Search Results

Search found 5554 results on 223 pages for 'attribute'.

Page 18/223 | < Previous Page | 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25  | Next Page >

  • get attribute value from html code in java

    - by sang
    Hi All i have HTML string value and i want to get one attribute(id) value from that html String value can u help me how to do it?? String msHTMLFile = "<ABBR class='HighlightClass' id='highlight40001' style=\"BACKGROUND-COLOR: yellow\" >Fetal/Neonatal Morbidity and Mortality</ABBR>"; result should come - highlight40001;

    Read the article

  • How to conditionally execute a jquery validation?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I am validating form using jquery validation plugin...... rules: { Name: "required", MobileNo: { required: true, minlength: 10, remote: '<%=Url.Action("getClientMobNo", "Clients") %>' }, Address: "required" }, messages: { Name: "please provide a client name", MobileNo: { required: "Please provide a mobile phone no", rangelength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters"), remote: jQuery.format("This MobileNo is already in use") }, Address: "please provide client address" }, This works pretty well on add form validation but i use the same form for edit here they can use the same mobile no,but my plugin validates that mobileno saying there is already a mobileno... But how to execute remote attribute based on a condition, MobileNo: { required: true, minlength: 10, if($("#HfId").val() == ""){ remote: '<%=Url.Action("getClientMobNo", "Clients") %>' } }, Is this a valid jquery conditional validation statement.... How to skip remote attribute based on a condition....

    Read the article

  • html button elemenents and onserverclick attribute in asp.net

    - by Adrian Adkison
    I have been experiencing some very strange behavior using html buttons with the onserverclick attribute. What I am trying to do is use jQuery to designate the default button on the page. By default button I mean the button that is "clicked" when a user hits enter. In testing, I would hit enter while in an input field and sometimes the intended "default" button was clicked and the server side method defined in the corresponding onserverclick attribute was hit. Other times a post back was made without hitting the server method. In order to isolate the issue I created a minimal test case and found some very interesting results. client side: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="_response" runat="server"></asp:Label> <input id="input1" type="text" /> <input id="input2" type="text" /> <button id="first" type="button" class="defaultBtn" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod1">test1</button> <button id="second" type="button" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod2">test2</button> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery('form input').keyup( function(e) { if ((e.which && e.which == 13) || (e.keyCode && e.keyCode == 13)) { $('button.defaultBtn').click(); return true; } } ); </script> </body> </html> server side: public partial class admin_spikes_ButtonSubmitTest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void ServerMethod1(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method1 was hit"; } protected void ServerMethod2(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method2 was hit"; } } What I found was that everything worked as expected with this code except when I removed one of the input elements. In Firefox 3.6 and IE 8 when only one input exists on the page, hitting enter does not trigger the onserverclick, it makes a post back without even being jQuery "clicked" or actually "clicked". You can test this by starting with two inputs and clicking "test2". This will output "server method2 was hit". Then just hit enter and the output will be "server method1 was hit. Now take away an input and run the same test. Click "test2" see the results, then hit enter and you will see that nothing will change because the "test1" method was never hit. Does anyone know what is going on? Thanks p.s. Chrome worked as expected

    Read the article

  • problem on my site [closed]

