creating a new Camera and setting it to the VideoView. The android source (c++ native code) however provides no Camera constructor, only an open() method which automatically forwards the camera's state to 'prepared' but I can only set the camera to the VideoView from the 'initialized' state. Pretty silly, I know, but there is no way around it unless I modify the Android library source code haha. not an option! The API does not allow for this method - you are expected to use it like my first example. So essentially - i just need to understand exactly why surfaceDestroyed() is called out of turn and if there is anything I can do to avoid it closing? If i can just understand the exact logic behind it and how it works! The documentation isn't much help! Secondly, if someone knows of any alternative ways to do it, as my second example, but hopefully one which the API actually allows for? haha Thanks guys. I would post code, but its fairly complicated, a couple thousand lines for this specific class and it would probably take a couple days to explain with all the threading and event listeners and what not. I just need help with this 1 single thing. Please let me know if you have any questions.

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  • SVG: About using <defs> and <use> with variable text values

    - by Lukman
    Hi, I have the following SVG source code that generates a number of boxes with texts: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE svg PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD SVG 1.0//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/2001/REC-SVG-20050904/DTD/svg11.dtd"> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" version="1.1" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" width="600" height="600"> <defs> </defs> <title>Draw</title> <g transform="translate(50,40)"> <rect width="80" height="30" x="0" y="-20" style="stroke: black; stroke-opacity: 1; stroke-width: 1; fill: #9dc2de" /> <text text-anchor="middle" x="40">Text</text> </g> <g transform="translate(150,40)"> <rect width="80" height="30" x="0" y="-20" style="stroke: black; stroke-opacity: 1; stroke-width: 1; fill: #9dc2de" /> <text text-anchor="middle" x="40">Text 2</text> </g> <g transform="translate(250,40)"> <rect width="80" height="30" x="0" y="-20" style="stroke: black; stroke-opacity: 1; stroke-width: 1; fill: #9dc2de" /> <text text-anchor="middle" x="40">Text 3</text> </g> </svg> As you can see, I repeated the <g></g> three times to get three such boxes, when SVG has <defs> and <use> elements that allow reusing elements using id references instead of repeating their definitions. Something like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE svg PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD SVG 1.0//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/2001/REC-SVG-20050904/DTD/svg11.dtd"> <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" version="1.1" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" width="600" height="600"> <defs> <marker style="overflow:visible;fill:inherit;stroke:inherit" id="Arrow1Mend" refX="0.0" refY="0.0" orient="auto"> <path transform="scale(0.4) rotate(180) translate(20,0)" style="fill-rule:evenodd;stroke-width:2.0pt;marker-start:none;" d="M 0.0,-15.0 L -20.5,0.0 L 0.0,15.0 "/> </marker> <line marker-end="url(#Arrow1Mend)" id="systemthread" x1="40" y1="10" x2="40" y2="410" style="stroke: black; stroke-dasharray: 5, 5; stroke-width: 1; "/> </defs> <title>Draw</title> <use xlink:href="#systemthread" transform="translate(50,40)" /> <use xlink:href="#systemthread" transform="translate(150,40)" /> <use xlink:href="#systemthread" transform="translate(250,40)" /> </svg> Unfortunately I can't do this with the first SVG code since I need the texts to be different for each box, while the <use> tag simply duplicates 100% what's defined in <defs>. Is there any way to use <defs> and <use> with some kind of parameters/arguments mechanism like function calls?

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  • Hard crash when drawing content for CALayer using quartz

    - by Lukasz
    I am trying to figure out why iOS crash my application in the harsh way (no crash logs, immediate shudown with black screen of death with spinner shown for a while). It happens when I render content for CALayer using Quartz. I suspected the memory issue (happens only when testing on the device), but memory logs, as well as instruments allocation logs looks quite OK. Let me past in the fatal function: - (void)renderTiles{ if (rendering) { //NSLog(@"====== RENDERING TILES SKIP ======="); return; } rendering = YES; CGRect b = tileLayer.bounds; CGSize s = b.size; CGFloat imageScale = [[UIScreen mainScreen] scale]; s.height *= imageScale; s.width *= imageScale; dispatch_async(queue, ^{ NSLog(@""); NSLog(@"====== RENDERING TILES START ======="); NSLog(@"1. Before creating context"); report_memory(); CGColorSpaceRef colorSpace = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); NSLog(@"2. After creating color space"); report_memory(); NSLog(@"3. About to create context with size: %@", NSStringFromCGSize(s)); CGContextRef ctx = CGBitmapContextCreate(NULL, s.width, s.height, 8, 0, colorSpace, kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast); NSLog(@"4. After creating context"); report_memory(); CGAffineTransform flipTransform = CGAffineTransformMake(1.0, 0.0, 0.0, -1.0, 0.0, s.height); CGContextConcatCTM(ctx, flipTransform); CGRect tileRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, tileImageScaledSize.width, tileImageScaledSize.height); CGContextDrawTiledImage(ctx, tileRect, tileCGImageScaled); NSLog(@"5. Before creating cgimage from context"); report_memory(); CGImageRef cgImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(ctx); NSLog(@"6. After creating cgimage from context"); report_memory(); dispatch_sync(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ tileLayer.contents = (id)cgImage; }); NSLog(@"7. After asgning tile layer contents = cgimage"); report_memory(); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSpace); CGContextRelease(ctx); CGImageRelease(cgImage); NSLog(@"8. After releasing image and context context"); report_memory(); NSLog(@"====== RENDERING TILES END ======="); NSLog(@""); rendering = NO; }); } Here are the logs: ====== RENDERING TILES START ======= 1. Before creating context Memory in use (in bytes): 28340224 / 519442432 (5.5%) 2. After creating color space Memory in use (in bytes): 28340224 / 519442432 (5.5%) 3. About to create context with size: {6324, 5208} 4. After creating context Memory in use (in bytes): 28344320 / 651268096 (4.4%) 5. Before creating cgimage from context Memory in use (in bytes): 153649152 / 651333632 (23.6%) 6. After creating cgimage from context Memory in use (in bytes): 153649152 / 783159296 (19.6%) 7. After asgning tile layer contents = cgimage Memory in use (in bytes): 153653248 / 783253504 (19.6%) 8. After releasing image and context context Memory in use (in bytes): 21688320 / 651288576 (3.3%) ====== RENDERING TILES END ======= Application crashes in random places. Sometimes when reaching en of the function and sometime in random step. Which direction should I look for a solution? Is is possible that GDC is causing the problem? Or maybe the context size or some Core Animation underlying references?

