Search Results

Search found 650 results on 26 pages for 'caller'.

Page 18/26 | < Previous Page | 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25  | Next Page >

  • Best practices to develop and maintaing code for complex JQuery/JQueryUI based applications

    - by dafi
    I'm working on my first very complex JQuery based application. A single web page can contain hundreds of JQuery related code for example to JQueryUI dialogs. Now I want to organize code in separated files. For example I'm moving all initialization dialogs code $("#dialog-xxx").dialog({...}) in separated files and due to reuse I wrap them on single function call like dialogs.js function initDialog_1() { $("#dialog-1").dialog({}); } function initDialog_2() { $("#dialog-2").dialog({}); } This simplifies function code and make caller page clear $(function() { // do some init stuff initDialog_1(); initTooltip_2(); }); Is this the correct pattern? Are you using more efficient techniques? I know that splitting code in many js files introduces an ugly band-bandwidth usage so. Does exist some good practice or tool to 'join' files for production environments? I imagine some tool that does more work than simply minimize and/or compress JS code.

    Read the article

  • How do I securely authenticate the calling assembly of a WCF service method?

    - by Tim
    The current situation is as follows: We have an production .net 3.5 WCF service, used by several applications throughout the organization, over wsHttpBinding or netTcpBinding. User authentication is being done on the Transport level, using Windows integrated security. This service has a method Foo(string parameter), which can only be called by members of given AD groups. The string parameter is obligatory. A new client application has come into play (.net 3.5, C# console app), which eliminates the necessity of the string parameter. However, only calls from this particular application should be allowed to omit the string parameter. The identity of the caller of the client application should still be known by the server because the AD group limitation still applies (ruling out impersonation on the client side). I found a way to pass on the "evidence" of the calling (strong-named) assembly in the message headers, but this method is clearly not secure because the "evidence" can easily be spoofed. Also, CAS (code access security) seems like a possible solution, but I can't seem to figure out how to make use of CAS in this particular scenario. Does anyone have a suggestion on how to solve this issue? Edit: I found another thread on this subject; apparently the conclusion there is that it is simply impossible to implement in a secure fashion.

    Read the article

  • RFC regarding WAM

    - by Noctis Skytower
    Request For Comment regarding Whitespace's Assembly Mnemonics What follows in a first generation attempt at creating mnemonics for a whitespace assembly language. STACK ===== push number copy copy number swap away away number MATH ==== add sub mul div mod HEAP ==== set get FLOW ==== part label call label goto label zero label less label back exit I/O === ochr oint ichr iint In the interest of making improvements to this small and simple instruction set, this is a second attempt. hold N Push the number onto the stack copy Duplicate the top item on the stack copy N Copy the nth item on the stack (given by the argument) onto the top of the stack swap Swap the top two items on the stack drop Discard the top item on the stack drop N Slide n items off the stack, keeping the top item add Addition sub Subtraction mul Multiplication div Integer Division mod Modulo save Store load Retrieve L: Mark a location in the program call L Call a subroutine goto L Jump unconditionally to a label if=0 L Jump to a label if the top of the stack is zero if<0 L Jump to a label if the top of the stack is negative return End a subroutine and transfer control back to the caller exit End the program print chr Output the character at the top of the stack print int Output the number at the top of the stack input chr Read a character and place it in the location given by the top of the stack input int Read a number and place it in the location given by the top of the stack What do you think of the following revised list for Whitespace's assembly instructions? I'm still thinking outside of the box somewhat and trying to come up with a better mnemonic set than last time. When the previous interpreter was written, it was completed over two contiguous, rushed evenings. This rewrite deserves significantly more time now that it is the summer. Of course, the next version of Whitespace (0.4) may have its instructions revised even more, but this is just a redesign of what originally was done in a very short amount of time. Hopefully, the instructions make more sense once someone new to programmings thinks about them.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C memory model

