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  • Handler for (null) returned invalid result code 70007 / causing error 500?

    - by Sherif Buzz
    I am getting these errors on some pages in my site (php/apache/linux/mysql vps) on intervals and can't seem to find any reproducible scenario : Handler for (null) returned invalid result code 70007 or Handler for (null) returned invalid result code 70014 It occurs mainly on pages where file (image) uploads are done. It then causes a 500 error. Google hasn't returned anything conclusive, has anybody come across these errors ?

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  • Why wouldn't the default Control Adapter mappings work on Chrome or Safari?

    - by Deane
    I have confirmed that my Control Adapters are not triggering in Chrome and Safari. I've debugged, and the breakpoints inside the adapters just don't get hit in Chrome/Safari, when they work perfectly find in Firefox/IE. So, for Chrome/Safari, IIS is just ignoring the mapping. My AdapterMappings.browser file looks like this: <browsers> <browser refID="Default"> <controlAdapters> [...adapters here....] </controlAdapters> </browser> </browsers> This should provide mappings for all browsers, correct? I used the Charles proxy to check what user agents were being sent. They are: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/532.5 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/4.1.249.1064 Safari/532.5 Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/531.22.7 (KHTML, like Gecko) Version/4.0.5 Safari/531.22.7 Any idea why this would be? Everything I've read tells me that my browser mappings are correct? And, as I said this works for IE/Firefox, so I know my configuration is technically correct.

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  • Set-Cookie Headers getting stripped in ASP.NET HttpHandlers

