Search Results

Search found 5279 results on 212 pages for 'execution counter'.

Page 180/212 | < Previous Page | 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187  | Next Page >

  • WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

    - by 7hi4g0
    Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

    Read the article

  • What does it mean for an OS to "execute within user processes"? Do any modern OS's use that approach

    - by Chris Cooper
    I have recently become interested in operating system, and a friend of mine lent me a book called Operating Systems: Internals and Design Principles (I have the third edition), published in 1998. It's been a very interesting book so far, but I have come to the part dealing with process control, and it's using UNIX System V as one of its examples of an operating system that executes within user processes. This concept has struck me as a little strange. First of all, does this mean that OS instructions and data are stored in each user of the processes? Probably not, because that would be an absurdly redundant scheme. But if not, then what does it mean to "execute within" a user process? Do any modern operating systems use this approach? It seems much more logical to have the operating system execute as its own process, or even independently of all processes, if you're short on memory. All the inter-accessiblilty of process data required for this layout seems to greatly complicate things. (But maybe that's just because I don't quite get the concept ;D) Here is what the book says: "Execution within User Processes: An alternative that is common with operation systems on smaller machines is to execute virtually all operating system software in the context of a user process. ... "

    Read the article

  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

    Read the article

  • OpenCV. cvFnName() works, but cv::FunName() doesn't work

    - by Innuendo
    I'm using OpenCV to write a plugin for a simulator. I've made an OpenCV project (single - not a plugin) and it works fine. When I added OpenCV libs to the plugin project, I added all libs required. Visual Studio 2010 doesn't highlight any code line with red. All looks fine and compiles fine. But in execution, the program halts with a Runtime Error on any cv::function. For example: cv::imread, or cv::imwrite. But if I replace them with cvLoadImage() and cvSaveImage(), it works fine. Why does this happen? I don't want to rewrite the whole script in old-api-style (cvFnName). It means I should change all Mat objects to IplImages, and so on. UPDATE: // preparing template ifstream ifile(tmplfilename); if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { // loading template file Mat tmpl = cv::imread(tmplfilename, 1); // << here occurs error FILE_LOADED = true; } Mat src; Bmp2Mat(hDC, hBitmap, src); TargetDetector detector(src, tmpl); detector.detectTarget(); If I change to: if ( !FILE_LOADED && ifile ) { IplImage* tmpl = 0; tmpl = cvLoadImage(tmplfilename, 1); // no error occurs } And then no error occurs. Early it displayed some Runtime Error. Now, I wanted to copy exact message and it just crashes the application (simulator, what I am pluginning). It displays window error - to kill process or no. (I can't show exact message, because I'm using russian windows now)

    Read the article

  • How do I create an exception-wrapping fubumvc behaviour?

    - by Jon M
    How can I create a fubumvc behaviour that wraps actions with a particular return type, and if an exception occurs while executing the action, then the behaviour logs the exception and populates some fields on the return object? I have tried the following: public class JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour : IActionBehavior { private static readonly Logger logger = LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); private readonly IActionBehavior _innerBehavior; private readonly IFubuRequest _request; public JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour(IActionBehavior innerBehavior, IFubuRequest request) { _innerBehavior = innerBehavior; _request = request; } public void Invoke() { try { _innerBehavior.Invoke(); var response = _request.Get<AjaxResponse>(); response.Success = true; } catch(Exception ex) { logger.ErrorException("Error processing JSON request", ex); var response = _request.Get<AjaxResponse>(); response.Success = false; response.Exception = ex.ToString(); } } public void InvokePartial() { _innerBehavior.InvokePartial(); } } But, although I get the AjaxResponse object from the request, any changes I make don't get sent back to the client. Also, any exceptions thrown by the action don't make it as far as this, the request is terminated before execution gets to the catch block. What am I doing wrong? For completeness, the behaviour is wired up with the following in my WebRegistry: Policies .EnrichCallsWith<JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour>(action => typeof(AjaxResponse).IsAssignableFrom(action.Method.ReturnType)); And AjaxResponse looks like: public class AjaxResponse { public bool Success { get; set; } public object Data { get; set; } public string Exception { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • How can I merge two Linq IEnumerable<T> queries without running them?