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  • ssh login fails for user with empty password

    - by Reid
    How do you enable ssh login on OS X 10.8 (Mountain Lion) for a user with an empty password? I've seen others asking this question, and like me it's for the same reason: a parent who can't deal with passwords. So "set a password" is not an option. I found references to adding "nullok" to various PAM config files. Didn't work. Found sshd config "PermitEmptyPasswords yes". Didn't work. I've done a diff on "ssh -vvv" between a successful ssh with a password-enabled account and the one with no password. 54,55c54,55 < debug2: dh_gen_key: priv key bits set: 133/256 < debug2: bits set: 533/1024 --- > debug2: dh_gen_key: priv key bits set: 140/256 > debug2: bits set: 508/1024 67c67 < debug2: bits set: 509/1024 --- > debug2: bits set: 516/1024 79c79 < debug2: key: /Users/rae/.ssh/rae (0x7f9a0241e2c0) --- > debug2: key: /Users/rae/.ssh/rae (0x7f81e0c1e2c0) 90,116c90,224 < debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive < debug2: we did not send a packet, disable method < debug3: authmethod_lookup keyboard-interactive < debug3: remaining preferred: password < debug3: authmethod_is_enabled keyboard-interactive < debug1: Next authentication method: keyboard-interactive < debug2: userauth_kbdint < debug2: we sent a keyboard-interactive packet, wait for reply < debug2: input_userauth_info_req < debug2: input_userauth_info_req: num_prompts 1 < debug3: packet_send2: adding 32 (len 14 padlen 18 extra_pad 64) < debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive < debug2: userauth_kbdint < debug2: we sent a keyboard-interactive packet, wait for reply < debug2: input_userauth_info_req < debug2: input_userauth_info_req: num_prompts 1 < debug3: packet_send2: adding 32 (len 14 padlen 18 extra_pad 64) < debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive < debug2: userauth_kbdint < debug2: we sent a keyboard-interactive packet, wait for reply < debug2: input_userauth_info_req < debug2: input_userauth_info_req: num_prompts 1 < debug3: packet_send2: adding 32 (len 14 padlen 18 extra_pad 64) < debug1: Authentications that can continue: publickey,keyboard-interactive < debug2: we did not send a packet, disable method < debug1: No more authentication methods to try. < Permission denied (publickey,keyboard-interactive). --- > debug1: Server accepts key: pkalg ssh-dss blen 433 > debug2: input_userauth_pk_ok: fp 6e:02:20:63:48:6a:08:99:b8:5f:12:d8:d5:3d:e1:fb > debug3: sign_and_send_pubkey: DSA 6e:02:20:63:48:6a:08:99:b8:5f:12:d8:d5:3d:e1:fb > debug1: read PEM private key done: type DSA > debug1: Authentication succeeded (publickey). > Authenticated to cme-mini.local ([192.168.1.5]:22). > debug2: fd 7 setting O_NONBLOCK > debug3: fd 8 is O_NONBLOCK > debug1: channel 0: new [client-session] > debug3: ssh_session2_open: channel_new: 0 > debug2: channel 0: send open > debug1: Requesting [email protected] > debug1: Entering interactive session. > debug2: callback start > debug2: client_session2_setup: id 0 > debug2: fd 5 setting TCP_NODELAY > debug2: channel 0: request pty-req confirm 1 > debug1: Sending environment.

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  • ScriptManager emits ScriptReferences after ClientScriptIncludes. Why?

    - by Chris F
    I have an application that uses a lot of javascript in a lot of different .js files. Each page can have any number and combination of different controls and each control can use a different set of js files. Instead of including all possible js files as <script src="xxx.js"> in the head of my master page, I thought I would reduce the amount of included files by getting each control to call ScriptManager.Scripts.Add(new ScriptReference("xxx.js")) - thus only the scripts that are actually needed by the page will be included. Well that bit works fine. But...the controls also use ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock fairly extensively too. (There are scenarios where the controls are inside update panels). I was disappointed to see that the ScriptManager emits the client script includes before the ScriptReferences. For example - see the test file and output at the end (this results in a JS error because $ is not defined). Am I being dumb or is this to be expected? I would have thought that a sensible thing for the ScriptManger to do would be to emit the ScriptReferences first and then the other stuff. Short of rolling my own ScriptManager like object to manage static JS file references, does anyone have any suggestions as to get the behaviour that I want from ScriptManager?? Thanks in advance. Example File <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <script runat="server"> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, Page.GetType(), "Test", "$(function() {alert('hello');});", true); } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" > <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="~/jquery/jquery.js" /> </Scripts> </asp:ScriptManager> </form> </body> </html> Output <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > ... boring stuff removed .... <script src="/js/WebResource.axd?d=-nOHbla bla " type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ $(function() {alert('hello');});//]]> </script> ... boring stuff removed .... <script src="/js/ScriptResource.axd?d=qgCbla bla bla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery/jquery.js" type="text/javascript"></script> ... boring stuff removed .... </form> </body> </html>

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  • Javascript works great locally, but not on my server

    - by Jonathan Cohen
    I'm teaching myself javascript by creating a script for displaying an external rss feed on a webpage. The code I patched together works great locally. This is a screen grab of the code producing exactly the desired behavior. The code is populating all the information inside the section "Blog: Shades of Gray", except for "tagged" which I hard coded: But when I upload the site files to my server, the code doesn't work at all. This is a screen grab of the code on my site NOT producing the desired behavior... This feels like I'm not getting something really basic about how javascript works locally vs. on the server. I did my half hour of googling for an answer and no trails look promising. So I'd really appreciate your help. This is my site (under construction) http://jonathangcohen.com Below is the code, which can also be found at http://jonathangcohen.com/grabFeeds.js. /*Javascript for Displaying an External RSS Feed on a Webpage Wrote some code that’ll grab attributes from an rss feed and assign IDs for displaying on a webpage. The code references my Tumblr blog but it’ll extend to any RSS feed.*/ window.onload = writeRSS; function writeRSS(){ writeBlog(); } function writeBlog(){ if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","http://blog.jonathangcohen.com/rss.xml",false); xmlhttp.send(); xmlDoc=xmlhttp.responseXML; var x=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("item"); //append category to link for (i=0;i<3;i++) { if (i == 0){ //print category var blogTumblrCategory = x[i].getElementsByTagName("category")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogCategory1").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="http://blog.jonathangcohen.com/tagged/'+blogTumblrCategory+'">'+blogTumblrCategory+'</a>'; //print date var k = x[i].getElementsByTagName("pubDate")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue thisDate = new Date(); thisDate = formatTumblrDate(k); document.getElementById("getBlogPublishDate1").innerHTML = thisDate; //print title var blogTumblrTitle = x[i].getElementsByTagName("title")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue var blogTumblrLink = x[i].getElementsByTagName("link")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogTitle1").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="'+blogTumblrLink+'">'+blogTumblrTitle+'</a>'; } if (i == 1){ //print category var blogTumblrCategory = x[i].getElementsByTagName("category")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogCategory2").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="http://blog.jonathangcohen.com/tagged/'+blogTumblrCategory+'">'+blogTumblrCategory+'</a>'; //print date var k = x[i].getElementsByTagName("pubDate")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue thisDate = new Date(); thisDate = formatTumblrDate(k); document.getElementById("getBlogPublishDate2").innerHTML = thisDate; //print title var blogTumblrTitle = x[i].getElementsByTagName("title")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue var blogTumblrLink = x[i].getElementsByTagName("link")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogTitle2").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="'+blogTumblrLink+'">'+blogTumblrTitle+'</a>'; } if (i == 2){ //print category var blogTumblrCategory = x[i].getElementsByTagName("category")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogCategory3").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="http://blog.jonathangcohen.com/tagged/'+blogTumblrCategory+'">'+blogTumblrCategory+'</a>'; //print date var k = x[i].getElementsByTagName("pubDate")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue thisDate = new Date(); thisDate = formatTumblrDate(k); document.getElementById("getBlogPublishDate3").innerHTML = thisDate; //print title var blogTumblrTitle = x[i].getElementsByTagName("title")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue var blogTumblrLink = x[i].getElementsByTagName("link")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue document.getElementById("getBlogTitle3").innerHTML = '<a class="BlogTitleLinkStyle" href="'+blogTumblrLink+'">'+blogTumblrTitle+'</a>'; } } } function formatTumblrDate(k){ d = new Date(k); var curr_date = d.getDate(); var curr_month = d.getMonth(); curr_month++; var curr_year = d.getFullYear(); printDate = (curr_month + "/" + curr_date + "/" + curr_year); return printDate; } Thank you!