    - by Rick Strahl
    Yikes, I ran into a real bummer of an edge case yesterday in one of my older low level handler implementations (for West Wind Web Connection in this case). Basically this handler is a connector for a backend Web framework that creates self contained HTTP output. An ASP.NET Handler captures the full output, and then shoves the result down the ASP.NET Response object pipeline writing out the content into the Response.OutputStream and seperately sending the HttpHeaders in the Response.Headers collection. The headers turned out to be the problem and specifically Http Cookies, which for some reason ended up getting stripped out in some scenarios. My handler works like this: Basically the HTTP response from the backend app would return a full set of HTTP headers plus the content. The ASP.NET handler would read the headers one at a time and then dump them out via Response.AppendHeader(). But I found that in some situations Set-Cookie headers sent along were simply stripped inside of the Http Handler. After a bunch of back and forth with some folks from Microsoft (thanks Damien and Levi!) I managed to pin this down to a very narrow edge scenario. It's easiest to demonstrate the problem with a simple example HttpHandler implementation. The following simulates the very much simplified output generation process that fails in my handler. Specifically I have a couple of headers including a Set-Cookie header and some output that gets written into the Response object.using System.Web; namespace wwThreads { public class Handler : IHttpHandler { /* NOTE: * * Run as a web.config set handler (see entry below) * * Best way is to look at the HTTP Headers in Fiddler * or Chrome/FireBug/IE tools and look for the * WWHTREADSID cookie in the outgoing Response headers * ( If the cookie is not there you see the problem! ) */ public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { HttpRequest request = context.Request; HttpResponse response = context.Response; // If ClearHeaders is used Set-Cookie header gets removed! // if commented header is sent... response.ClearHeaders(); response.ClearContent(); // Demonstrate that other headers make it response.AppendHeader("RequestId", "asdasdasd"); // This cookie gets removed when ClearHeaders above is called // When ClearHEaders is omitted above the cookie renders response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); // *** This always works, even when explicit // Set-Cookie above fails and ClearHeaders is called //response.Cookies.Add(new HttpCookie("WWTHREADSID", "ThisIsTheValue")); response.Write(@"Output was created.<hr/> Check output with Fiddler or HTTP Proxy to see whether cookie was sent."); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } } In order to see the problem behavior this code has to be inside of an HttpHandler, and specifically in a handler defined in web.config with: <add name=".ck_handler" path="handler.ck" verb="*" type="wwThreads.Handler" preCondition="integratedMode" /> Note: Oddly enough this problem manifests only when configured through web.config, not in an ASHX handler, nor if you paste that same code into an ASPX page or MVC controller. What's the problem exactly? The code above simulates the more complex code in my live handler that picks up the HTTP response from the backend application and then peels out the headers and sends them one at a time via Response.AppendHeader. One of the headers in my app can be one or more Set-Cookie. I found that the Set-Cookie headers were not making it into the Response headers output. Here's the Chrome Http Inspector trace: Notice, no Set-Cookie header in the Response headers! Now, running the very same request after removing the call to Response.ClearHeaders() command, the cookie header shows up just fine: As you might expect it took a while to track this down. At first I thought my backend was not sending the headers but after closer checks I found that indeed the headers were set in the backend HTTP response, and they were indeed getting set via Response.AppendHeader() in the handler code. Yet, no cookie in the output. In the simulated example the problem is this line:response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); which in my live code is more dynamic ( ie. AppendHeader(token[0],token[1[]) )as it parses through the headers. Bizzaro Land: Response.ClearHeaders() causes Cookie to get stripped Now, here is where it really gets bizarre: The problem occurs only if: Response.ClearHeaders() was called before headers are added It only occurs in Http Handlers declared in web.config Clearly this is an edge of an edge case but of course - knowing my relationship with Mr. Murphy - I ended up running smack into this problem. So in the code above if you remove the call to ClearHeaders(), the cookie gets set!  Add it back in and the cookie is not there. If I run the above code in an ASHX handler it works. If I paste the same code (with a Response.End()) into an ASPX page, or MVC controller it all works. Only in the HttpHandler configured through Web.config does it fail! Cue the Twilight Zone Music. Workarounds As is often the case the fix for this once you know the problem is not too difficult. The difficulty lies in tracking inconsistencies like this down. Luckily there are a few simple workarounds for the Cookie issue. Don't use AppendHeader for Cookies The easiest and obvious solution to this problem is simply not use Response.AppendHeader() to set Cookies. Duh! Under normal circumstances in application level code there's rarely a reason to write out a cookie like this:response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); but rather create the cookie using the Response.Cookies collection:response.Cookies.Add(new HttpCookie("WWTHREADSID", "ThisIsTheValue")); Unfortunately, in my case where I dynamically read headers from the original output and then dynamically  write header key value pairs back  programmatically into the Response.Headers collection, I actually don't look at each header specifically so in my case the cookie is just another header. My first thought was to simply trap for the Set-Cookie header and then parse out the cookie and create a Cookie object instead. But given that cookies can have a lot of different options this is not exactly trivial, plus I don't really want to fuck around with cookie values which can be notoriously brittle. Don't use Response.ClearHeaders() The real mystery in all this is why calling Response.ClearHeaders() prevents a cookie value later written with Response.AppendHeader() to fail. I fired up Reflector and took a quick look at System.Web and HttpResponse.ClearHeaders. There's all sorts of resetting going on but nothing that seems to indicate that headers should be removed later on in the request. The code in ClearHeaders() does access the HttpWorkerRequest, which is the low level interface directly into IIS, and so I suspect it's actually IIS that's stripping the headers and not ASP.NET, but it's hard to know. Somebody from Microsoft and the IIS team would have to comment on that. In my application it's probably safe to simply skip ClearHeaders() in my handler. The ClearHeaders/ClearContent was mainly for safety but after reviewing my code there really should never be a reason that headers would be set prior to this method firing. However, if for whatever reason headers do need to be cleared, it's easy enough to manually clear the headers out:private void RemoveHeaders(HttpResponse response) { List<string> headers = new List<string>(); foreach (string header in response.Headers) { headers.Add(header); } foreach (string header in headers) { response.Headers.Remove(header); } response.Cookies.Clear(); } Now I can replace the call the Response.ClearHeaders() and I don't get the funky side-effects from Response.ClearHeaders(). Summary I realize this is a total edge case as this occurs only in HttpHandlers that are manually configured. It looks like you'll never run into this in any of the higher level ASP.NET frameworks or even in ASHX handlers - only web.config defined handlers - which is really, really odd. After all those frameworks use the same underlying ASP.NET architecture. Hopefully somebody from Microsoft has an idea what crazy dependency was triggered here to make this fail. IAC, there are workarounds to this should you run into it, although I bet when you do run into it, it'll likely take a bit of time to find the problem or even this post in a search because it's not easily to correlate the problem to the solution. It's quite possible that more than cookies are affected by this behavior. Searching for a solution I read a few other accounts where headers like Referer were mysteriously disappearing, and it's possible that something similar is happening in those cases. Again, extreme edge case, but I'm writing this up here as documentation for myself and possibly some others that might have run into this. © Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2012Posted in ASP.NET   IIS7   Tweet !function(d,s,id){var js,fjs=d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0];if(!d.getElementById(id)){js=d.createElement(s);js.id=id;js.src="//platform.twitter.com/widgets.js";fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js,fjs);}}(document,"script","twitter-wjs"); (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })();