    - by makerofthings7
    How do I merge a List<T> of TPL-based tasks for later execution? public async IEnumerable<Task<string>> CreateTasks(){ /* stuff*/ } My assumption is .Concat() but that doesn't seem to work: void MainTestApp() // Full sample available upon request. { List<string> nothingList = new List<string>(); nothingList.Add("whatever"); cts = new CancellationTokenSource(); delayedExecution = from str in nothingList select AccessTheWebAsync("", cts.Token); delayedExecution2 = from str in nothingList select AccessTheWebAsync("1", cts.Token); delayedExecution = delayedExecution.Concat(delayedExecution2); } /// SNIP async Task AccessTheWebAsync(string nothing, CancellationToken ct) { // return a Task } I want to make sure that this won't spawn any task or evaluate anything. In fact, I suppose I'm asking "what logically executes an IQueryable to something that returns data"? Background Since I'm doing recursion and I don't want to execute this until the correct time, what is the correct way to merge the results if called multiple times? If it matters I'm thinking of running this command to launch all the tasks var AllRunningDataTasks = results.ToList(); followed by this code: while (AllRunningDataTasks.Count > 0) { // Identify the first task that completes. Task<TableResult> firstFinishedTask = await Task.WhenAny(AllRunningDataTasks); // ***Remove the selected task from the list so that you don't // process it more than once. AllRunningDataTasks.Remove(firstFinishedTask); // TODO: Await the completed task. var taskOfTableResult = await firstFinishedTask; // Todo: (doen't work) TrustState thisState = (TrustState)firstFinishedTask.AsyncState; // TODO: Update the concurrent dictionary with data // thisState.QueryStartPoint + thisState.ThingToSearchFor Interlocked.Decrement(ref thisState.RunningDirectQueries); Interlocked.Increment(ref thisState.CompletedDirectQueries); if (thisState.RunningDirectQueries == 0) { thisState.TimeCompleted = DateTime.UtcNow; } }

    Read the article

  • Should I pass a SqlDataReader by reference or not when passing it out to multiple threads.

    - by deroby
    Hi all, being new to c# I've run into this 'conundrum' when passing around a SqlDataReader between different threads. Without going into too much detail, the idea is to have a main thread fetching data from the database (a large recordset) and then have a helper-task run through this record by record and doing some stuff based upon the contents of this. There is no feedback to the recordset, it simply wades through until no records are left. This works fine, but given the nature of the job at hand it should be possible to have this job spread over different threads (CPUs) to maximize throughput (the order of execution is of no significance). The question then becomes, when I pass this recordset in a SqlDataReader, do I have to use ref or not ? It kind of boils down to the question : if I pass the object around without specifying ref, won't it create new copies in memory and have records processed n times ? Or, don't I risk having the record-position being moved forward while not all fields have been fully read yet ? The latter seems more like a 'data racing' issue and probably is covered by the lock()ing mechanism (or not?). My initial take on the problem was that it doesn't really hurt passing the variable using ref, yet as a colleague put it : "you only need ref when you're doing something wrong" =) Additionally using ref restricts me from applying a Using() construction too which isn't very nice either. I thus create a "basic" project that tackles the same approach but without the ref notation. Tests so far show that it works flawlessly on a Core2Duo (2cpu) using any number of threads, yet I'm still a bit wary... What do you experts think about this ? Use ref or not ? You can find the test-project here as it seems I can't upload it to this question directly ?!? ps: it's just a test-project and I'm new to c#, so please be gentle on me when breaking down the code =P

    Read the article

  • CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

    - by Stephen Kellett
    Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

    Read the article

  • Efficient way to maintain a sorted list of access counts in Python

    - by David
    Let's say I have a list of objects. (All together now: "I have a list of objects.") In the web application I'm writing, each time a request comes in, I pick out up to one of these objects according to unspecified criteria and use it to handle the request. Basically like this: def handle_request(req): for h in handlers: if h.handles(req): return h return None Assuming the order of the objects in the list is unimportant, I can cut down on unnecessary iterations by keeping the list sorted such that the most frequently used (or perhaps most recently used) objects are at the front. I know this isn't something to be concerned about - it'll make only a miniscule, undetectable difference in the app's execution time - but debugging the rest of the code is driving me crazy and I need a distraction :) so I'm asking out of curiosity: what is the most efficient way to maintain the list in sorted order, descending, by the number of times each handler is chosen? The obvious solution is to make handlers a list of (count, handler) pairs, and each time a handler is chosen, increment the count and resort the list. def handle_request(req): for h in handlers[:]: if h[1].handles(req): h[0] += 1 handlers.sort(reverse=True) return h[1] return None But since there's only ever going to be at most one element out of order, and I know which one it is, it seems like some sort of optimization should be possible. Is there something in the standard library, perhaps, that is especially well-suited to this task? Or some other data structure? (Even if it's not implemented in Python) Or should/could I be doing something completely different?