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  • Looping through siblings of a specific row/setting up function

    - by Matt
    Trying to work through my javascript book I am referencing to learn the language and got stuck on looping through siblings of a specific row. W3schools and W3 didnt have what i was looking for. Below is a function walk-through... It reads: Create the countRecords() function. The purpose of this function is to count the number of visible rows in the data table after the table headings. The total is then displayed in the table cell with the id "records". Add the follow commands to the function: a. Create a object named headRow that points to the table row with the id "titleRow". Create a variable named rowCount, setting its initial value to 0. b. Create a for loop that uses familial references starting with the first sibling of headRow and moving to the next sibling until there are no siblings left. Within the for loop. test whether the node name of the currentnext sibling until there are no sibilings left. Within the for loop test whether the node name of the current node is equal to "TR". If it is, test wheter the value of its display style is equal to an empty text string. If it is (indicating that it is visible in the document) increate the value of the rowCount variable by 1. c. Change the text of the "records" table cell to the value of the rowCount variable. Don't use innerHTML. Create a text node that contains the value of the rowCount variable and assign it to a variable called txt. Create a variable called record to store the reference to the element "records" table cell. d. Insert an if condition that test whether the "records" cell has any child nodes. If it does, replace the replace the text node of the "record" table cell with the created text node (txt). If it doesn't append the text node to the cell. var headRow; // part a var rowCount = 0; //part b this is where I get lost. I know I need to access the id titleRow but unsure how to set my loop up specifically for this headRow = document.getElementById("titleRow"); for(var i=0; i<headrow.length; i++) { if (something is not equal == "TH") { make code happen here } if (is "TR" == ""){ rowCount = +1; } //part c var txt = document.createTextNode(rowCount); var record = document.getElementsById("records") //part d holding off on this part until I get a,b,c figured out. The HTML supporting snippet: <table id="filters"> <tr><th colspan="2">Filter Product List</th></tr> <tr> <td>Records: </td> <td id="records"></td> </tr> <table id="prodTable"> <tr><th colspan="8">Digital Cameras</th></tr> <tr id="titleRow"> <th>Model</th> <th>Manufacturer</th> <th>Resolution</th> <th>Zoom</th> <th>Media</th> <th>Video</th> <th>Microphone</th> </tr> Thanks for the help!

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  • How do I solve "Two different CRTLDLLs are loaded" when using packages in C++ Builder 2010?

    - by David M
    Hi, We are trying to split up our monolithic EXE into a combination of an EXE and several packages. So far, we have one package that we're trying to use, and when running the EXE Codeguard shows the following error on startup: CG Error Two different CRTLDLLs are loaded. CG might report false errors (C:\Windows\system32\CC32100MT.DLL) (D:\Projects\Foo\Bar.bpl) OK I read this as two different runtime libraries being loaded - one, the correct one (CC32100MT.dll), one incorrect, which is the package we're trying to use. Continuing to run the program shows odd errors, especially casting between classes or passing a pointer to a class as a parameter in a method that crosses the EXE/DLL boundary. Codeguard itself doesn't show any other errors at all though. How do we solve this? Some more details We've looked at as many things as we (the developer working on this and I) can collectively think of: Each project is built using runtime packages. The EXE host lists Bar in its package list. Each project is set to compile with dynamic RTL. However, changing this does not solve the problem. The package is linked to the EXE via its BPI file, but linking via a LIB makes no difference either. The EXE and BPL are compiled with the same project settings, where the same options exist for both types of project. We think, anyway :) There is only one copy of the BPL and BPI on the system: it's definitely linking to the right one. Examining the EXE and BPL with Depends and TDump show they are both using C:\Windows\system32\CC32100MT.DLL. They should both be using the one RTL. Creating a new project (a plain VCL forms application) and linking to the BPL (via its BPI) works fine. Something in the process of adding all the files and LIBs that make our EXE contain the code it needs to changes this, but we haven't been able to figure out what. The LIBs all either correspond to DLLs we use (flat C interface, usually look as though they were built with MSVC) or are simple projects with lots of related files, compiled to a lib for the purpose of linking into the EXE - these correspond roughly to the areas of the program we want to split to BPLs, by the way. There don't seem to be project options for the LIB projects that would affect RTL linking, unless we've missed them. I have exhaustively hunted through Depends and looked at all RTL and CC32*.dll files the EXE and every single DLL references. All are identical: rtl140.bpl and CC32100MT.DLL. Fully qualified paths show they are the same files, too. Everything should be using the one same run-time library. We're stumped. Absolutely stumped. We've had other problems using BPLs (they seem to be surprisingly tricky things, especially using C++) but have managed to solve them all. This one we've had no luck at all and we'd really appreciate any insights :) We're using C++Builder 2010 (as part of RAD Studio actually, but with little Delphi code apart from components.)

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  • globals and locals in python exec()

    - by hawkettc
    Hi, I'm trying to run a piece of python code using exec. my_code = """ class A(object): pass print 'locals: %s' % locals() print 'A: %s' % A class B(object): a_ref = A """ global_env = {} local_env = {} my_code_AST = compile(my_code, "My Code", "exec") exec(my_code_AST, global_env, local_env) print local_env which results in the following output locals: {'A': <class 'A'>} A: <class 'A'> Traceback (most recent call last): File "python_test.py", line 16, in <module> exec(my_code_AST, global_env, local_env) File "My Code", line 8, in <module> File "My Code", line 9, in B NameError: name 'A' is not defined However, if I change the code to this - my_code = """ class A(object): pass print 'locals: %s' % locals() print 'A: %s' % A class B(A): pass """ global_env = {} local_env = {} my_code_AST = compile(my_code, "My Code", "exec") exec(my_code_AST, global_env, local_env) print local_env then it works fine - giving the following output - locals: {'A': <class 'A'>} A: <class 'A'> {'A': <class 'A'>, 'B': <class 'B'>} Clearly A is present and accessible - what's going wrong in the first piece of code? I'm using 2.6.5, cheers, Colin * UPDATE 1 * If I check the locals() inside the class - my_code = """ class A(object): pass print 'locals: %s' % locals() print 'A: %s' % A class B(object): print locals() a_ref = A """ global_env = {} local_env = {} my_code_AST = compile(my_code, "My Code", "exec") exec(my_code_AST, global_env, local_env) print local_env Then it becomes clear that locals() is not the same in both places - locals: {'A': <class 'A'>} A: <class 'A'> {'__module__': '__builtin__'} Traceback (most recent call last): File "python_test.py", line 16, in <module> exec(my_code_AST, global_env, local_env) File "My Code", line 8, in <module> File "My Code", line 10, in B NameError: name 'A' is not defined However, if I do this, there is no problem - def f(): class A(object): pass class B(object): a_ref = A f() print 'Finished OK' * UPDATE 2 * ok, so the docs here - http://docs.python.org/reference/executionmodel.html 'A class definition is an executable statement that may use and define names. These references follow the normal rules for name resolution. The namespace of the class definition becomes the attribute dictionary of the class. Names defined at the class scope are not visible in methods.' It seems to me that 'A' should be made available as a free variable within the executable statement that is the definition of B, and this happens when we call f(), but not when we use exec(). This can be more easily shown with the following - my_code = """ class A(object): pass print 'locals in body: %s' % locals() print 'A: %s' % A def f(): print 'A in f: %s' % A f() class B(object): a_ref = A """ which outputs locals in body: {'A': <class 'A'>} A: <class 'A'> Traceback (most recent call last): File "python_test.py", line 20, in <module> exec(my_code_AST, global_env, local_env) File "My Code", line 11, in <module> File "My Code", line 9, in f NameError: global name 'A' is not defined So I guess the new question is - why aren't those locals being exposed as free variables in functions and class definitions - it seems like a pretty standard closure scenario.