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  • Why does the JSF action tag handler in JSP invoke rendering immediately after creation?

    - by Pentius
    Dear fellows, I read the article "Improving JSF by Dumping JSP" from Hans Bergsten. There I read the following: The JSP container processes the page and invokes the JSF action tag handlers as they are encountered. A JSF tag handler looks for the JSF component it represents in the component tree. If it can't find the component, it creates it and adds it to the component tree. It then asks the component to render itself. and furthermore On the first request, the action creates its component and asks it to render itself. I understand that the immediate rendering after the creation of the component is the problem here (The reference to the input component can't be resolved in the example). That's one point, why JSF doesn't fit with JSP. But it reads as if the action tag handler itself would ask the component to render. Or is it JSP that triggers the rendering directly after the action tag handler created the component. If it is the action tag handler, I don't understand, why this is the fault of JSP. What is different here than from JSF intended? Thanks for your help, I need this for my thesis.

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  • How do I verify my EF4 Code-Only mappings?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    In NHibernate, there is a method doing something like ThisOrThat.VeryfyMappings() (I don't know the exact definition of it since it was a while ago I last tried NHibernate...) I recall seeing a blog post somewhere where the author showed how to do some similar testing in Entity Framework 4, but now I cant find it. So, how do I test my EF4 Code-Only mappings?

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  • C#, WinForms: Why aren't KeyDown events chaining up to Form? I have to add event handler to each chi

    - by blak3r
    As i understand it, when a button is pressed it should first invoke the Control which has focus' KeyDown Handler, then it call the KeyDown handler for any Parent controls, all the way up to the main form. The only thing that would stop the chain would be if somewhere along the chain one of the EventHandlers did: e.SuppressKeyPress = true; e.Handled = true; In my case, KeyDown events never get to the main form. I have Form - Panel - button for example. Panel doesn't offer a KeyDown Event, but it shouldn't stop it from reaching the main form right? Right now as a work around I set every single control to call an event handler I wrote. I'm basically trying to prevent Alt-F4 from closing the application and instead minimize it.

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  • Can a CouchDB document update handler get an update conflict?

    - by jhs
    How likely is a revision conflict when using an update handler? Should I concern myself with conflict-handling code when writing a robust update function? As described in Document Update Handlers, CouchDB 0.10 and later allows on-demand server-side document modification. Update handlers can process non-JSON formats; but the other major features are these: An HTTP front-end to arbitrarily complex document modification code Similar code needn't be written for all possible clients—a DRY architecture Execution is faster and less likely to hit a revision conflict I am unclear about the third point. Executing locally, the update handler will run much faster and with lower latency. But in situations with high contention, that does not guarantee a successful update. Or does the update handler guarantee a successful update?

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  • What is the chance a CouchDB document update handler will get a revision conflict?

    - by jhs
    How likely is a revision conflict when using an update handler? Should I concern myself with conflict-handling code when writing a robust update function? As described in Document Update Handlers, CouchDB 0.10 and later allows on-demand server-side document modification. Update handlers can process non-JSON formats; but the other major features are these: An HTTP front-end to arbitrarily complex document modification code Similar code needn't be written for all possible clients—a DRY architecture Execution is faster and less likely to hit a revision conflict I am unclear about the third point. Executing locally, the update handler will run much faster and with lower latency. But in situations with high contention, that does not guarantee a successful update. Or does the update handler guarantee a successful update?

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  • In Spring MVC, is it possible to have different return types in one request handler method?