    - by TofuBeer
    I am attempting to wrap my head around one part of the Objective-C memory model (specifically on the iPhone, so no GC). My background is C/C++/Java, and I am having an issue with the following bit of code (also wondering if I am doing this in an "Objective-C way" or not): - (NSSet *) retrieve { NSMutableSet *set; set = [NSMutableSet new]; // would normally fill the set in here with some data return ([set autorelease]); } - (void) test { NSSet *setA; NSSet *setB; setA = [self retrieve]; setB = [[self retrieve] retain]; [setA release]; [setB release]; } start EDIT Based on comments below, the updated retrieve method: - (NSSet *) retrieve { NSMutableSet *set; set = [[[NSMutableSet alloc] initWithCapacity:100] autorelease]; // would normally fill the set in here with some data return (set); } end EDIT The above code gives a warning for [setA release] "Incorrect decrement of the reference count of an object is not owned at this point by the caller". I though that the "new" set the reference count to 1. Then the "retain" call would add 1, and the "release" call would drop it by 1. Given that wouldn't setA have a reference count of 0 at the end and setB have a reference count of 1 at the end? From what I have figured out by trial and error, setB is correct, and there is no memory leak, but I'd like to understand why that is the case (what is wrong with my understanding of "new", "autorelease", "retain", and "release").

    Read the article

  • Unit testing JSON output module, best practices

    - by Banang
    I am currently working on a module that takes one of our business objects and returns a json representation of that object to the caller. Due to limitations in our environment I am unable to use any existing json writer, so I have written my own, which is then used by the business object writer to serialize my objects. The json writer is tested in a way similar to this @Test public void writeEmptyArrayTest() { String expected = "[ ]"; writer.array().endArray(); assertEquals(expected, writer.toString()); } which is only manageable because of the small output each instruction produces, even though I keep feeling there must be a better way. The problem I am now facing is writing tests for the object writer module, where the output is much larger and much less manageable. The risk of spelling mistakes in the expected strings mucking up my tests seem too great, and writing code in this fashion seems both silly and unmanageable in a long term perspective. I keep feeling like I want to write tests to ensure that my tests are behaving correctly, and this feeling worries me. Therefore, is there a better way of doing this? Surely there must be? Does anyone know of any good literature in regard to this specific case (doesn't have to be json, but you know what I mean)? Grateful for all help.

    Read the article

  • How to save a picture to a file?

    - by Peter vdL
    I'm trying to use a standard Intent that will take a picture, then allow approval or retake. Then I want to save the picture into a file. Here's the Intent I am using: Intent intent = new Intent(android.provider.MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE ); startActivityForResult( intent, 22 ); The docs at http://developer.android.com/reference/android/provider/MediaStore.html#ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE say "The caller may pass an extra EXTRA_OUTPUT to control where this image will be written. If the EXTRA_OUTPUT is not present, then a small sized image is returned as a Bitmap object in the extra field. If the EXTRA_OUTPUT is present, then the full-sized image will be written to the Uri value of EXTRA_OUTPUT." I don't pass extra output, I hope to get a Bitmap object in the extra field of the Intent passed into onActivityResult() (for this request). So where/how do you extract it? Intent has a getExtras(), but that returns a Bundle, and Bundle wants a key string to give you something back. What do you invoke on the Intent to extract the bitmap?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to update an unattached entity on Entity Framework?

    - by Carlos Loth
    Hi, In my project I have some data classes to retrieve data from the database using the Entity Framework. We called these classes *EntityName*Manager. All of them have a method to retrieve entities from database and they behave most like this: static public EntityA SelectByName(String name) { using (var context = new ApplicationContext()) { var query = from a in context.EntityASet where a.Name == name select a; try { var entityA = query.First(); context.Detach(entityA); return entityA; } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { throw new DataLayerException( String.Format("The entityA whose name is '{0}' was not found.", name), ex); } } } You can see that I detach the entity before return it to the method caller. So, my question is "what is the best way to create an update method on my *EntityA*Manager class?" I'd like to pass the modified entity as a parameter of the method. But I haven't figured out a way of doing it without going to the database and reload the entity and update its values inside a new context. Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Carlos Loth.

    Read the article

  • In Perl, how can a subroutine get a coderef that points to itself?

    - by hillu
    For learning purposes, I am toying around with the idea of building event-driven programs in Perl and noticed that it might be nice if a subroutine that was registered as an event handler could, on failure, just schedule another call to itself for a later time. So far, I have come up with something like this: my $cb; my $try = 3; $cb = sub { my $rc = do_stuff(); if (!$rc && --$try) { schedule_event($cb, 10); # schedule $cb to be called in 10 seconds } else { do_other_stuff; } }; schedule_event($cb, 0); # schedule initial call to $cb to be performed ASAP Is there a way that code inside the sub can access the coderef to that sub so I could do without using an extra variable? I'd like to schedule the initial call like this. schedule_event( sub { ... }, 0); I first thought of using caller(0)[3], but this only gives me a function name, (__ANON__ if there's no name), not a code reference that has a pad attached to it.