    - by ali
    Errors found while checking this document as XHTML How and from where repaired ,please help my hello, I have a problem on my site, was discovered by the program (A1 website analyzer) you can fix my site? Because I really do not know about the programming language, if it please email me and thank you please see this link it http://jigsaw.w3.org/css-validator/validator?uri=http://www.moneybillion.com/#errors Validation Output: 19 Errors Line 193, Column 261: there is no attribute "data-count" …ass="twitter-share-button" data-count="horizontal" data-via="elibeto1199"Twee…? You have used the attribute named above in your document, but the document type you are using does not support that attribute for this element. This error is often caused by incorrect use of the "Strict" document type with a document that uses frames (e.g. you must use the "Transitional" document type to get the "target" attribute), or by using vendor proprietary extensions such as "marginheight" (this is usually fixed by using CSS to achieve the desired effect instead). This error may also result if the element itself is not supported in the document type you are using, as an undefined element will have no supported attributes; in this case, see the element-undefined error message for further information. How to fix: check the spelling and case of the element and attribute, (Remember XHTML is all lower-case) and/or check that they are both allowed in the chosen document type, and/or use CSS instead of this attribute. If you received this error when using the element to incorporate flash media in a Web page, see the FAQ item on valid flash. Line 193, Column 283: there is no attribute "data-via" …ton" data-count="horizontal" data-via="elibeto1199"Tweet This error may also result if the element itself is not supported in the document type you are using, as an undefined element will have no supported attributes; in this case, see the element-undefined error message for further information. How to fix: check the spelling and case of the element and attribute, (Remember XHTML is all lower-case) and/or check that they are both allowed in the chosen document type, and/or use CSS instead of this attribute. If you received this error when using the element to incorporate flash media in a Web page, see the FAQ item on valid flash. Line 193, Column 393: required attribute "type" not specified …ript" src="//platform.twitter.com/widgets.js"var facebook = {? The attribute given above is required for an element that you've used, but you have omitted it. For instance, in most HTML and XHTML document types the "type" attribute is required on the "script" element and the "alt" attribute is required for the "img" element. Typical values for type are type="text/css" for and type="text/javascript" for . Line 194, Column 23: element "data:post.url" undefined url : "",? You have used the element named above in your document, but the document type you are using does not define an element of that name. This error is often caused by: incorrect use of the "Strict" document type with a document that uses frames (e.g. you must use the "Frameset" document type to get the "" element), by using vendor proprietary extensions such as "" or "" (this is usually fixed by using CSS to achieve the desired effect instead). by using upper-case tags in XHTML (in XHTML attributes and elements must be all lower-case). Line 197, Column 62: required attribute "type" not specified src="http://orkut-share.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/facebook.js"?

    Read the article

  • [Jquery Validation Plugin]How to conditionally execute a jquery validation?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I am validating form using jquery validation plugin...... rules: { Name: "required", MobileNo: { required: true, minlength: 10, remote: '<%=Url.Action("getClientMobNo", "Clients") %>' }, Address: "required" }, messages: { Name: "please provide a client name", MobileNo: { required: "Please provide a mobile phone no", rangelength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters"), remote: jQuery.format("This MobileNo is already in use") }, Address: "please provide client address" }, This works pretty well on add form validation but i use the same form for edit here they can use the same mobile no,but my plugin validates that mobileno saying there is already a mobileno... But how to execute remote attribute based on a condition, MobileNo: { required: true, minlength: 10, if($("#HfId").val() == ""){ remote: '<%=Url.Action("getClientMobNo", "Clients") %>' } }, Is this a valid jquery conditional validation statement.... How to skip remote attribute based on a condition....