    - by Bobo
    For example, if a request succeeds, I will return a View ,if not, return a String indicating error message and set the content-type to either xml or json. Based on what I read, seems like I should use "void" as the return type for handler methods. Check this out: "void if the method handles the response itself (by writing the response content directly, declaring an argument of type ServletResponse / HttpServletResponse for that purpose) or if the view name is supposed to be implicitly determined through a RequestToViewNameTranslator (not declaring a response argument in the handler method signature)."(Spring Framework reference). What I dont understand is what " the view name is supposed to be implicitly determined through a RequestToViewNameTranslator (not declaring a response argument in the handler method signature)" means? Any anyone give me an example?

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  • New install of Steam not running on new install of Ubuntu 13.10

    - by inferKNOX
    I tried purging steam, un-installing and reinstalling steam, deleting /home/.steam/share/steam/appcache/, deleting everything in /home/.steam/share/steam/ and nothing helped. I installed Ubuntu, then steam into it directly afterward. I installed steam from Ubuntu Software Centre, launched it, it updated 206MB, then closed. When I tried to launch it again, it momentarily flashes the checking for update dialogue, then closes every time. Then (in an unrelated event) Ubuntu said some system updates are necessary and one of them was Steam launcher. I did the update, tried to launch Steam; same story. Really need help on this, as I did a complete re-isntall of Ubuntu, then Steam again and it did not help at all. Here's the log: user@computer:~$ steam Running Steam on ubuntu 13.10 64-bit STEAM_RUNTIME is enabled automatically Installing breakpad exception handler for appid(steam)/version(1381282832_client) Installing breakpad exception handler for appid(steam)/version(1381282832_client) Installing breakpad exception handler for appid(steam)/version(1381282832_client) unlinked 0 orphaned pipes removing stale semaphore last operated on by process 2297 with name 0eBlobRegistryMutex_313E4D748EE12691A95DDE8913185F7E removing stale semaphore last operated on by process 2297 with name 0eBlobRegistrySignal_313E4D748EE12691A95DDE8913185F7E removing stale semaphore last operated on by process 2297 with name 0emSteamEngineInstance removing stale semaphore last operated on by process 2297 with name 0eSteamEngineLock Gtk-Message: Failed to load module "overlay-scrollbar" Gtk-Message: Failed to load module "unity-gtk-module" Installing breakpad exception handler for appid(steam)/version(1381282832_client) Fontconfig error: "/etc/fonts/conf.d/10-scale-bitmap-fonts.conf", line 70: non-double matrix element Fontconfig error: "/etc/fonts/conf.d/10-scale-bitmap-fonts.conf", line 70: non-double matrix element Fontconfig warning: "/etc/fonts/conf.d/10-scale-bitmap-fonts.conf", line 78: saw unknown, expected number [1030/115016:WARNING:proxy_service.cc(958)] PAC support disabled because there is no system implementation Installing breakpad exception handler for appid(steam)/version(1381282832_client) Installing breakpad exception handler for appid(steam)/version(1381282832_client) Installing breakpad exception handler for appid(steam)/version(1381282832_client) Installing breakpad exception handler for appid(steam)/version(1381282832_client) Steam: An X Error occurred X Error of failed request: BadValue (integer parameter out of range for operation) Major opcode of failed request: 18 (X_ChangeProperty) Value in failed request: 0x0 Serial number of failed request: 105 xerror_handler: X failed, continuing Uploading dump (out-of-process) [proxy ''] /tmp/dumps/crash_20131030115012_1.dmp /home/user/.local/share/Steam/steam.sh: line 717: 2650 Segmentation fault (core dumped) $STEAM_DEBUGGER "$STEAMROOT/$PLATFORM/$STEAMEXE" "$@" Finished uploading minidump (out-of-process): success = yes response: CrashID=bp-484ddae7-0b1c-4ae4-be84-42a9c2131030 Thanks in advance.