    Read the article

  • Why does jQuery.ajax() add a parameter to the url?

    - by FK82
    Hi, I have a data fetching method that uses jQuery.ajax() to fetch xml files. /* */data: function() { /* debug */try { var url = arguments[0] ; var type = arguments[1] ; var scope = arguments[2] ; var callback = arguments[3] ; var self = this ; if(this.cache[url]) { callback(this.cache[url]) ; } else if(!this.cache[url]) { $.ajax({ type: "GET" , url: url , dataType: type , cache: false , success: function(data) { if(type == "text/xml") { var myJson = AUX.json ; var jsonString = myJson.build(data,scope,null) ; var jsonObject = $.parseJSON(jsonString) ; self.cache[url] = jsonObject ; callback(url) ; } else if(type == "json") { self.cache[url] = data ; callback(url) ; } } , error: function() { throw "Ajax call failed." ; } }) ; } /* debug */} catch(e) { /* debug */ alert("- caller: signTutor.data\n- " + e) ; /* debug */} } , My problem is: jQuery somehow adds a parameter (?_=1272708280072) to the url if there are escaped (hexadecimal notation) or unescaped utf-8 characters outside of the ASCII range -- i believe -- in the file name. It all works well if the file name does not contain characters in that range. Type is set to xml so there should not be a confusion of types. Headers of the xml files are also set adequately. I can see from the console that jQuery throws an error, but I'm not sure as to where the problem really is. Probably a problem with file name formatting, but I did not find any resources on the web as to AJAX file name specifications. Any ideas? Thanks for you help!

    Read the article

  • How to run an external SWF inside a Flex Application?

    - by lk
    I want to run an Action Script 3.0 Application into a Flex Application. To do this I've done the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:WindowedApplication windowComplete="loadSwfApplication()" xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private function loadSwfApplication() { var urlRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("path/to/the/application.swf"); swfLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, loadComplete); swfLoader.load(urlRequest); } private function loadComplete(completeEvent:Event) { var swfApplication:* = completeEvent.target.content; swfApplication.init(); // this is a Function that I made it in the Root class of swfApplication } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:SWFLoader id="sfwLoader"/> </mx:WindowedApplication> The problem is that in the calling of swfApplication.init(); the AIR Player throws me an exception: Security sandbox violation: caller file:///path/to/the/application.swf cannot access Stage owned by app:/SWFApplicationLoader.swf. This is because somewhere in application.swf I use the stage like this: if (root.stage != null) root.stage.addEventListener(Event.REMOVED, someFunction); root.stage.stageFocusRect = false; How can I load this swf application and USE the stage without any problems?

    Read the article

  • process of connecting RTP with SIP via SDP & land lines

    - by TacB0sS
    Hello to everyone, I have a problem with starting a media session and to combine it with my SIP client. I've designed a recursive SIP client that reuse the same request template to send the next requests to server, according to the acceptable sequences noted in the RFC's, and examples that I read. as far as I could tell the SIP part is working fine registers to server invites, and authenticates. I didn't complete any calls to clients yet because of the content header needs to be filled up (which I didn't yet so I get a 503 from the server which is OK I guess). for a long time I didn't know where to start with the media session, and slowly learned how to use the JMF and I've constructed an object that handles RTP transmitting, now I'm standing at the cross road, on the one hand I have my SIP signaling but it needs the SDP content header to complete the invite, and on the other I have the RTP which is knows how to p2p. For me to complete my design I require your help with the following questions: Is there an easy//a simple//an implemented way to convert the Audio/Video format from the JMF into SDP media headers? or even a generator that I would input all the parameters for the content header, and it would generate a content header fast, or do I have to implement this myself? Once I've finished constructing the SDK and the SIP is up and running and I get an OK response from the server (after ringing and all), how do I start the media session? do I connect p2p according to caller details I send in the SIP invite? If 2 is correct, then how does a connection to land lines would be? does land lines knows that once they send an OK back to server they listen/start RTP session on a specific port? Or did I get everything wrong? :-/ I really appreciate any help I could I get, I looked every where for answers but they are not clear, they ignore question 2 as if it was an obvious thing, but for me it just isn't. Thank in advance, Adam Zehavi.