    Read the article

  • client-side validation in custom validation attribute - asp.net mvc 4

    - by Giorgos Manoltzas
    I have followed some articles and tutorials over the internet in order to create a custom validation attribute that also supports client-side validation in an asp.net mvc 4 website. This is what i have until now: RequiredIfAttribute.cs [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true)] //Added public class RequiredIfAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private readonly string condition; private string propertyName; //Added public RequiredIfAttribute(string condition) { this.condition = condition; this.propertyName = propertyName; //Added } protected override ValidationResult IsValid(object value, ValidationContext validationContext) { PropertyInfo propertyInfo = validationContext.ObjectType.GetProperty(this.propertyName); //Added Delegate conditionFunction = CreateExpression(validationContext.ObjectType, _condition); bool conditionMet = (bool)conditionFunction.DynamicInvoke(validationContext.ObjectInstance); if (conditionMet) { if (value == null) { return new ValidationResult(FormatErrorMessage(null)); } } return ValidationResult.Success; } private Delegate CreateExpression(Type objectType, string expression) { LambdaExpression lambdaExpression = System.Linq.Dynamic.DynamicExpression.ParseLambda(objectType, typeof(bool), expression); //Added Delegate function = lambdaExpression.Compile(); return function; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var modelClientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule { ValidationType = "requiredif", ErrorMessage = ErrorMessage //Added }; modelClientValidationRule.ValidationParameters.Add("param", this.propertyName); //Added return new List<ModelClientValidationRule> { modelClientValidationRule }; } } Then i applied this attribute in a property of a class like this [RequiredIf("InAppPurchase == true", "InAppPurchase", ErrorMessage = "Please enter an in app purchase promotional price")] //Added "InAppPurchase" public string InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice { get; set; } public bool InAppPurchase { get; set; } So what i want to do is display an error message that field InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice is required when InAppPurchase field is true (that means checked in the form). The following is the relevant code form the view: <div class="control-group"> <label class="control-label" for="InAppPurchase">Does your app include In App Purchase?</label> <div class="controls"> @Html.CheckBoxFor(o => o.InAppPurchase) @Html.LabelFor(o => o.InAppPurchase, "Yes") </div> </div> <div class="control-group" id="InAppPurchasePromotionalPriceDiv" @(Model.InAppPurchase == true ? Html.Raw("style='display: block;'") : Html.Raw("style='display: none;'"))> <label class="control-label" for="InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice">App Friday Promotional Price for In App Purchase: </label> <div class="controls"> @Html.TextBoxFor(o => o.InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice, new { title = "This should be at the lowest price tier of free or $.99, just for your App Friday date." }) <span class="help-inline"> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(o => o.InAppPurchasePromotionalPrice) </span> </div> </div> This code works perfectly but when i submit the form a full post is requested on the server in order to display the message. So i created JavaScript code to enable client-side validation: requiredif.js (function ($) { $.validator.addMethod('requiredif', function (value, element, params) { /*var inAppPurchase = $('#InAppPurchase').is(':checked'); if (inAppPurchase) { return true; } return false;*/ var isChecked = $(param).is(':checked'); if (isChecked) { return false; } return true; }, ''); $.validator.unobtrusive.adapters.add('requiredif', ['param'], function (options) { options.rules["requiredif"] = '#' + options.params.param; options.messages['requiredif'] = options.message; }); })(jQuery); This is the proposed way in msdn and tutorials i have found Of course i have also inserted the needed scripts in the form: jquery.unobtrusive-ajax.min.js jquery.validate.min.js jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js requiredif.js BUT...client side validation still does not work. So could you please help me find what am i missing? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Override jQuery style value

    - by MrAwesome
    Hi To resolve a jQuery slideDown/Up problem, I had to change one line in the jQuery file. I changed line 5738 from this.elem.style.display = "block"; to this.elem.style.display = "inline-block"; The block attribute messed up my lists when using slideDown/Up/Toggle. slideDown changes my list from display:inline to display:block during execution, and then back to display: inline again. It would be much better if it was inline (or inline-block) all the way. Is there a way to override the value stated above from my html page, or do I have to stick with my modified jQuery file? It would be nice if I could override the style attribute only when I perform $('.gallery_container li:gt(4)').slideToggle(); Here's the code: http://90.230.237.71/gandhi.html

    Read the article

  • Problem with altering model attributes in controller

    - by SpawnCxy
    Hi all, Today I've got a problem when I tried using following code to alter the model attribute in the controller function userlist($trigger = 1) { if($trigger == 1) { $this->User->useTable = 'betausers'; //'betausers' is completely the same structure as table 'users' } $users = $this->User->find('all'); debug($users); } And the model file is class User extends AppModel { var $name = "User"; //var $useTable = 'betausers'; function beforeFind() //only for debug { debug($this->useTable); } } The debug message in the model showed the userTable attribute had been changed to betausers.And It was supposed to show all records in table betausers.However,I still got the data in the users,which quite confused me.And I hope someone can show me some directions to solve this problem. Regards

    Read the article

  • XML Serialization in C# without XML attribute nodes

    - by Alex Marshall
    Hello, I have an XML document format from a legacy system that I have to support in a future application. I want to be able to both serialize and deserialize the XML between XML and C# objects, however, using the objects generated by xsd.exe, the C# serialization includes the xmlns:xsi..., xsi:... etc XML attributes on the root element of the document that gets generated. Is there anyway to disable this so that absolutely no XML attribute nodes get put out in the resulting XML ? The XML document should be elements only. Duplicate? XmlSerializer: remove unnecessary xsi and xsd namespaces

    Read the article

  • Add an objective @property attribute in objective-c

    - by morticae
    Does anyone know of a way to add additional attribute types to the @property keyword without modifying the compiler? Or can anyone think of another way to genericize getter/setter creation? Basically, I have a lot of cases in a recent project where it's handy for objects to lazily instantiate their array properties. This is because we have "event" objects that can have a wide variety of collections as properties. Subclassing for particular events is undesirable because many properties are shared, and it would become a usability nightmare. For example, if I had an object with an array of songs, I'd write a getter like the following: - (NSMutableArray *)songs { if (!songs) { songs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; } return songs; } Rather than writing dozens of these getters, it would be really nice to get the behavior via... @property (nonatomic, retain, lazyGetter) NSMutableArray *songs; Maybe some fancy tricks via #defines or something? Other ideas?