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  • Warning and error information in stored procedures revisited

    - by user13334359
    Originally way to handle warnings and errors in MySQL stored routine was designed as follows: if warning was generated during stored routine execution which has a handler for such a warning/error, MySQL remembered the handler, ignored the warning and continued execution after routine is executed MySQL checked if there is a remembered handler and activated if any This logic was not ideal and causes several problems, particularly: it was not possible to choose right handler for an instruction which generated several warnings or errors, because only first one was chosen handling conditions in current scope messed with conditions in different there were no generated warning/errors in Diagnostic Area that is against SQL Standard. First try to fix this was done in version 5.5. Patch left Diagnostic Area intact after stored routine execution, but cleared it in the beginning of each statement which can generate warnings or to work with tables. Diagnostic Area checked after stored routine execution.This patch solved issue with order of condition handlers, but lead to new issues. Most popular was that outer stored routine could see warnings which should be already handled by handler inside inner stored routine, although latest has handler. I even had to wrote a blog post about it.And now I am happy to announce this behaviour changed third time.Since version 5.6 Diagnostic Area cleared after instruction leaves its handler.This lead to that only one handler will see condition it is supposed to proceed and in proper order. All past problems are solved.I am happy that my old blog post describing weird behaviour in version 5.5 is not true any more.

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  • Subterranean IL: Exception handling 2

    - by Simon Cooper
    Control flow in and around exception handlers is tightly controlled, due to the various ways the handler blocks can be executed. To start off with, I'll describe what SEH does when an exception is thrown. Handling exceptions When an exception is thrown, the CLR stops program execution at the throw statement and searches up the call stack looking for an appropriate handler; catch clauses are analyzed, and filter blocks are executed (I'll be looking at filter blocks in a later post). Then, when an appropriate catch or filter handler is found, the stack is unwound to that handler, executing successive finally and fault handlers in their own stack contexts along the way, and program execution continues at the start of the catch handler. Because catch, fault, finally and filter blocks can be executed essentially out of the blue by the SEH mechanism, without any reference to preceding instructions, you can't use arbitary branches in and out of exception handler blocks. Instead, you need to use specific instructions for control flow out of handler blocks: leave, endfinally/endfault, and endfilter. Exception handler control flow try blocks You cannot branch into or out of a try block or its handler using normal control flow instructions. The only way of entering a try block is by either falling through from preceding instructions, or by branching to the first instruction in the block. Once you are inside a try block, you can only leave it by throwing an exception or using the leave <label> instruction to jump to somewhere outside the block and its handler. The leave instructions signals the CLR to execute any finally handlers around the block. Most importantly, you cannot fall out of the block, and you cannot use a ret to return from the containing method (unlike in C#); you have to use leave to branch to a ret elsewhere in the method. As a side effect, leave empties the stack. catch blocks The only way of entering a catch block is if it is run by the SEH. At the start of the block execution, the thrown exception will be the only thing on the stack. The only way of leaving a catch block is to use throw, rethrow, or leave, in a similar way to try blocks. However, one thing you can do is use a leave to branch back to an arbitary place in the handler's try block! In other words, you can do this: .try { // ... newobj instance void [mscorlib]System.Exception::.ctor() throw MidTry: // ... leave.s RestOfMethod } catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { // ... leave.s MidTry } RestOfMethod: // ... As far as I know, this mechanism is not exposed in C# or VB. finally/fault blocks The only way of entering a finally or fault block is via the SEH, either as the result of a leave instruction in the corresponding try block, or as part of handling an exception. The only way to leave a finally or fault block is to use endfinally or endfault (both compile to the same binary representation), which continues execution after the finally/fault block, or, if the block was executed as part of handling an exception, signals that the SEH can continue walking the stack. filter blocks I'll be covering filters in a separate blog posts. They're quite different to the others, and have their own special semantics. Phew! Complicated stuff, but it's important to know if you're writing or outputting exception handlers in IL. Dealing with the C# compiler is probably best saved for the next post.

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  • Is there a way to bypass the jQuery error handler?

    - by oravecz
    If my Ajax call returns a successful result, but while processing the result I cause an exception, the error handler fires. This seems counter intuitive to me as I think the error handler should only fire when an error occurs as a result of making the Ajax call or via a server-side error. I am trying to use the Ajax function in a unit test so I would like to tell the difference between the two different failure scenarios.