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  • Languages and VMs: Features that are hard to optimize and why

    - by mrjoltcola
    I'm doing a survey of features in preparation for a research project. Name a mainstream language or language feature that is hard to optimize, and why the feature is or isn't worth the price paid, or instead, just debunk my theories below with anecdotal evidence. Before anyone flags this as subjective, I am asking for specific examples of languages or features, and ideas for optimization of these features, or important features that I haven't considered. Also, any references to implementations that prove my theories right or wrong. Top on my list of hard to optimize features and my theories (some of my theories are untested and are based on thought experiments): 1) Runtime method overloading (aka multi-method dispatch or signature based dispatch). Is it hard to optimize when combined with features that allow runtime recompilation or method addition. Or is it just hard, anyway? Call site caching is a common optimization for many runtime systems, but multi-methods add additional complexity as well as making it less practical to inline methods. 2) Type morphing / variants (aka value based typing as opposed to variable based) Traditional optimizations simply cannot be applied when you don't know if the type of someting can change in a basic block. Combined with multi-methods, inlining must be done carefully if at all, and probably only for a given threshold of size of the callee. ie. it is easy to consider inlining simple property fetches (getters / setters) but inlining complex methods may result in code bloat. The other issue is I cannot just assign a variant to a register and JIT it to the native instructions because I have to carry around the type info, or every variable needs 2 registers instead of 1. On IA-32 this is inconvenient, even if improved with x64's extra registers. This is probably my favorite feature of dynamic languages, as it simplifies so many things from the programmer's perspective. 3) First class continuations - There are multiple ways to implement them, and I have done so in both of the most common approaches, one being stack copying and the other as implementing the runtime to use continuation passing style, cactus stacks, copy-on-write stack frames, and garbage collection. First class continuations have resource management issues, ie. we must save everything, in case the continuation is resumed, and I'm not aware if any languages support leaving a continuation with "intent" (ie. "I am not coming back here, so you may discard this copy of the world"). Having programmed in the threading model and the contination model, I know both can accomplish the same thing, but continuations' elegance imposes considerable complexity on the runtime and also may affect cache efficienty (locality of stack changes more with use of continuations and co-routines). The other issue is they just don't map to hardware. Optimizing continuations is optimizing for the less-common case, and as we know, the common case should be fast, and the less-common cases should be correct. 4) Pointer arithmetic and ability to mask pointers (storing in integers, etc.) Had to throw this in, but I could actually live without this quite easily. My feelings are that many of the high-level features, particularly in dynamic languages just don't map to hardware. Microprocessor implementations have billions of dollars of research behind the optimizations on the chip, yet the choice of language feature(s) may marginalize many of these features (features like caching, aliasing top of stack to register, instruction parallelism, return address buffers, loop buffers and branch prediction). Macro-applications of micro-features don't necessarily pan out like some developers like to think, and implementing many languages in a VM ends up mapping native ops into function calls (ie. the more dynamic a language is the more we must lookup/cache at runtime, nothing can be assumed, so our instruction mix is made up of a higher percentage of non-local branching than traditional, statically compiled code) and the only thing we can really JIT well is expression evaluation of non-dynamic types and operations on constant or immediate types. It is my gut feeling that bytecode virtual machines and JIT cores are perhaps not always justified for certain languages because of this. I welcome your answers.

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  • Possible to reverse order of ItemGroup elements?

    - by Filburt
    In MSBuild 3.5, is it possible to reverse the order elements in an ItemGroup? Example I have 2 projects. One can be built independently the other is dependent on the first. Each project references its specific items in a .targets file. project_A.targets <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <ItemGroup> <AssembliesToRemove Include="@(AssembliesToRemove)" /> <AssembliesToRemove Include="Assembly_A.dll"> <ApplicationName>App_A</ApplicationName> </AssembliesToRemove> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <AssembliesToDeploy Include="@(AssembliesToDeploy)" /> <AssembliesToDeploy Include="Assembly_A.dll"> <AssemblyType>SomeType</AssemblyType> <ApplicationName>App_A</ApplicationName> </AssembliesToDeploy> </ItemGroup> </Project> project_B.targets <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <ItemGroup> <AssembliesToRemove Include="@(AssembliesToRemove)" /> <AssembliesToRemove Include="Assembly_B.dll"> <ApplicationName>App_B</ApplicationName> </AssembliesToRemove> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <AssembliesToDeploy Include="@(AssembliesToDeploy)" /> <AssembliesToDeploy Include="Assembly_B.dll"> <AssemblyType>SomeType</AssemblyType> <ApplicationName>App_B</ApplicationName> </AssembliesToDeploy> </ItemGroup> </Project> project_A.proj <Project DefaultTargets="Start" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <Import Project="project_A.targets" /> <Import Project="Common.targets" /> </Project> project_B.proj <Project DefaultTargets="Start" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <Import Project="project_A.targets" /> <Import Project="project_B.targets" /> <Import Project="Common.targets" /> </Project> The Problem In this scenario the problem arises during the Task processing @(AssembliesToDeploy) because Assembly_B.dll needs to be deployed before Assembly_A.dll. What I tried to do I tried to influence the order of @(AssembliesToDeploy) by modifying project_B.targets like this: <ItemGroup> <AssembliesToDeploy Include="Assembly_B.dll"> <AssemblyType>SomeType</AssemblyType> <ApplicationName>App_B</ApplicationName> </AssembliesToDeploy> <AssembliesToDeploy Include="@(AssembliesToDeploy)" /> </ItemGroup> but when using project_B.targets inside project_B.proj the order inside @(AssembliesToDeploy) still remained Assembly_A.dll;Assembly_B.dll. Is there a solution which would allow to reuse my .targets i.e not copying all ItemGroup elements to all .targets files?