    Read the article

  • SELECT SUM PHP MySQL problem

    - by user345426
    This is driving me nuts! Below you will find my PHP/MySQL code but I will post the direct mySQL statement here: SELECT SUM( ot.value ) AS msa FROM orders o LEFT JOIN orders_total ot ON ot.orders_id = o.orders_id WHERE ot.class = 'ot_total' AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP( o.date_purchased ) >=1262332800 AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP( o.date_purchased ) <=1264924800 AND o.sales_rep_id = '2' When I execute this statement inside of phpMyAdmin I get the sum for ot.value which is associated to "msa". Although, when I run my php code it does not return a value. Anyone see the problem? // works in phpMyAdmin but not displaying during PHP execution! $monthly_sales_amount_sql = "SELECT SUM(ot.value) AS msa FROM orders o LEFT JOIN orders_total ot ON ot.orders_id = o.orders_id WHERE ot.class = 'ot_total' AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP(o.date_purchased) >= $start_timestamp AND UNIX_TIMESTAMP(o.date_purchased) <= $end_timestamp AND o.sales_rep_id = '" . $sales_rep_id "'"; $result = mysql_query($monthly_sales_amount_sql); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result); echo "MSA: " . $row['msa'] . "<BR><BR>";

    Read the article

  • C# -Fluent interface implementation Help

    - by nettguy
    I am implementing the following piece of code using Fluent Interface design in C# 3.0. The code is working fine. public interface ITrainable { ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill); } public interface ISearchSkill { ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer emp,string[] _skills); } public abstract class Person { public Person(){} protected string Name { get; set; } } public class SoftwareEngineer:Person,ITrainable { protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } public SoftwareEngineer() { } public SoftwareEngineer(string name) { Name=name; skillSet = new List<string>(); } public ITrainable AddSkill(string _skill) { skillSet.Add(_skill); return this; } } public class HRExecutive :Person,ISearchSkill { SoftwareEngineer _employee; public HRExecutive() { _employee=new SoftwareEngineer(); } public ISearchSkill SearchSkill(SoftwareEngineer _employee,string[] skills) { this._employee= _employee; foreach (string _skill in skills) { if (_employee.skillSet.Contains(_skill)) { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is trained on " + _skill); } else { Console.WriteLine(Name + " is not trained on " + _skill); } } return this; } } Execution SoftwareEngineer emp1 = new SoftwareEngineer("JonSkeet"); emp1.AddSkill("java").AddSkill("C#").AddSkill("F#"); HRExecutive hr = new HRExecutive(); hr.SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "java", "C#" }). SearchSkill(emp1, new string[] { "Oracle", "F#" }); Question : I don't want the skillSet of SoftwareEngineer being accessed by some XXX class.It could be accessed by limited classes.But protected internal List<string> skillSet { get; set; } is the only option (i think) i can declare in order to access the skillSet from HRExecutive.If i do so other XXX class can still access it. How to rewrite the code to prevent it?

    Read the article

  • genStrAsCharArray optimisation benefits

    - by Rich
    Hi I am looking into the options available to me for optimising the performance of JBoss 5.1.0. One of the options I am looking at is setting genStrAsCharArray to true in <JBOSS_HOME>/server/<PROFILE>/deployers/jbossweb.deployer/web.xml. This affects the generation of .java code from .JSPs. The comment describes this flag as: Should text strings be generated as char arrays, to improve performance in some cases? I have a few questions about this. Is this the generation of Strings in the dynamic parts of the JSP page (ie each time the page is called) or is it the generation of Strings in the static parts (ie when the .java is built from the JSP)? "in some cases" - which cases are these? What are the situations where the performance is worse? Does this speed up the generation of the .java, the compilation of the .class or the execution of the .class? At a more technical level (and the answer to this will probably depend on the answer to part 1), why can the use of char arrays improve performance? Thanks in advance Rich

    Read the article

  • My C# UploadFile method successfully uploads a file, but then my UI hangs...