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  • Reflection: cast an object to subclass without use instaceof

    - by Fabrizio
    I have this simple interface/class: public abstract class Message { } public class Message1 extends Message{ } public class Message2 extends Message{ } And an utility class: public class Utility { public void handler(Message m){ System.out.println("Interface: Message"); } public void handler(Message1 m){ System.out.println("Class: Message1"); } public void handler(Message2 m){ System.out.println("Class: Message2"); } } Now, the main class: public static void main(String[] args) { Utility p=new Utility(); Message1 m1=new Message1(); p.handler(m1); Message m=(Message) m1; p.handler(m); } The output is Class: Message1 Interface: Message I would that p.handler(m) call the method p.handler(m:Message1) I don't want use the "manual" command instanceof because I have many cases: if(m instance of Message1) p.handler((Message1)m) else if (m instanceof Message2) p.handler((Message2)m) ... If I call m.getClass() I obtain "mypackage.Message1", so the subclass and not the superclass. I try with this code (use reflection): p.handler(m.getClass().cast(m)); But the output is Interface: Message So, this is my problem. I would do a runtime cast of superclass object to subclassobject without use the "code command" istanceof. I would a right command like this: p.handler((m.getclass)m); How can I obtain it? It's possible? Thank in advance. Fabrizio

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  • How to get the coordinates of an image mouse click in the event handler?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    In the following WPF app, I have an Image in a ContentControl. When the user clicks on the image, how can I get the x/y coordinates of where the mouse clicked on the image? XAML: <Window x:Class="TestClick828374.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel Margin="10"> <ContentControl Content="{Binding TheImage}" MouseDown="ContentControl_MouseDown"/> </StackPanel> </Window> Code-Behind: using System; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.ComponentModel; namespace TestClick828374 { public partial class Window1 : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { #region ViewModelProperty: TheImage private Image _theImage; public Image TheImage { get { return _theImage; } set { _theImage = value; OnPropertyChanged("TheImage"); } } #endregion public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; TheImage = new Image(); TheImage.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\test\rectangle.png")); TheImage.Stretch = Stretch.None; TheImage.HorizontalAlignment = HorizontalAlignment.Left; } #region INotifiedProperty Block public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected void OnPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { PropertyChangedEventHandler handler = PropertyChanged; if (handler != null) { handler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #endregion private void ContentControl_MouseDown(object sender, System.Windows.Input.MouseButtonEventArgs e) { //how to get the coordinates of the mouse click here on the image? } } }

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  • decorator pattern

    - by vbNewbie
    I have a program that converts currency using a specific design pattern. I now need to take my converted result and using the decorator pattern allow the result to be converted to 3 different formats: 1 - exponential notation, rounded to 2 decimal points. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Converter { public partial class Form1 : Form { // Setup Chain of Responsibility Handler h1 = new USDHandler(); Handler h2 = new CADHandler(); Handler h3 = new AUDHandler(); public string reqCurName; public int reqAmt; public string results; public string requestID; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); h1.SetSuccessor(h2); h2.SetSuccessor(h3); } // "Handler" private void button1_Click_1(object sender, EventArgs e) { reqCurName = txtInput.Text; reqAmt = Convert.ToInt32(txtAmt.Text.ToString()); results = h1.HandleRequest(reqCurName, reqAmt); if (results != "") { lblResult.Text = results; lblResult.Visible = true; } } abstract class Handler { protected Handler successor; public string retrn; public void SetSuccessor(Handler successor) { this.successor = successor; } public abstract string HandleRequest(string requestID, int reqAmt); } // "USD Handler" class USDHandler : Handler { public override string HandleRequest(string requestID, int reqAmt) { if (requestID == "USD") { retrn = "Request handled by " + this.GetType().Name + " \nConversion from Euro to USD is " + reqAmt/0.630479; return (retrn); } else if (successor != null) { retrn = successor.HandleRequest(requestID, reqAmt); } return (retrn); } } // "CAD Handler" class CADHandler : Handler { public override string HandleRequest(string requestID, int reqAmt) { if (requestID == "CAD") { retrn = "Request handled by " + this.GetType().Name + " \nConversion from Euro to CAD is " + reqAmt /0.617971; return (retrn); } else if (successor != null) { retrn = successor.HandleRequest(requestID, reqAmt); } return (retrn); } } // "AUD Handler" class AUDHandler : Handler { public override string HandleRequest(string requestID, int reqAmt) { if (requestID == "AUD") { requestID = "Request handled by " + this.GetType().Name + " \nConversion from Euro to AUD is " + reqAmt / 0.585386; return (requestID); } else if (successor != null) { retrn = successor.HandleRequest(requestID, reqAmt); } return (requestID); } } } }

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  • Spring 3 simple extentionless url mappings with annotation-based mapping - impossible?