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  • Different setter behavior between DbContext and ObjectContext

    - by Paul
    (This is using EntityFramework 4.2 CTP) I haven't found any references to this on the web yet, although it's likely I'm using the wrong terminology while searching. There's also a very likely scenario where this is 100% expected behavior, just looking for confirmation and would rather not dig through the tt template (still new to this). Assuming I have a class with a boolean field called Active and I have one row that already has this value set to true. I have code that executes to set said field to True regardless of it's existing value. If I use DbContext to update the value to True no update is made. If I use ObjectContext to update the value an update is made regardless of the existing value. This is happening in the exact same EDMX, all I did was change the code generation template from DbContext to EntityObject. Update: Ok, found the confirmation I was looking for...consider this a dupe...next time I'll do MOAR SEARCHING! Entity Framework: Cancel a property change if no change in value ** Update 2: ** Problem: the default tt template wraps the "if (this != value)" in the setter with "if (iskey), so only primarykey fields receive this logic. Solution: it's not the most graceful thing, but I removed this check...we'll see how it pans out in real usage. I included the entire tt template, my changes are denoted with "**"... //////// //////// Write SimpleType Properties. //////// private void WriteSimpleTypeProperty(EdmProperty simpleProperty, CodeGenerationTools code) { MetadataTools ef = new MetadataTools(this); #> /// <summary> /// <#=SummaryComment(simpleProperty)#> /// </summary><#=LongDescriptionCommentElement(simpleProperty, 1)#> [EdmScalarPropertyAttribute(EntityKeyProperty= <#=code.CreateLiteral(ef.IsKey(simpleProperty))#>, IsNullable=<#=code.CreateLiteral(ef.IsNullable(simpleProperty))#>)] [DataMemberAttribute()] <#=code.SpaceAfter(NewModifier(simpleProperty))#><#=Accessibility.ForProperty(simpleProperty)#> <#=MultiSchemaEscape(simpleProperty.TypeUsage, code)#> <#=code.Escape(simpleProperty)#> { <#=code.SpaceAfter(Accessibility.ForGetter(simpleProperty))#>get { <#+ if (ef.ClrType(simpleProperty.TypeUsage) == typeof(byte[])) { #> return StructuralObject.GetValidValue(<#=code.FieldName(simpleProperty)#>); <#+ } else { #> return <#=code.FieldName(simpleProperty)#>; <#+ } #> } <#=code.SpaceAfter(Accessibility.ForSetter((simpleProperty)))#>set { <#+ **//if (ef.IsKey(simpleProperty)) **//{ if (ef.ClrType(simpleProperty.TypeUsage) == typeof(byte[])) { #> if (!StructuralObject.BinaryEquals(<#=code.FieldName(simpleProperty)#>, value)) <#+ } else { #> if (<#=code.FieldName(simpleProperty)#> != value) <#+ } #> { <#+ PushIndent(CodeRegion.GetIndent(1)); **//} #> <#=ChangingMethodName(simpleProperty)#>(value); ReportPropertyChanging("<#=simpleProperty.Name#>"); <#=code.FieldName(simpleProperty)#> = <#=CastToEnumType(simpleProperty.TypeUsage, code)#>StructuralObject.SetValidValue(<#=CastToUnderlyingType(simpleProperty.TypeUsage, code)#>value<#=OptionalNullableParameterForSetValidValue(simpleProperty, code)#>, "<#=simpleProperty.Name#>"); ReportPropertyChanged("<#=simpleProperty.Name#>"); <#=ChangedMethodName(simpleProperty)#>(); <#+ //if (ef.IsKey(simpleProperty)) //{ PopIndent(); #> } <#+ //} #> } }

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  • save the transient instance before flushing

    - by eugenn
    Exception: object references an unsaved transient instance - save the transient instance before flushing: Child How to reproduce issue: 1. Hibernate is load the entity "Parent". The property "child" is null 2. The "Parent" is rendered on the screen and after that the "child" property is auto instantiated. So I have the following graph: Parent.child != null Parent.child.childId = null Parent.child.childKey = "" Parent.child.childName = "" Question: How I could to force the Hibernate to ignore updating or inserting Child entity WHEN childId = null? If childId != null I would like just create relation. <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.test.Parent" entity-name="ParentObject" table="parent" dynamic-insert="false" dynamic-update="true" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="rowId" type="long"> <column name="RowID" /> <generator class="native" /> </id> <version name="versionSequence" type="integer" unsaved-value="null" generated="never" insert="false"> <column name="VersionSequence" /> </version> <many-to-one name="child" entity-name="Child" fetch="select" optimistic-lock="true" embed-xml="false" update="true" insert="false"> <column name="ChildID" /> </many-to-one> <property name="dateCreated" type="timestamp"> <column name="DateCreated" length="0" /> </property> <property name="dateUpdated" type="timestamp" update="false"> <column name="DateUpdated" length="0" /> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.Child" entity-name="Child" table="Child" dynamic-insert="false" dynamic-update="true" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="childId" type="long" > <column name="ChildID" /> <generator class="native" /> </id> <version name="versionSequence" type="integer" insert="false" generated="never" > <column name="VersionSequence" /> </version> <property name="childKey" type="string" > <column name="ChildKey" length="20" /> </property> <property name="childName" type="string" > <column name="ChildName" length="30" /> </property> <property name="childNumber" type="string" > <column name="ChildNumber" /> </property> <property name="dateCreated" type="timestamp"> <column name="DateCreated" /> </property> <property name="dateUpdated" type="timestamp" update="false"> <column name="DateUpdated" /> </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • WCF Endpoints & Binding Configuration Issues

    - by CodeAbundance
    I am running into a very strange issue here folks. For simplicity I created a project for the sole purpose of testing the issue outside the framework of a larger application and still encountered what is either a bug in WCF within Visual Studio 2010 or something related to my WCF newbie skill set : ) Here is the issue: I have a WCF endpoint I created running inside of an MVC3 project called "SimpleMethod". The method runs inside of a .svc file on the root of the application and it returns a bool. Using the "WCF Service Configuration Editor" I have added the endpoint to my Web.Config along with a called "LargeImageBinding". Here is the service: [OperationContract] public bool SimpleMethod() { return true; } And the Web.Config generated by the Config Tool: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="LargeImageBinding" closeTimeout="00:10:00" /> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="WCFEndpoints.ServiceTestOne"> <endpoint address="/ServiceTestOne.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="LargeImageBinding" contract="WCFEndpoints.IServiceTestOne" /> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name=""> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> The service renders fine and you can see the endpoint when you navigate to: http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc - Now the issue occurs when I create a separate project to consume the service. I add a service reference to a running instance of the above project, point it to: http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc Here is the weird part. The service automatically generates just fine but In the Web.Config the endpoint that is generated looks like this: <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:57364/ServiceTestOne.svc/ServiceTestOne.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IServiceTestOne" contract="ServiceTestOne.IServiceTestOne" name="WSHttpBinding_IServiceTestOne"> As you can see it lists the "ServiceTestOne.svc" portion of the address twice! When I make a call to the the service I get the following error: The remote server returned an error: (404) Not Found. I tried removing the extra "/ServiceTestOne.svc" at the end of the endpoint address in the above config, and I get the same exact error. Now what DOES work is if I go back to the WCF application and remove the custom endpoint and binding references in the Web.Config (everything in the "services" and "bindings" tags) then go back to the consumer application, update the reference to the service and make the call to SimpleMethod()....BOOM works like a charm and I get back a bool set to true. The thing is, I need to make custom binding configurations in order to allow for access to the service outside of the defaults, and from what I can tell, any attempt to create custom bindings makes the endpoints seem to run fine, but fail when an actual method call is made. Can anyone see any flaw in how I am putting this together? Thank you for your time - I have been running in circles with this for about a week!

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  • I'm looking for a reliable way to verify T-SQL stored procedures. Anybody got one?