    - by kyrathaba
    I have a simple WinForms test application in C#. Using the following method, I'm able to upload a file when I invoke the method from my button's Click event handler. The only problem is: my Windows Form "freezes". I can't close it using the Close button. I have to end execution from within the IDE (Visual C# 2010 Express edition). Here are the two methods: public void UploadFile(string FullPathFilename) { string filename = Path.GetFileName(FullPathFilename); try { FtpWebRequest request = (FtpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(_remoteHost + filename); request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Ftp.UploadFile; request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential(_remoteUser, _remotePass); StreamReader sourceStream = new StreamReader(FullPathFilename); byte[] fileContents = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(sourceStream.ReadToEnd()); request.ContentLength = fileContents.Length; Stream requestStream = request.GetRequestStream(); requestStream.Write(fileContents, 0, fileContents.Length); FtpWebResponse response = (FtpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); response.Close(); requestStream.Close(); sourceStream.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message, "Upload error"); } finally { } } which gets called here: private void btnUploadTxtFile_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string username = "my_username"; string password = "my_password"; string host = "ftp://mywebsite.com"; try { clsFTPclient client = new clsFTPclient(host + "/httpdocs/non_church/", username, password); client.UploadFile(Path.GetDirectoryName(Application.ExecutablePath) + "\\myTextFile.txt"); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message, "Upload problem"); } }

    Read the article

  • Copy constructor demo (crashing...)

    - by AKN
    Here is the program... class CopyCon { public: char *name; CopyCon() { name = new char; } CopyCon(const CopyCon &objCopyCon) { name = new char; _tcscpy(name,objCopyCon.name); } ~CopyCon() { if( name != NULL ) { delete name; name = NULL; } } }; int main() { CopyCon objCopyCon1; objCopyCon1.name = "Hai"; CopyCon objCopyCon2(objCopyCon1); objCopyCon1.name = "Hello"; cout<<objCopyCon2.name<<endl; return 0; } Once the code execution completes, when the destructor called, it crashes on 'delete' saying... Debug Error! Program: ... HEAP CORRUPTION DETECTED: after Normal block (#124) at 0x00366990. CRT detected that the application wrote to memory after end of heap buffer. (Press Retry to debug the application) Don't we have to clear the heap memory in destructor. What's wrong with this program? Pls someone help! Copy constructor works perfectly as intended. But still... !?

    Read the article

  • iframe created dynamically with javascript not reloading parent URL

    - by Lauren
    I can't seem to reload the parent page from within an iframe even though the domain for my iframe and the parent page appear to be the same. The IFRAME was created dynamically, rather than in the HTML page source, so could that be the problem? The iframe I'm working with is here http://www.avaline.com/ R3000_3 once you log in. You may use user:[email protected] pass: test03 Once logged in, hit the "order sample" button, and then hit "here" where it says "Your Third Party Shipper Numbers (To enter one, click here.)". I tried using javascript statements window.top.location.reload(),window.parent.location.reload(),window.parent.location.href=window.parent.location.href but none of those worked in FF 3.6 so I didn't move on to the other browsers although I am shooting for a cross-browser solution. I put the one-line javascript statements inside setTimeout("statement",2000) so people could read the content of the iframe before the redirect happens, but that shouldn't affect the execution of the statements... I wish I could test and debug the statements with the Firebug console from within the Iframe.

    Read the article

  • Finding the width of a directed acyclic graph... with only the ability to find parents

    - by Platinum Azure
    Hi guys, I'm trying to find the width of a directed acyclic graph... as represented by an arbitrarily ordered list of nodes, without even an adjacency list. The graph/list is for a parallel GNU Make-like workflow manager that uses files as its criteria for execution order. Each node has a list of source files and target files. We have a hash table in place so that, given a file name, the node which produces it can be determined. In this way, we can figure out a node's parents by examining the nodes which generate each of its source files using this table. That is the ONLY ability I have at this point, without changing the code severely. The code has been in public use for a while, and the last thing we want to do is to change the structure significantly and have a bad release. And no, we don't have time to test rigorously (I am in an academic environment). Ideally we're hoping we can do this without doing anything more dangerous than adding fields to the node. I'll be posting a community-wiki answer outlining my current approach and its flaws. If anyone wants to edit that, or use it as a starting point, feel free. If there's anything I can do to clarify things, I can answer questions or post code if needed. Thanks! EDIT: For anyone who cares, this will be in C. Yes, I know my pseudocode is in some horribly botched Python look-alike. I'm sort of hoping the language doesn't really matter.