    - by caerphilly
    Hi, I'm using Spring 3, and trying to set up a simple web-app using annotations to define controller mappings. This seems to be incredibly difficult without peppering all the urls with *.form or *.do Because part of the site needs to be password protected, these urls are all under /secure. There is a <security-constraint> in the web.xml protecting everything under that root. I want to map all the Spring controllers to /secure/app/. Example URLs would be: /secure/app/landingpage /secure/app/edit/customer/{id} each of which I would handle with an appropriate jsp/xml/whatever. So, in web.xml I have this: <servlet> <servlet-name>dispatcher</servlet-name> <servlet-class>org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet</servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>dispatcher</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/secure/app/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> And in despatcher-servlet.xml I have this: <context:component-scan base-package="controller" /> In the Controller package I have a controller class: package controller; import org.springframework.stereotype.Controller; import org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.RequestMapping; import org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.RequestMethod; import org.springframework.web.servlet.ModelAndView; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; @Controller @RequestMapping("/secure/app/main") public class HomePageController { public HomePageController() { } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView getPage(HttpServletRequest request) { ModelAndView mav = new ModelAndView(); mav.setViewName("main"); return mav; } } Under /WEB-INF/jsp I have a "main.jsp", and a suitable view resolver set up to point to this. I had things working when mapping the despatcher using *.form, but can't get anything working using the above code. When Spring starts up it appears to map everything correctly: 13:22:36,762 INFO main annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping:399 - Mapped URL path [/secure/app/main] onto handler [controller.HomePageController@2a8ab08f] I also noticed this line, which looked suspicious: 13:25:49,578 DEBUG main servlet.DispatcherServlet:443 - No HandlerMappings found in servlet 'dispatcher': using default And at run time any attempt to view /secure/app/main just returns a 404 error in Tomcat, with this log output: 13:25:53,382 DEBUG http-8080-1 servlet.DispatcherServlet:842 - DispatcherServlet with name 'dispatcher' determining Last-Modified value for [/secure/app/main] 13:25:53,383 DEBUG http-8080-1 servlet.DispatcherServlet:850 - No handler found in getLastModified 13:25:53,390 DEBUG http-8080-1 servlet.DispatcherServlet:690 - DispatcherServlet with name 'dispatcher' processing GET request for [/secure/app/main] 13:25:53,393 WARN http-8080-1 servlet.PageNotFound:962 - No mapping found for HTTP request with URI [/secure/app/main] in DispatcherServlet with name 'dispatcher' 13:25:53,393 DEBUG http-8080-1 servlet.DispatcherServlet:677 - Successfully completed request So... Spring maps a URL, and then "forgets" about that mapping a second later? What is going on? Thanks.

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  • Why are my Fluent NHibernate SubClass Mappings generating redundant columns?

    - by Brook
    I'm using Fluent NHibernate 1.x build 694, built against NH 3.0 I have the following entities public abstract class Card { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual string Description { get; set; } public virtual Product Product { get; set; } public virtual Sprint Sprint { get; set; } } public class Story:Card { public virtual double Points { get; set; } public virtual int Priority { get; set; } public virtual IList<Task> Tasks { get; set; } } And the following mappings public class CardMap:ClassMap<Card> { public CardMap() { Id(c => c.Id) .Index("Card_Id"); Map(c => c.Name) .Length(50) .Not.Nullable(); Map(c => c.Description) .Length(1024) .Not.Nullable(); References(c=>c.Product) .Not.Nullable(); References(c=>c.Sprint) .Nullable(); } } public class StoryMap : SubclassMap<Story> { public StoryMap() { Map(s => s.Points); Map(s => s.Priority); HasMany(s => s.Tasks); } } When I generate my Schema, the tables are created as follows Card --------- Id Name Description Product_id Sprint_id Story ------------ Card_id Points Priority Product_id Sprint_id What I would have expected would have been to see the columns Product_id and Sprint_id ONLY in the Card table, not the Story table. What am I doing wrong or misunderstanding?