    Read the article

  • Need AngularJS grid resizing directive to resize "thumbnail" that contains no image

    - by thebravedave
    UPDATE Plunker to project: http://plnkr.co/edit/oKB96szQhqwpKQbOGUDw?p=preview I have an AngularJS project that uses AngularJS Bootstrap grids. I need all of the grid elements to have the same size so they stack properly. I created an angularJs directive that auto resizes the grid element when placed in said grid element. I have 2 directives that do this for me Directive 1: onload Directive 2: imageonload Directive 2 works. If the grid element uses an image, after the image loads then the directive triggers an event that sends the grid elements height to all other grid elements. If that height sent out via the event is greater than that of the grid element which is listening to the event then that listening grid element changes it's height to be the greater height. This way the largest height becomes the height for all the grid elements. Directive 1 does not work. This one is placed on the outer most grid elements html element, and is triggered when the element loads. The problem is that when the element loads and the onload directive is called AngularJS has not yet filled out the data in said grid element. The outcome is that the real height after AngularJS data binds is not broadcast as an event. My only solution I have thought of (but haven't tried) is to add an image url to an image that exists but doesn't have any data in it, and place that in the grid element (the one that didn't have any images before placing the blank one in). I could then call imageonload instead of onload and I pretty sure the angularjs data binding will have taken place by then. the problem is that that is pretty hacky. I would rather be able to have not an image in the grid element, and be able to call my custom onload directive and have the onload directive calculate the height AFTER angularJS data binds to all of the data binding variables in the grid element. Here is my imageonload directive .directive('imageonload', function($rootScope) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function(scope, element, attrs) { scope.heightArray = []; scope.largestHeight = 50; element.bind('load', function() { broadcastThumbnailHeight(); }); scope.$on('imageOnLoadEvent', function(caller, value){ var el = angular.element(element); var id = el.prop('id'); var pageName = el.prop('title'); if(pageName == value[0]){ if(scope.largestHeight < value[1]){ scope.largestHeight = value[1]; var nestedString = el.prop('alt'); if(nestedString == "") nestedString = "1"; var nested = parseInt(nestedString); nested = nested - 1; var inte = 0; var thumbnail = el["0"]; var finalThumbnailContainer = thumbnail.parentElement; while(inte != nested){ finalThumbnailContainer = finalThumbnailContainer.parentElement; inte++; } var innerEl = angular.element(finalThumbnailContainer); var height = value[1]; innerEl.height(height); } } }); scope.$on('findHeightAndBroadcast', function(){ broadcastThumbnailHeight(); }); scope.$on('resetThumbnailHeight', function(){ scope.largestHeight = 50; }); function broadcastThumbnailHeight(){ var el = angular.element(element); var id = el.prop('id'); var alt = el.prop('alt'); if(alt == "") alt = "1"; var nested = parseInt(alt); nested = nested - 1; var pageName = el.prop('title'); var inte = 1; var thumbnail = el["0"]; var finalThumbnail = thumbnail.parentElement; while(inte != nested){ finalThumbnail = finalThumbnail.parentElement; inte++; } var elZero = el["0"]; var clientHeight = finalThumbnail.clientHeight; var arr = []; arr[0] = pageName; arr[1] = clientHeight; $rootScope.$broadcast('imageOnLoadEvent', arr); } } }; }) And here is my onload directive .directive('onload', function($rootScope) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function(scope, element, attrs) { scope.largestHeight=100; getHeightAndBroadcast(); scope.$on('onLoadEvent', function(caller, value){ var el = angular.element(element); var id = el.prop('id'); var pageName = el.prop('title'); if(pageName == value[0]){ if(scope.largestHeight < value[1]){ scope.largestHeight = value[1]; var height = value[1]; el.height(height); } } }); function getHeightAndBroadcast(){ var el = angular.element(element); var h = el["0"].children; var thumbnailHeightElement = angular.element(h); var pageName = el.prop("title"); var clientHeight = thumbnailHeightElement["0"].clientHeight; var arr = []; arr[0] = pageName; arr[1] = clientHeight; if(clientHeight != undefined) $rootScope.$broadcast('onLoadEvent', arr); } } }; }) Here is an example of one of my grid elements that uses imageonload. Note the imageonload directive in the image html element. This works. There is also an onload directive on the outer most html of the grid element. That does not work. I have stepped through this carefully in Firebug and saw that the onload was calculating the height before AngularJS data binding was complete. <div class="thumbnail col-md-3" id="{{product.id}}" title="thumbnailAdminProductsGrid" onload> <div class="row"> <div class="containerz"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="col-md-2"></div> <div class="col-md-7"> <div class="textcenterinline"> <!--tag--><img class="img-responsive" id="{{product.id}}" title="imageAdminProductsGrid" alt=6 ng-src="{{product.baseImage}}" imageonload/><!--end tag--> </div> </div> </div> <div class="caption"> <div class="testing"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="col-md-12"> <h3 class=""> <!--tag--><a href="javascript:void(0);" ng-click="loadProductView('{{product.id}}')">{{product.name}}</a><!--end tag--> </h3> </div> </div> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="col-md-12"> <p class="lead"><!--tag--> {{product.price}}</p><!--end tag--> </div> </div> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="col-md-12"> <p><!--tag-->{{product.inStock}} units available<!--end tag--></p> </div> </div> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="col-md-12"> <p class=""><!--tag-->{{product.generalDescription}}<!--end tag--></p> </div> </div> <!--tag--> <div data-ng-if="product.specialized=='true'"> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="col-md-12" ng-repeat="varCat in product.varietyCategoriesAndOptions"> <b><h4>{{varCat.varietyCategoryName}}</h4></b> <select ng-model="varCat.varietyCategoryOption" ng-options="value.varietyCategoryOptionId as value.varietyCategoryOptionValue for (key,value) in varCat.varietyCategoryOptions"> </select> </div> </div> </div> <!--end tag--> <div class="row-fluid"> <div class="col-md-12"> <!--tag--><div ng-if="product.weight==0"><b>Free Shipping</b></div><!--end tag--> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> Here is an example of one of the html for one of my grid elements that only uses the "onload" directive and not "imageonload" <div class="thumbnail col-md-3" title="thumbnailCouponGrid" onload> <div class="innnerContainer"> <div class="text-center"> {{coupon.name}} <br /> <br /> <b>Description</b> <br /> {{coupon.description}} <br /> <br /> <button class="btn btn-large btn-primary" ng-click="goToCoupon()">View Coupon Details</button> </div> </div> The imageonload function might look a little confusing because I use the img html attribute "alt" to signal to the directive how many levels the imageonload is placed below the outermost html for the grid element. We have to have this so the directive knows which html element to set the new height on. also I use the "title" attribute to set which grid this grid resizing is for (that way you can use the directive multiple times on the same page for different grids and not have the events for the wrong grid triggered). Does anyone know how I can get the "onload" directive to get called AFTER angularJS binds to the grid element? Just for completeness here are 2 images (almost looks like just 1), the second is a grid that contains grid elements that have images and use the "imageonload" directive and the first is a grid that contains grid elements that do not use images and only uses the "onload" directive.