    - by Cory Larson
    Hi all-- We're upgrading from SQL Server 2005 to 2008. Almost every database in the 2005 instance is set to 2000 compatibility mode, but we're jumping to 2008. Our testing is complete, but what we've learned is that we need to get faster at it. I've discovered some stored procedures that either SELECT data from missing tables or try to ORDER BY columns that don't exist. Wrapping the SQL to create the procedures in SET PARSEONLY ON and trapping errors in a try/catch only catches the invalid columns in the ORDER BYs. It does not find the error with the procedure selecting data from the missing table. SSMS 2008's intellisense, however, DOES find the issue, but I can still go ahead and successfully run the ALTER script for the procedure without it complaining. So, why can I even get away with creating a procedure that fails when it runs? Are there any tools out there that can do better than what I've tried? The first tool I found wasn't very useful: DbValidator from CodeProject, but it finds fewer problems than this script I found on SqlServerCentral, which found the invalid column references. ------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Check Syntax of Database Objects -- Copyrighted work. Free to use as a tool to check your own code or in -- any software not sold. All other uses require written permission. ------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Turn on ParseOnly so that we don't actually execute anything. SET PARSEONLY ON GO -- Create a table to iterate through declare @ObjectList table (ID_NUM int NOT NULL IDENTITY (1, 1), OBJ_NAME varchar(255), OBJ_TYPE char(2)) -- Get a list of most of the scriptable objects in the DB. insert into @ObjectList (OBJ_NAME, OBJ_TYPE) SELECT name, type FROM sysobjects WHERE type in ('P', 'FN', 'IF', 'TF', 'TR', 'V') order by type, name -- Var to hold the SQL that we will be syntax checking declare @SQLToCheckSyntaxFor varchar(max) -- Var to hold the name of the object we are currently checking declare @ObjectName varchar(255) -- Var to hold the type of the object we are currently checking declare @ObjectType char(2) -- Var to indicate our current location in iterating through the list of objects declare @IDNum int -- Var to indicate the max number of objects we need to iterate through declare @MaxIDNum int -- Set the inital value and max value select @IDNum = Min(ID_NUM), @MaxIDNum = Max(ID_NUM) from @ObjectList -- Begin iteration while @IDNum <= @MaxIDNum begin -- Load per iteration values here select @ObjectName = OBJ_NAME, @ObjectType = OBJ_TYPE from @ObjectList where ID_NUM = @IDNum -- Get the text of the db Object (ie create script for the sproc) SELECT @SQLToCheckSyntaxFor = OBJECT_DEFINITION(OBJECT_ID(@ObjectName, @ObjectType)) begin try -- Run the create script (remember that PARSEONLY has been turned on) EXECUTE(@SQLToCheckSyntaxFor) end try begin catch -- See if the object name is the same in the script and the catalog (kind of a special error) if (ERROR_PROCEDURE() <> @ObjectName) begin print 'Error in ' + @ObjectName print ' The Name in the script is ' + ERROR_PROCEDURE()+ '. (They don''t match)' end -- If the error is just that this already exists then we don't want to report that. else if (ERROR_MESSAGE() <> 'There is already an object named ''' + ERROR_PROCEDURE() + ''' in the database.') begin -- Report the error that we got. print 'Error in ' + ERROR_PROCEDURE() print ' ERROR TEXT: ' + ERROR_MESSAGE() end end catch -- Setup to iterate to the next item in the table select @IDNum = case when Min(ID_NUM) is NULL then @IDNum + 1 else Min(ID_NUM) end from @ObjectList where ID_NUM > @IDNum end -- Turn the ParseOnly back off. SET PARSEONLY OFF GO Any suggestions?

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  • JPA2 adding referential contraint to table complicates criteria query with lazy fetch, need advice

    - by Quaternion
    Following is a lot of writing for what I feel is a pretty simple issue. Root of issue is my ignorance, not looking so much for code but advice. Table: Ininvhst (Inventory-schema inventory history) column ihtran (inventory history transfer code) using an old entity mapping I have: @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "IHTRAN") private String ihtran; ihtran is really a foreign key to table Intrnmst ("Inventory Transfer Master" which contains a list of "transfer codes"). This was not expressed in the database so placed a referential constraint on Ininvhst re-generating JPA2 entity classes produced: @JoinColumn(name = "IHTRAN", referencedColumnName = "TMCODE", nullable = false) @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Intrnmst intrnmst; Now previously I was using JPA2 to select the records/(Ininvhst entities) from the Ininvhst table where "ihtran" was one of a set of values. I used in.value() to do this... here is a snippet: cq = cb.createQuery(Ininvhst.class); ... In in = cb.in(transactionType); //Get in expression for transacton types for (String s : transactionTypes) { //has a value in = in.value(s);//check if the strings we are looking for exist in the transfer master } predicateList.add(in); My issue is that the Ininvhst used to contain a string called ihtran but now it contains Ininvhst... So I now need a path expression: this.predicateList = new ArrayList<Predicate>(); if (transactionTypes != null && transactionTypes.size() > 0) { //list of strings has some values Path<Intrnmst> intrnmst = root.get(Ininvhst_.intrnmst); //get transfermaster from Ininvhst Path<String> transactionType = intrnmst.get(Intrnmst_.tmcode); //get transaction types from transfer master In<String> in = cb.in(transactionType); //Get in expression for transacton types for (String s : transactionTypes) { //has a value in = in.value(s);//check if the strings we are looking for exist in the transfer master } predicateList.add(in); } Can I add ihtran back into the entity along with a join column that is both references "IHTRAN"? Or should I use a projection to somehow return Ininvhst along with the ihtran string which is now part of the Intrnmst entity. Or should I use a projection to return Ininvhst and somehow limit Intrnmst just just the ihtran string. Further information: I am using the resulting list of selected Ininvhst objects in a web application, the class which contains the list of Ininvhst objects is transformed into a json object. There are probably quite a few serialization methods that would navigate the object graph the problem is that my current fetch strategy is lazy so it hits the join entity (Intrnmst intrnmst) and there is no Entity Manager available at that point. At this point I have prevented the object from serializing the join column but now I am missing a critical piece of data. I think I've said too much but not knowing enough I don't know what you JPA experts need. What I would like is my original object to have both a string object and be able to join on the same column (ihtran) and have it as a string too, but if this isn't possible or advisable I want to hear what I should do and why. Pseudo code/English is more than fine.

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  • Windows 2012 - WDS unattend Partition