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  • Can't start managed server in Oracle Weblogic 10.3.2

    - by Neuquino
    I installed Oracle SOA Suite 11g. I start the NodeManager successfully. I start the AdminServer successfully. When I go to start the soa serve (soa_server1) I get this output: NMProcess: <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM> <WARNING> <Exception while starting server 'soa_server1'> NMProcess: java.io.IOException: Server failed to start up. See server output log for more details. NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.ServerManager.start(ServerManager.java:331) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.handleStart(Handler.java:541) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.handleCommand(Handler.java:116) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.run(Handler.java:70) NMProcess: at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) NMProcess: NMProcess: Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler handleStart NMProcess: WARNING: Exception while starting server 'soa_server1' NMProcess: java.io.IOException: Server failed to start up. See server output log for more details. NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.ServerManager.start(ServerManager.java:331) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.handleStart(Handler.java:541) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.handleCommand(Handler.java:116) NMProcess: at weblogic.nodemanager.server.Handler.run(Handler.java:70) NMProcess: at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) Error Starting server soa_server1: weblogic.nodemanager.NMException: Exception while starting server 'soa_server1' In the log file I've got this: Enter username to boot WebLogic server:Enter password to boot WebLogic server: There are 1 nested errors: weblogic.management.ManagementException: Booting as admin server, but servername, soa_server1, does not match the admin server name, AdminServer at weblogic.management.provider.internal.RuntimeAccessService.start(RuntimeAccessService.java:67) at weblogic.t3.srvr.ServerServicesManager.startService(ServerServicesManager.java:461) at weblogic.t3.srvr.ServerServicesManager.startInStandbyState(ServerServicesManager.java:166) at weblogic.t3.srvr.T3Srvr.initializeStandby(T3Srvr.java:749) at weblogic.t3.srvr.T3Srvr.startup(T3Srvr.java:488) at weblogic.t3.srvr.T3Srvr.run(T3Srvr.java:446) at weblogic.Server.main(Server.java:67) > <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM ART> <Notice> <WebLogicServer> <BEA-000365> <Server state changed to FAILED> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM ART> <Error> <WebLogicServer> <BEA-000383> <A critical service failed. The server will shut itself down> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM ART> <Notice> <WebLogicServer> <BEA-000365> <Server state changed to FORCE_SHUTTING_DOWN> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM> <FINEST> <NodeManager> <Waiting for the process to die: 31144> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM> <INFO> <NodeManager> <Server failed during startup so will not be restarted> <Mar 15, 2010 3:33:30 PM> <FINEST> <NodeManager> <runMonitor returned, setting finished=true and notifying waiters> Do you have any clue of what is happening? If you need more info, just ask for it. thanks in advance

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  • Welcome files are not loaded! Need help with Railo, mappings and J2EE configuration!

    - by mrt181
    I have installed a J2EE Server (tried it with Glassfish3, Tomcat6 and Resin4) on Win7 64bit and deployed Railo3.1. I have then added a virtual host to the J2EE server, i.e. Resin: <host host-name="railo"> C:/resin/webapps/railo In the Railo Admin i have added this mapping: Virtual Physical / C:/webapps/ When i access http://railo:8080/ my index.cfm welcome file in C:/webapps/ is loaded (index.cfm is definded in Railos web.xml). When i try to access http://railo:8080/test which contains the same index.cfm i get an 500 Servlet Exception java.io.FileNotFoundException: C:\webapps\test (access denied) (on all J2EE Servers i tried so far). http://railo:8080/test/index.cfm works fine. I already tried to add index.cfm to Resins welcome-file-list in app-default.xml to no avail. I want to be able to access deployed apps without this url: http://localhost:8080/app/ Instead i want to use this: http://app:8080/

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