    Read the article

  • Is an "infinite" iterator bad design?

    - by Adamski
    Is it generally considered bad practice to provide Iterator implementations that are "infinite"; i.e. where calls to hasNext() always(*) return true? Typically I'd say "yes" because the calling code could behave erratically, but in the below implementation hasNext() will return true unless the caller removes all elements from the List that the iterator was initialised with; i.e. there is a termination condition. Do you think this is a legitimate use of Iterator? It doesn't seem to violate the contract although I suppose one could argue it's unintuitive. public class CyclicIterator<T> implements Iterator<T> { private final List<T> l; private Iterator it; public CyclicIterator<T>(List<T> l) { this.l = l; this.it = l.iterator(); } public boolean hasNext() { return !l.isEmpty(); } public T next() { T ret; if (!hasNext()) { throw new NoSuchElementException(); } else if (it.hasNext()) { ret = it.next(); } else { it = l.iterator(); ret = it.next(); } return ret; } public void remove() { it.remove(); } }

    Read the article

  • PHP get "Application Root" in Xampp on Windows correctly

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I found this thread on StackOverflow about how to get the "Application Root" from inside my web app. However, most of the approaches suggested in that thread can hardly be applied to my Xampp on Windows. Say, I've got a "common.php" which stays inside my web app's app directory: / /app/common.php /protected/index.php In my common.php, what I've got is like this: define('DOCROOT', $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']); define('ABSPATH', dirname(__FILE__)); define('COMMONSCRIPT', $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']); After I required the common.php inside the /protected/index.php, I found this: C:/xampp/htdocs //<== echo DOCROOT; C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app //<== echo ABSPATH /comic/protected/index.php //<== echo COMMONSCRIPT So the most troublesome part is the path delimiters are not universal, plus, it seems all superglobals from the $_SERVER[] asso array, such as $_SERVER['PHP_SELF'], are relative to the "caller" script, not the "callee" script. It seems that I can only rely on dirname(__FILE__) to make sure this always returns an absolute path to the common.php file. I can certainly parse the returning values from DOCROOT and ABSPATH and then calculate the correct "application root". For instance, I can compare the parts after htdocs and substitute all backslashes with slashes to get a unix-like path I wonder is this the right way to handle this? What if I deploy my web app on a LAMP environment? would this environment-dependent approach bomb me out? I have used some PHP frameworks such as CakePHP and CodeIgniter, to be frank, They just work on either LAMP or WAMP, but I am not sure how they approached such a elegant solution. Many thanks in advance for all the hints and suggestions.