    Read the article

  • sql server - framework 4 - IIS 7 weird sort from db to page

    - by ila
    I am experiencing a strange behavior when reading a resultset from database in a calling method. The sort of the rows is different from what the database should return. My farm: - database server: sql server 2008 on a WinServer 2008 64 bit - web server: a couple of load balanced WinServer 2008 64 bit running IIS 7 The application runs on a v4.0 app pool, set to enable 32bit applications Here's a description of the problem: - a stored procedure is called, that returns a resultset sorted on a particular column - I can see thru profiler the call to the SP, if I run the statement I see correct sorting - the calling page gets the results, and before any further elaboration logs the rows immediately after the SP execution - the results are in a completely different order (I cannot even understand if they are sorted in any way) Some details on the Stored Procedure: - it is called by code using a SqlDatAdapter - it has also an output value (a count of the rows) that is read correctly - which sort field is to be used is passed as a parameter - makes use of temp tables to collect data and perform the desired sort Any idea on what I could check? Same code and same database work correctly in a test environment, 32 bit and not load balanced.

    Read the article

  • Problems with variadic function

    - by morpheous
    I have the following function from some legacy code that I am maintaining. long getMaxStart(long start, long count, const myStruct *s1, ...) { long i1, maxstart; myStruct *s2; va_list marker; maxstart = start; /*BUGFIX: 003 */ /*(va_start(marker, count);*/ va_start(marker, s1); for (i1 = 1; i1 <= count; i1++) { s2 = va_arg(marker, myStruct *); /* <- s2 is assigned null here */ maxstart = MAX(maxstart, s2->firstvalid); /* <- SEGV here */ } va_end(marker); return (maxstart); } When the function is called with only one myStruct argument, it causes a SEGV. The code compiled and run without crashing on Windows XP when I compiled it using VS2005. I have now moved the code to Ubuntu Karmic and I am having problems with the stricter compiler on Linux. Is anyone able to spot what is causing the parameter not to be read correctly in the var_arg() statement? I am compiling using gcc version 4.4.1 Edit The statement that causes the SEGV is this one: start = getMaxStart(start, 1, ms1); The variables 'start' and 'ms1' have valid values when the code execution first reaches this line.