    - by joe
    I'm trying to install Windows 2012 via Windows 2012 WDS. The installer displays the following error message: the partition selected for the installation (1) does not exist on disk 0. Make sure the unattend answer file's imageselection \installimage setting references a valid partition on this computer, and then restart the installation. the unattend file (created by the "Create Client Unattend" dialog) <unattend xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <settings pass="windowsPE"> <component name="Microsoft-Windows-Setup" publicKeyToken="31bf3856ad364e35" language="neutral" versionScope="nonSxS" processorArchitecture="x86"> <WindowsDeploymentServices> <Login> <WillShowUI>OnError</WillShowUI> <Credentials> <Username>administrator</Username> <Domain>test</Domain> <Password>xxxx</Password> </Credentials> </Login> <WillWipeDisk>true</WillWipeDisk> <DiskConfiguration> <WillShowUI>OnError</WillShowUI> <Disk> <DiskID>0</DiskID> <WillWipeDisk>true</WillWipeDisk> <CreatePartitions> <CreatePartition> <Order>1</Order> <Type>Primary</Type> <Extend>true</Extend> </CreatePartition> </CreatePartitions> </Disk> </DiskConfiguration> <ImageSelection> <WillShowUI>OnError</WillShowUI> <InstallImage> <ImageGroup>ImageGroup1</ImageGroup> <ImageName>Windows Server 2012 SERVERDATACENTER</ImageName> <Filename>install-(4).wim</Filename> </InstallImage> <InstallTo> <DiskID>0</DiskID> <PartitionID>1</PartitionID> </InstallTo> </ImageSelection> </WindowsDeploymentServices> </component> <component name="Microsoft-Windows-International-Core-WinPE" publicKeyToken="31bf3856ad364e35" language="neutral" versionScope="nonSxS" processorArchitecture="x86"> <SetupUILanguage> <UILanguage>en-US</UILanguage> </SetupUILanguage> <InputLocale>en-US</InputLocale> <SystemLocale>en-US</SystemLocale> <UILanguage>en-US</UILanguage> <UserLocale>en-US</UserLocale> </component> <component name="Microsoft-Windows-Setup" publicKeyToken="31bf3856ad364e35" language="neutral" versionScope="nonSxS" processorArchitecture="amd64"> <WindowsDeploymentServices> <Login> <WillShowUI>OnError</WillShowUI> <Credentials> <Username>administrator</Username> <Domain>test</Domain> <Password>xxxxx</Password> </Credentials> </Login> <ImageSelection> <WillShowUI>OnError</WillShowUI> <InstallImage> <ImageGroup>ImageGroup1</ImageGroup> <ImageName>Windows Server 2012 SERVERDATACENTER</ImageName> <Filename>install-(4).wim</Filename> </InstallImage> <InstallTo> <DiskID>0</DiskID> <PartitionID>1</PartitionID> </InstallTo> </ImageSelection> </WindowsDeploymentServices> </component> <component name="Microsoft-Windows-International-Core-WinPE" publicKeyToken="31bf3856ad364e35" language="neutral" versionScope="nonSxS" processorArchitecture="amd64"> <SetupUILanguage> <UILanguage>en-US</UILanguage> </SetupUILanguage> <InputLocale>en-US</InputLocale> <SystemLocale>en-US</SystemLocale> <UILanguage>en-US</UILanguage> <UserLocale>en-US</UserLocale> </component> </settings> </unattend> Any idea why it is not working? thanks

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  • Reconciling a new BindingList into a master BindingList using LINQ

    - by Neo
    I have a seemingly simple problem whereby I wish to reconcile two lists so that an 'old' master list is updated by a 'new' list containing updated elements. Elements are denoted by a key property. These are my requirements: All elements in either list that have the same key results in an assignment of that element from the 'new' list over the original element in the 'old' list only if any properties have changed. Any elements in the 'new' list that have keys not in the 'old' list will be added to the 'old' list. Any elements in the 'old' list that have keys not in the 'new' list will be removed from the 'old' list. I found an equivalent problem here - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/161432/ - but it hasn't really been answered properly. So, I came up with an algorithm to iterate through the old and new lists and perform the reconciliation as per the above. Before anyone asks why I'm not just replacing the old list object with the new list object in its entirety, it's for presentation purposes - this is a BindingList bound to a grid on a GUI and I need to prevent refresh artifacts such as blinking, scrollbars moving, etc. So the list object must remain the same, only its updated elements changed. Another thing to note is that the objects in the 'new' list, even if the key is the same and all the properties are the same, are completely different instances to the equivalent objects in the 'old' list, so copying references is not an option. Below is what I've come up with so far - it's a generic extension method for a BindingList. I've put comments in to demonstrate what I'm trying to do. public static class BindingListExtension { public static void Reconcile<T>(this BindingList<T> left, BindingList<T> right, string key) { PropertyInfo piKey = typeof(T).GetProperty(key); // Go through each item in the new list in order to find all updated and new elements foreach (T newObj in right) { // First, find an object in the new list that shares its key with an object in the old list T oldObj = left.First(call => piKey.GetValue(call, null).Equals(piKey.GetValue(newObj, null))); if (oldObj != null) { // An object in each list was found with the same key, so now check to see if any properties have changed and // if any have, then assign the object from the new list over the top of the equivalent element in the old list foreach (PropertyInfo pi in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { if (!pi.GetValue(oldObj, null).Equals(pi.GetValue(newObj, null))) { left[left.IndexOf(oldObj)] = newObj; break; } } } else { // The object in the new list is brand new (has a new key), so add it to the old list left.Add(newObj); } } // Now, go through each item in the old list to find all elements with keys no longer in the new list foreach (T oldObj in left) { // Look for an element in the new list with a key matching an element in the old list if (right.First(call => piKey.GetValue(call, null).Equals(piKey.GetValue(oldObj, null))) == null) { // A matching element cannot be found in the new list, so remove the item from the old list left.Remove(oldObj); } } } } It can be called like this: _oldBindingList.Reconcile(newBindingList, "MyKey") However, I'm looking for perhaps a method of doing the same using LINQ type methods such as GroupJoin<, Join<, Select<, SelectMany<, Intersect<, etc. So far, the problem I've had is that each of these LINQ type methods result in brand new intermediary lists (as a return value) and really, I only want to modify the existing list for all the above reasons. If anyone can help with this, would be most appreciated. If not, no worries, the above method (as it were) will suffice for now. Thanks, Jason

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  • java will this threading setup work or what can i be doing wrong

    - by Erik
    Im a bit unsure and have to get advice. I have the: public class MyApp extends JFrame{ And from there i do; MyServer = new MyServer (this); MyServer.execute(); MyServer is a: public class MyServer extends SwingWorker<String, Object> { MyServer is doing listen_socket.accept() in the doInBackground() and on connection it create a new class Connection implements Runnable { I have the belove DbHelper that are a singleton. It holds an Sqlite connected. Im initiating it in the above MyApp and passing references all the way in to my runnable: class Connection implements Runnable { My question is what will happen if there are two simultaneous read or `write? My thought here was the all methods in the singleton are synchronized and would put all calls in the queue waiting to get a lock on the synchronized method. Will this work or what can i change? public final class DbHelper { private boolean initalized = false; private String HomePath = ""; private File DBFile; private static final String SYSTEM_TABLE = "systemtable"; Connection con = null; private Statement stmt; private static final ContentProviderHelper instance = new ContentProviderHelper (); public static ContentProviderHelper getInstance() { return instance; } private DbHelper () { if (!initalized) { initDB(); initalized = true; } } private void initDB() { DBFile = locateDBFile(); try { Class.forName("org.sqlite.JDBC"); // create a database connection con = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:sqlite:J:/workspace/workComputer/user_ptpp"); } catch (SQLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } private File locateDBFile() { File f = null; try{ HomePath = System.getProperty("user.dir"); System.out.println("HomePath: " + HomePath); f = new File(HomePath + "/user_ptpp"); if (f.canRead()) return f; else { boolean success = f.createNewFile(); if (success) { System.out.println("File did not exist and was created " + HomePath); // File did not exist and was created } else { System.out.println("File already exists " + HomePath); // File already exists } } } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("Maybe try a new directory. " + HomePath); //Maybe try a new directory. } return f; } public String getHomePath() { return HomePath; } private synchronized String getDate(){ SimpleDateFormat dateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss"); Date date = new Date(); return dateFormat.format(date); } public synchronized String getSelectedSystemTableColumn( String column) { String query = "select "+ column + " from " + SYSTEM_TABLE ; try { stmt = con.createStatement(ResultSet.TYPE_FORWARD_ONLY, ResultSet.CONCUR_READ_ONLY); ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery(query); while (rs.next()) { String value = rs.getString(column); if(value == null || value == "") return ""; else return value; } } catch (SQLException e ) { e.printStackTrace(); return ""; } finally { } return ""; } }

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  • How to develop an english .com domain value rating algorithm?