    Read the article

  • exception message getting lost in IIOP between glassfish domains

    - by Michael Borgwardt
    I'm running two glassfish v2 domains containing stateless session EJBs. In a few cases, an EJB in one domain has to call one in the other. My problem is that when the called EJB aborts with an exception, the caller does not receive the message of the exception and instead reports an internal error that is not helpful at all in diagnosing the problem. What happens seems to be this: At the transport layer, a org.omg.CORBA.portable.ApplicationException is created,which already loses all detail information about the exception except its class. Inside com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.TopCoordinator.get_txcontext(), the status of the transaction ass rolled back causes a org.omg.CosTransactions.Unavailable to be thrown, which gets wrapped and passed around a few times and eventually results into this error being displayed to the user: org.omg.CORBA.INVALID_TRANSACTION: vmcid: 0x0 minor code: 0 completed: No at com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.CurrentTransaction.sendingRequest(CurrentTransaction.java:807) at com.sun.jts.CosTransactions.SenderReceiver.sending_request(SenderReceiver.java:139) at com.sun.jts.pi.InterceptorImpl.send_request(InterceptorImpl.java:344) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.interceptors.InterceptorInvoker.invokeClientInterceptorStartingPoint(InterceptorInvoker.java:271) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.interceptors.PIHandlerImpl.invokeClientPIStartingPoint(PIHandlerImpl.java:348) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.beginRequest(CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.java:284) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.request(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:184) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.StubInvocationHandlerImpl.privateInvoke(StubInvocationHandlerImpl.java:186) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.StubInvocationHandlerImpl.invoke(StubInvocationHandlerImpl.java:152) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.presentation.rmi.bcel.BCELStubBase.invoke(BCELStubBase.java:225) Is there anything I can do here to preserve information about the actual cause of the problem?

    Read the article

  • Unexpected Event Behavior When Using VB6 with COM Interop (C#)

    - by Randal
    We are using a COM Interop (C#) to allow for a VB6 application to send data to a server. Once the server receives the data, the managed code will raise a DataSent event. This event is only fired after a correlation ID is returned to the original caller. About 1% of the time, we've encountered VB6 executing the raised event before finishing the function that originally sent the data. Using the following code: ' InteropTester.COMEvents is the C# object ' Dim WithEvents m_ManagedData as InteropTester.COMEvents Private Sub send_data() Set m_ManagedData = new COMEvents Dim id as Integer ' send 5 to using the managed interop object ' id = m_ManagedData.SendData(5) LogData "ID " & id & " was returned" m_correlationIds.Add id End Sub Private Sub m_ManagedData_DataSent(ByVal sender as Variant, ByVal id as Integer) LogData "Data was successfully sent to C#" ' check if the returned ID is in the m_correlationIds collection goes here' End Sub We can verify that the id is returned with a value when we call m_ManagedData.SendData(5), but the logs then show that the m_ManagedData_DataSent is occasionally called before send_data ends. How is possible for VB6 to access the Message Loop to know that the DataSent event was raised before exiting send_data()? We are not calling DoEvents and everything within VB6 is synchronous. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Multi-statement UDF - way to store data temporarily required

    - by Kharlos Dominguez
    Hello, I have a relatively complex query, with several self joins, which works on a rather large table. For that query to perform faster, I thus need to only work with a subset of the data. Said subset of data can range between 12 000 and 120 000 rows depending on the parameters passed. More details can be found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3054843/sql-server-cte-referred-in-self-joins-slow As you can see, I was using a CTE to return the data subset before, which caused some performance problems as SQL Server was re-running the Select statement in the CTE for every join instead of simply being run once and reusing its data set. The alternative, using temporary tables worked much faster (while testing the query in a separate window outside the UDF body). However, when I tried to implement this in a multi-statement UDF, I was harshly reminded by SQL Server that multi-statement UDFs do not support temporary tables for some reason... UDFs do allow table variables however, so I tried that, but the performance is absolutely horrible as it takes 1m40 for my query to complete whereas the the CTE version only took 40minutes. I believe the table variables is slow for reasons listed in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1643687/table-variable-poor-performance-on-insert-in-sql-server-stored-procedure Temporary table version takes around 1 seconds, but I can't make it into a function due to the SQL Server restrictions, and I have to return a table back to the caller. Considering that CTE and table variables are both too slow, and that temporary tables are rejected in UDFs, What are my options in order for my UDF to perform quickly? Thanks a lot in advance.