    Read the article

  • Loop to check all 14 days in the pay period

    - by Rachel Ann Arndt
    Name: Calc_Anniversary Input: Pay_Date, Hire_Date, Termination_Date Output: "Y" if is the anniversary of the employee's Hire_Date, "N" if it is not, and "T" if he has been terminated before his anniversary. Description: Create local variables to hold the month and day of the employee's Date_of_Hire, Termination_Date, and of the processing date using the TO_CHAR function. First check to see if he was terminated before his anniversary. The anniversary could be on any day during the pay period, so there will be a loop to check all 14 days in the pay period to see if one was his anniversary. CREATE OR replace FUNCTION Calc_anniversary( incoming_anniversary_date IN VARCHAR2) RETURN BOOLEAN IS hiredate VARCHAR2(20); terminationdate VARCHAR(20); employeeid VARCHAR2(38); paydate NUMBER := 0; BEGIN SELECT Count(arndt_raw_time_sheet_data.pay_date) INTO paydate FROM arndt_raw_time_sheet_data WHERE paydate = incoming_anniversary_date; WHILE paydate <= 14 LOOP SELECT To_char(employee_id, '999'), To_char(hire_date, 'DD-MON'), To_char(termination_date, 'DD-MON') INTO employeeid, hiredate, terminationdate FROM employees, time_sheet WHERE employees.employee_id = time_sheet.employee_id AND paydate = pay_date; IF terminationdate > hiredate THEN RETURN 'T'; ELSE IF To_char(SYSDATE, 'DD-MON') = To_char(hiredate, 'DD-MON')THEN RETURN 'Y'; ELSE RETURN 'N'; END IF; END IF; paydate := paydate + 1; END LOOP; END; Tables I am using CREATE TABLE Employees ( EMPLOYEE_ID INTEGER, FIRST_NAME VARCHAR2(15), LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25), ADDRESS_LINE_ONE VARCHAR2(35), ADDRESS_LINE_TWO VARCHAR2(35), CITY VARCHAR2(28), STATE CHAR(2), ZIP_CODE CHAR(10), COUNTY VARCHAR2(10), EMAIL VARCHAR2(16), PHONE_NUMBER VARCHAR2(12), SOCIAL_SECURITY_NUMBER VARCHAR2(11), HIRE_DATE DATE, TERMINATION_DATE DATE, DATE_OF_BIRTH DATE, SPOUSE_ID INTEGER, MARITAL_STATUS CHAR(1), ALLOWANCES INTEGER, PERSONAL_TIME_OFF FLOAT, CONSTRAINT pk_employee_id PRIMARY KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID), CONSTRAINT fk_spouse_id FOREIGN KEY (SPOUSE_ID) REFERENCES EMPLOYEES (EMPLOYEE_ID)) / CREATE TABLE Arndt_Raw_Time_Sheet_data ( EMPLOYEE_ID INTEGER, PAY_DATE DATE, HOURS_WORKED FLOAT, SALES_AMOUNT FLOAT, CONSTRAINT pk_employee_id_pay_date_time PRIMARY KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID, PAY_DATE), CONSTRAINT fk_employee_id_time FOREIGN KEY (EMPLOYEE_ID) REFERENCES EMPLOYEES (EMployee_ID)); error FUNCTION Calc_Anniversary compiled Warning: execution completed with warning

    Read the article

  • VB.NET Two different approaches to generic cross-threaded operations; which is better?

    - by BASnappl
    VB.NET 2010, .NET 4 Hello, I recently read about using SynchronizationContext objects to control the execution thread for some code. I have been using a generic subroutine to handle (possibly) cross-thread calls for things like updating UI controls that utilizes Invoke. I'm an amateur and have a hard time understanding the pros and cons of any particular approach. I am looking for some insight on which approach might be preferable and why. Update: This question is motivated, in part, by statements such as the following from the MSDN page on Control.InvokeRequired. An even better solution is to use the SynchronizationContext returned by SynchronizationContext rather than a control for cross-thread marshaling. Method 1: Public Sub InvokeControl(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of T)) If Control.InvokeRequired Then Control.Invoke(New Action(Of T, Action(Of T))(AddressOf InvokeControl), New Object() {Control, Action}) Else Action(Control) End If End Sub Method 2: Public Sub UIAction(Of T As Control)(ByVal Control As T, ByVal Action As Action(Of Control)) SyncContext.Send(New Threading.SendOrPostCallback(Sub() Action(Control)), Nothing) End Sub Where SyncContext is a Threading.SynchronizationContext object defined in the constructor of my UI form: Public Sub New() InitializeComponent() SyncContext = WindowsFormsSynchronizationContext.Current End Sub Then, if I wanted to update a control (e.g., Label1) on the UI form, I would do: InvokeControl(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") or UIAction(Label1, Sub(x) x.Text = "hello") So, what do y'all think? Is one way preferred or does it depend on the context? If you have the time, verbosity would be appreciated! Thanks in advance, Brian

    Read the article

  • Crash using WscRegisterForChanges.