    - by Tom
    I've been thinking about an algorithm that should rougly be able to guess the value of an english .com domain in most cases. For this to work I want to perform tests that consider the strengths and weaknesses of an english .com domain. A simple point based system is what I had in mind, where each domain property can be given a certain weight to factor it's importance in. I had these properties in mind: domain character length Eg. initially 20 points are added. If the domain has 4 or less characters, no points are substracted. For each extra character, one or more points are substracted on an exponential basis (the more characters, the higher the penalty). domain characters Eg. initially 20 points are added. If the domain is only alphabetic, no points are substracted. For each non-alhabetic character, X points are substracted (exponential increase again). domain name words Scans through a big offline english database, including non-formal speech, eg. words like "tweet" should be recognized. Question 1 : where can I get a modern list of english words for use in such application? Are these lists available for free? Are there lists like these with non-formal words? The more words are found per character, the more points are added. So, a domain with a lot of characters will still not get a lot of points. words hype-level I believe this is a tricky one, but this should be the cause to differentiate perfect but boring domains from perfect and interesting domains. For example, the following domain is probably not that valueable: www.peanutgalaxy.com The algorithm should identify that peanuts and galaxies are not very popular topics on the web. This is just an example. On the other side, a domain like www.shopdeals.com should ring a bell to the hype test, as shops and deals are quite popular on the web. My initial thought would be to see how often these keywords are references to on the web, preferably with some database. Question 2: is this logic flawed, or does this hype level test have merit? Question 3: are such "hype databases" available? Or is there anything else that could work offline? The problem with eg. a query to google is that it requires a lot of requests due to the many domains to be tested. domain name spelling mistakes Domains like "freemoneyz.com" etc. are generally (notice I am making a lot of assumptions in this post but that's necessary I believe) not valueable due to the spelling mistakes. Question 4: are there any offline APIs available to check for spelling mistakes, preferably in javascript or some database that I can use interact with myself. Or should a word list help here as well? use of consonants, vowels etc. A domain that is easy to pronounce (eg. Google) is usually much more valueable than one that is not (eg. Gkyld). Question 5: how does one test for such pronuncability? Do you check for consonants, vowels, etc.? What does a valueable domain have? Has there been any work in this field, where should I look? That is what I came up with, which leads me to my final two questions. Question 6: can you think of any more english .com domain strengths or weaknesses? Which? How would you implement these? Question 7: do you believe this idea has any merit or all, or am I too naive? Anything I should know, read or hear about? Suggestions/comments? Thanks!

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  • NHibernate: How is identity Id updated when saving a transient instance?

    - by bretddog
    If I use session-per-transaction and call: session.SaveOrUpdate(entity) corrected: session.SaveOrUpdateCopy(entity) ..and entity is a transient instance with identity-Id=0. Shall the above line automatically update the Id of the entity, and make the instance persistent? Or should it do so on transaction.Commit? Or do I have to somehow code that explicitly? Obviously the Id of the database row (new, since transient) is autogenerated and saved as some number, but I'm talking about the actual parameter instance here. Which is the business logic instance. EDIT Mappings: public class StoreMap : ClassMap<Store> { public StoreMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Name); HasMany(x => x.Staff) // 1:m .Cascade.All(); HasManyToMany(x => x.Products) // m:m .Cascade.All() .Table("StoreProduct"); } } public class EmployeeMap : ClassMap<Employee> { public EmployeeMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.FirstName); Map(x => x.LastName); References(x => x.Store); // m:1 } } public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(x => x.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(x => x.Name).Length(20); Map(x => x.Price).CustomSqlType("decimal").Precision(9).Scale(2); HasManyToMany(x => x.StoresStockedIn) .Cascade.All() .Inverse() .Table("StoreProduct"); } } EDIT2 Class definitions: public class Store { public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; set; } public IList<Product> Products { get; set; } public IList<Employee> Staff { get; set; } public Store() { Products = new List<Product>(); Staff = new List<Employee>(); } // AddProduct & AddEmployee is required. "NH needs you to set both sides before // it will save correctly" public void AddProduct(Product product) { product.StoresStockedIn.Add(this); Products.Add(product); } public void AddEmployee(Employee employee) { employee.Store = this; Staff.Add(employee); } } public class Employee { public int Id { get; private set; } public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public Store Store { get; set; } } public class Product { public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; set; } public decimal Price { get; set; } public IList<Store> StoresStockedIn { get; private set; } }

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  • How to reserve public API to internal usage in .NET?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. Let me first present the case, which will explain my question. This is going to be a bit long, so I apologize in advance :-). I have objects and collections, which should support the Merge API (it is my custom API, the signature of which is immaterial for this question). This API must be internal, meaning only my framework should be allowed to invoke it. However, derived types should be able to override the basic implementation. The natural way to implement this pattern as I see it, is this: The Merge API is declared as part of some internal interface, let us say IMergeable. Because the interface is internal, derived types would not be able to implement it directly. Rather they must inherit it from a common base type. So, a common base type is introduced, which would implement the IMergeable interface explicitly, where the interface methods delegate to respective protected virtual methods, providing the default implementation. This way the API is only callable by my framework, but derived types may override the default implementation. The following code snippet demonstrates the concept: internal interface IMergeable { void Merge(object obj); } public class BaseFrameworkObject : IMergeable { protected virtual void Merge(object obj) { // The default implementation. } void IMergeable.Merge(object obj) { Merge(obj); } } public class SomeThirdPartyObject : BaseFrameworkObject { protected override void Merge(object obj) { // A derived type implementation. } } All is fine, provided a single common base type suffices, which is usually true for non collection types. The thing is that collections must be mergeable as well. Collections do not play nicely with the presented concept, because developers do not develop collections from the scratch. There are predefined implementations - observable, filtered, compound, read-only, remove-only, ordered, god-knows-what, ... They may be developed from scratch in-house, but once finished, they serve wide range of products and should never be tailored to some specific product. Which means, that either: they do not implement the IMergeable interface at all, because it is internal to some product the scope of the IMergeable interface is raised to public and the API becomes open and callable by all. Let us refer to these collections as standard collections. Anyway, the first option screws my framework, because now each possible standard collection type has to be paired with the respective framework version, augmenting the standard with the IMergeable interface implementation - this is so bad, I am not even considering it. The second option breaks the framework as well, because the IMergeable interface should be internal for a reason (whatever it is) and now this interface has to open to all. So what to do? My solution is this. make IMergeable public API, but add an extra parameter to the Merge method, I call it a security token. The interface implementation may check that the token references some internal object, which is never exposed to the outside. If this is the case, then the method was called from within the framework, otherwise - some outside API consumer attempted to invoke it and so the implementation can blow up with a SecurityException. Here is the modified code snippet demonstrating this concept: internal static class InternalApi { internal static readonly object Token = new object(); } public interface IMergeable { void Merge(object obj, object token); } public class BaseFrameworkObject : IMergeable { protected virtual void Merge(object obj) { // The default implementation. } public void Merge(object obj, object token) { if (!object.ReferenceEquals(token, InternalApi.Token)) { throw new SecurityException("bla bla bla"); } Merge(obj); } } public class SomeThirdPartyObject : BaseFrameworkObject { protected override void Merge(object obj) { // A derived type implementation. } } Of course, this is less explicit than having an internally scoped interface and the check is moved from the compile time to run time, yet this is the best I could come up with. Now, I have a gut feeling that there is a better way to solve the problem I have presented. I do not know, may be using some standard Code Access Security features? I have only vague understanding of it, but can LinkDemand attribute be somehow related to it? Anyway, I would like to hear other opinions. Thanks.

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