    Read the article

  • PHP4: Send XML over HTTPS/POST via cURL?

    - by starmonkey
    I wrote a class/function to send xml over https via PHP4/cURL, just wondering if this is the correct approach, or if there's a better one. Note that PHP5 is not an option at present. /** * Send XML via http(s) post * * curl --header "Content-Type: text/xml" --data "<?xml version="1.0"?>...." http://www.foo.com/ * */ function sendXmlOverPost($url, $xml) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); // For xml, change the content-type. curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, Array("Content-Type: text/xml")); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $xml); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // ask for results to be returned if(CurlHelper::checkHttpsURL($url)) { curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, 0); } // Send to remote and return data to caller. $result = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); return $result; } cheers!

    Read the article

  • Exposing a .Net Service

    - by Dave
    I have written a Windows Service in .Net and I want to expose the classes to be called by other .Net code. Specifically, I have an API that I want to expose via a DLL that will be placed in the GAC, and I want the DLL in the GAC to use the classes of the .Net Windows Service. I need this architecture as the code in the Windows Service needs to be run as a different user/account as the caller of the API (the account would be created at install time). My plan was to expose the Windows Service classes via COM (regasm.exe to register and tlbexp.exe to create the type library), and then call the classes in the GAC DLL via COM (imported via tlbimp.exe). However I get the following error from tlbimp: TlbImp : error TI0000 : System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException - Type library '' was exported from a CLR assembly and cannot be re- imported as a CLR assembly. This implies to me that my method is not going to easily work. I can only think that I might need a C++ DLL as a bridge for my GAC DLL to invoke the COM calls, but this seems like a nasty solution. I am basically looking for suggestions. Does anyone know how to expose classes of a Windows Service written in .Net to other .Net code?

    Read the article

  • Accessing type members outside the class in Scala

    - by Pekka Mattila
    Hi, I am trying to understand type members in Scala. I wrote a simple example that tries to explain my question. First, I created two classes for types: class BaseclassForTypes class OwnType extends BaseclassForTypes Then, I defined an abstract type member in trait and then defined the type member in a concerete class: trait ScalaTypesTest { type T <: BaseclassForTypes def returnType: T } class ScalaTypesTestImpl extends ScalaTypesTest { type T = OwnType override def returnType: T = { new T } } Then, I want to access the type member (yes, the type is not needed here, but this explains my question). Both examples work. Solution 1. Declaring the type, but the problem here is that it does not use the type member and the type information is duplicated (caller and callee). val typeTest = new ScalaTypesTestImpl val typeObject:OwnType = typeTest.returnType // declare the type second time here true must beTrue Solution 2. Initializing the class and using the type through the object. I don't like this, since the class needs to be initialized val typeTest = new ScalaTypesTestImpl val typeObject:typeTest.T = typeTest.returnType // through an instance true must beTrue So, is there a better way of doing this or are type members meant to be used only with the internal implementation of a class?

    Read the article

  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

    Read the article

  • Nested factory methods in Objective-C

    - by StephenT
    What's the best way to handle memory management with nested factory methods, such as in the following example? @implementation MyClass + (MyClass *) SpecialCase1 { return [MyClass myClassWithArg:1]; } + (MyClass *) SpecialCase2 { return [MyClass myClassWithArg:2]; } + (MyClass *) myClassWithArg:(int)arg { MyClass *instance = [[[MyClass alloc] initWithArg:arg] autorelease]; return instance; } - (id) initWithArg:(int)arg { self = [super init]; if (nil != self) { self.arg = arg; } return self; } @end The problem here (I think) is that the autorelease pool is flushed before the SpecialCaseN methods return to their callers. Hence, the ultimate caller of SpecialCaseN can't rely on the result having been retained. (I get "[MyClass copyWithZone:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x100110250" on trying to assign the result of [MyClass SpecialCase1] to a property on another object.) The reason for wanting the SpecialCaseN factory methods is that in my actual project, there are multiple parameters required to initialize the instance and I have a pre-defined list of "model" instances that I'd like to be able to create easily. I'm sure there's a better approach than this.