    Read the article

  • Automapper: Map an Enum to its [Description] attribute

    - by Seth Petry-Johnson
    I have a source object that looks like this: private class SourceObject { public Enum1 EnumProp1 { get; set; } public Enum2 EnumProp2 { get; set; } } The enums are decorated with a custom [Description] attribute that provides a string representation, and I have an extension method .GetDescription() that returns it. How do I map these enum properties using that extension? I'm trying to map to an object like this: private class DestinationObject { public string Enum1Description { get; set; } public string Enum2Description { get; set; } } I think a custom formatter is my best bet, but I can't figure out how to add the formatter and specify which field to map from at the same time.

    Read the article

  • TextBoxFor rendering to HTML with prefix on the ID attribute

    - by msi
    I have an ASPNET MVC 2 project. When I use <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Login) %> the TexBoxFor will render as <input id="Login" name="Login" type="text" value="" /> Field in the model is [Required(ErrorMessage = "")] [DisplayName("Login")] public string Login { get; set; } Can I made id and name attribute with some prefix? Like <input id="prefixLogin" name="prefixLogin" type="text" value="" /> Thanks to all.

    Read the article

  • MVC Authorize Attribute + HttpUnauthorizedResult + FormsAuthentication

    - by Anthony
    After browsing the MVC section on CodePlex I noticed that the [Authorize] attribute in MVC returns a HttpUnauthorizedResult() when authorization fails (codeplex AuthorizeAttribute class). In the source of HttpUnauthorizedResult() from CodePlex is the code (I'm not allowed to enter another URL as my rep isn't high enough, but replace the numbers on the URL above with 22929#266476): // 401 is the HTTP status code for unauthorized access - setting this // will cause the active authentication module to execute its default // unauthorized handler context.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = 401; In particular, the comment describes the authentication module's default unauthorized handler. I can't seem to find any information on this default unauthorized handler. In particular, I'm not using FormsAuthentication and when authorization fails I get an ugly IIS 401 error page. Does anyone know about this default unauthorized handler, and in particular how FormsAuthentication hooks itself in to override it? I'm writing a really simple app for my football team who confirm or deny whether they can play a particular match. If I enable FormsAuthentication in the web.config the redirect works, but I'm not using FormsAuthentication and I'd like to know if there's a workaround.

    Read the article

  • Access Products/Category/Attribute Info from php with Magento API

    - by Jason
    Need to be able to pull Magento products into an external template. Need to be able to get all products data (description, title, attributes, categories, image, etc). And need to be able to filter by category, attribute and also search on name. These calls will be made from the same server that the Magento install is on. What's the best way to do this? Will be using php on both linux & windows (2 separate sites). Have tried using the Magento API & Soap to access from php but haven't been able to get that to work yet. All I get is this error every time. Fatal error: Uncaught SoapFault exception: [WSDL] SOAP-ERROR: Parsing WSDL: Couldn't load from 'http://mymagento.com/cart/index.php/api/?wsdl' : Extra content at the end of the document in.....

    Read the article

  • help me with asp.net mvc 2 custom validation attribute

    - by Omu
    I'm trying to write a validation attribute that is going to check that at least one of the specified properties is true [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class AtLeastOneTrueAttribute : ValidationAttribute { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "select at least one"; public AtLeastOneTrueAttribute(params string[] props) : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { this.props = props; } private readonly string[] props; public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return DefaultErrorMessage; } public override bool IsValid(object value) { var properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); return props.Any(p => (bool) properties.Find(p, true).GetValue(value)); } } now when I'm trying to use I can't really get specify the props after the fir , the intellisence shows me that I'm entering the ErrorMessage and only the first string is the params string[] props

    Read the article

  • Database design - alternatives for Entity Attribute Value (EAV)