    Read the article

  • Use of var keyword in C#

    - by kronoz
    After discussion with colleagues regarding the use of the 'var' keyword in C# 3 I wondered what people's opinions were on the appropriate uses of type inference via var? For example I rather lazily used var in questionable circumstances, e.g.:- foreach(var item in someList) { // ... } // Type of 'item' not clear. var something = someObject.SomeProperty; // Type of 'something' not clear. var something = someMethod(); // Type of 'something' not clear. More legitimate uses of var are as follows:- var l = new List<string>(); // Obvious what l will be. var s = new SomeClass(); // Obvious what s will be. Interestingly LINQ seems to be a bit of a grey area, e.g.:- var results = from r in dataContext.SomeTable select r; // Not *entirely clear* what results will be here. It's clear what results will be in that it will be a type which implements IEnumerable, however it isn't entirely obvious in the same way a var declaring a new object is. It's even worse when it comes to LINQ to objects, e.g.:- var results = from item in someList where item != 3 select item; This is no better than the equivilent foreach(var item in someList) { // ... } equivilent. There is a real concern about type safety here - for example if we were to place the results of that query into an overloaded method that accepted IEnumerable<int> and IEnumerable<double> the caller might inadvertently pass in the wrong type. Edit - var does maintain strong typing but the question is really whether it's dangerous for the type to not be immediately apparent on definition, something which is magnified when overloads mean compiler errors might not be issued when you unintentionally pass the wrong type to a method. Related Question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/633474/c-do-you-use-var

    Read the article

  • Changing the system time zone succeeds once and then no longer changes

    - by Adam Driscoll
    I'm using the WinAPI to set the time zone on a Windows XP SP3 box. I'm reading the time zone information from the HKLM\Software\Microsoft\WindowsNT\Time Zones\<time zone name> key and then setting the time zone to the specified time zone. I enumerate the keys under the Time Zones key, grab the TZI value and stuff it into a TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct to be passed to SetTimeZoneInformation. All seems to work on the first pass. The time zone changes, no error is returned. The second time I perform this operation (same user, new session, on login before userinit) the call succeeds but the system does not reflect the time zone change. Neither the clock nor time stamps on files are updated to the new time zone. When I navigate to: HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Control\TimeZoneInformation my new time zone information is present. A couple strange things are happening when I'm setting my time zone: Also when I parse the TZI binary value from the registry to store in my TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct I'm noticing the struct has the DaylightDate.wDay and StandardDate.wDay field always set to 0 I tried to call GetTimeZoneInformation right after I call SetTimeZoneInformation but the call fails with a 1300 error (Not all privileges or groups referenced are assigned to the caller. ) I'm also making sure to send a WM_BROADCAST message so Explorer knows whats going on. Think it's the parsing of the byte array to the TIME_ZONE_INFORMATION struct? Or am I missing some thing else important? EDIT: Found a document stating why this is happening: here. Privilege was introduced in Vista...thanks MSDN docs... Per the Microsoft documentation I'm enabling the SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME privilege for the current processes token. But when I attempt to call LookupPriviledgeValue for SE_TIME_ZONE_NAME I get a 1313 error (A specified privilege does not exist. ).

    Read the article

  • Need help with WCF design

    - by Jason
    I have been tasked with creating a set of web services. We are a Microsoft shop, so I will be using WCF for this project. There is an interesting design consideration that I haven't been able to figure out a solution for yet. I'll try to explain it with an example: My WCF service exposes a method named Foo(). 10 different users call Foo() at roughly the same time. I have 5 special resources called R1, R2, R3, R4, and R5. We don't really need to know what the resource is, other than the fact that a particular resource can only be in use by one caller at a time. Foo() is responsible to performing an action using one of these special resources. So, in a round-robin fashion, Foo() needs to find a resource that is not in use. If no resources are available, it must wait for one to be freed up. At first, this seems like an easy task. I could maybe create a singleton that keeps track of which resources are currently in use. The big problem is the fact that I need this solution to be viable in a web farm scenario. I'm sure there is a good solution to this problem, but I've just never run across this scenario before. I need some sort of resource tracker / provider that can be shared between multiple WCF hosts. Any ideas from the architects out there would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25  | Next Page >