    - by Bob
    Hi, see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/695752/product-table-many-kinds-of-product-each-product-has-many-parameters for similar topic. My question: i want to design a database, that will be used for a production facility of different types of products where each product has its own (number of) parameters. because i want the serial numbers to be in one tabel for overview purposes i have a problem with these different paraeters . One solution could be EAV, but it has its downsides, certainly because we have +- 5 products with every product +- 20.000 serial numbers (records). it looks a bit overkill to me... I just don't know how one could design a database so that you have an attribute in a mastertable that says: 'hey, you could find details of this record in THAT detail-table". 'in a way that you qould easely query the results) currenty i am using Visual Basic & Acces 2007. but i'm going to Visual Basic & MySQL. thanks for your help. Bob

    Read the article

  • Adding an attribute to a class by using properties editor

    - by Fred Yang
    Visual studio allows you to design component visually. For example, you are designing a windows form. You change its property in the properties editor. The IDE will generate the code in a partial class in xx.designer.cs file. We can customize this behavior by changing the UITypeEditor for the properties. The question now is , Can we extend this code generation behavior? for example, we change a setting in property window, and then the IDE will add an .net Attribute to the class? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Python: Inheritance of a class attribute (list)

    - by Sano98
    Hi everyone, inheriting a class attribute from a super class and later changing the value for the subclass works fine: class Unit(object): value = 10 class Archer(Unit): pass print Unit.value print Archer.value Archer.value = 5 print Unit.value print Archer.value leads to the output: 10 10 10 5 which is just fine: Archer inherits the value from Unit, but when I change Archer's value, Unit's value remains untouched. Now, if the inherited value is a list, the shallow copy effect strikes and the value of the superclass is also affected: class Unit(object): listvalue = [10] class Archer(Unit): pass print Unit.listvalue print Archer.listvalue Archer.listvalue[0] = 5 print Unit.listvalue print Archer.listvalue Output: 10 10 5 5 Is there a way to "deep copy" a list when inheriting it from the super class? Many thanks Sano

    Read the article

  • Html Attribute for Html.Dropdown

    - by kapil
    I am using a dropdown list as follows. <%=Html.DropDownList("ddl", ViewData["Available"] as SelectList, new { CssClass = "input-config", onchange = "this.form.submit();" })%> On its selection change I am invoking post action. After the post the same page is shown on which this drop down is present. I want to know about the HTML attribute for the drop down which will let me preserve the list selection change. But as of now the list shows its first element after the post. e.g. The dropdoen contains elements like 1,2,3,etc. By default 1 is selected. If I select 2, the post is invoked and the same page is shown again but my selection 2 goes and 1 is selected again. How can preserve the selection? Thanks, Kapil

    Read the article

  • parse Linq To Xml with attribute nodes

    - by Manoj
    I am having xml with following structure <ruleDefinition appId="3" customerId = "acf"> <node alias="element1" id="1" name="department"> <node alias="element2" id="101" name="mike" /> <node alias="element2" id="102" name="ricky" /> <node alias="element2" id="103" name="jim" /> </node> </ruleDefinition> Here nodes are differentiated using alias and not with node tag. As you can see top level node element1 has same node name "node" as element2. I want to parse this XML based on attribute alias. What should be the Linq-To-Xml code (using C#)to acheive this?

    Read the article

  • XML deserialization problem (attribute with a namespace)

    - by Johnny
    hi, I'm trying to deserialize the following XML node (RDF actually) into a class. <rdf:Description rdf:about="http://d.opencalais.com/genericHasher-1/dae360d4-25f1-34a7-9c70-d5f7e4cfe175"> <rdf:type rdf:resource="http://s.opencalais.com/1/type/em/e/Country"/> <c:name>Egypt</c:name> </rdf:Description> [Serializable] [XmlRoot(Namespace = "http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#", ElementName = "Description")] public class BasicEntity { [XmlElement(Namespace = "http://s.opencalais.com/1/pred/", ElementName = "name")] public string Name { get; set; } [XmlAttribute("about", Namespace = "http://www.w3.org/1999/02/22-rdf-syntax-ns#")] public string Uri { get; set; } } The name element is parsed correctly but the about attribute isn't. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25  | Next Page >