    - by user335126
    I'm trying to use the WscRegisterForChanges with C++ function in Windows 7. Documentation located here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb432507(v=VS.85).aspx My problem is that even though the callback properly executes, the code crashes when it gets to the end of the callback's execution. Here's the code in question. It's very simple, so I'm not sure why it's crashing: #include #include #include void SecurityCenterChangeOccurred(void *param) { printf("Change occurred!\n"); } int main() { HRESULT result = S_OK; HANDLE callbackRegistration = NULL; result = WscRegisterForChanges( NULL, &callbackRegistration, (LPTHREAD_START_ROUTINE)SecurityCenterChangeOccurred, NULL); while(1) { Sleep(100); } return 0; } My call stack looks like this when the crash occurs: 00faf6e8() ntdll.dll!_TppWorkerThread@4() + 0x1293 bytes kernel32.dll!@BaseThreadInitThunk@12() + 0x12 bytes ntdll.dll!___RtlUserThreadStart@8() + 0x27 bytes ntdll.dll!__RtlUserThreadStart@8() + 0x1b bytes If I add ExitThread(0); to the end of SecurityCenterChangeOccurred, I get an error and the following trace (So I don't think I should be using ExitThread): Unhandled exception at 0x7799852b (ntdll.dll) in WscRegisterForChangesCrash.exe: 0xC000071C: An invalid thread, handle %p, is specified for this operation. Possibly, a threadpool worker thread was specified. ntdll.dll!_TpCheckTerminateWorker@4() + 0x3ca2f bytes ntdll.dll!_RtlExitUserThread@4() + 0x30 bytes WscRegisterForChangesCrash.exe!SecurityCenterChangeOccurred(void * param=0x00000000) Line 8 + 0xa bytes C++ wscapi.dll!WorkItemWrapper() + 0x19 bytes ntdll.dll!_RtlpTpWorkCallback@8() + 0xdf bytes ntdll.dll!_TppWorkerThread@4() + 0x1293 bytes kernel32.dll!@BaseThreadInitThunk@12() + 0x12 bytes ntdll.dll!___RtlUserThreadStart@8() + 0x27 bytes ntdll.dll!__RtlUserThreadStart@8() + 0x1b bytes Does anyone have any ideas why this might be happening? To trigger the crash run the program and turn the firewall on or off.

    Read the article

  • Multithreaded Delegates/Events

    - by Matt
    I am trying to disable parts of the UI in a .NET app based on polling done on a background thread. The background thread checks to see if the global database connection the app uses is still open and operable. What I need to do, and would prefer to do it without polling on the UI thread, is to add an event handler that can be raised by the background thread if the connection status changes. That way, any form can have a handler that will disable those parts of the UI that require the connection to function. Attempting to use a straight event declaration in the class that holds the thread sub, and raising the event in the background thread causing cross-thread execution errors regarding accessing UI controls from other threads. Obviously, there is a correct way to do this, but we have limited experience with events (single threaded apps mainly), and almost none with delegates. I've read through documentation and examples for delegates, and it seems to be closer to what we need, but I'm not sure how to make it work in this instance. The app is written mainly in VB.NET, but an example or help in C# is fine too.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to Entites - Left Outer Join - SQL 2000

    - by user255234
    Hi! I'm using Linq to Entities. I have the following query in my code, it includes left outer Join: var surgeonList = (from item in context.T1_STM_Surgeon.Include("T1_STM_SurgeonTitle") .Include("OTER").Include("OSLP") join reptable in context.OSLP on item.Rep equals reptable.SlpCode into surgRepresentative where item.ID == surgeonId select new { ID = item.ID, First = item.First, Last = item.Last, Rep = (surgRepresentative.FirstOrDefault() != null) ? surgRepresentative.FirstOrDefault().SlpName : "N/A", Reg = item.OTER.descript, PrimClinic = item.T1_STM_ClinicalCenter.Name, Titles = item.T1_STM_SurgeonTitle, Phone = item.Phone, Email = item.Email, Address1 = item.Address1, Address2 = item.Address2, City = item.City, State = item.State, Zip = item.Zip, Comments = item.Comments, Active = item.Active, DateEntered = item.DateEntered }) .ToList(); My DEV server has SQL 2008, so the code works just fine. When I moved this code to client's production server - they use SQL 2000, I started getting "Incorrect syntax near '(' ". I've tried changing the ProviderManifestToken to 2000 in my .edmx file, then I started getting "The execution of this query requires the APPLY operator, which is not supported in versions of SQL Server earlier than SQL Server 2005." I tied changing the token to 2005, the "Incorrect syntax near '(' " is back. Can anybody help me to find a workaround for this? Thank you very much in advance!

    Read the article

  • Android Signal 11 (SIGSEGV)

    - by Naturjoghurt
    I read many posts here and on other sites, but can not find the problem creating my Error: I use an AsyncTask because I want to easily manipulate the UI Thread before and after Execution. In doInBackground I create a ThreadPoolExecutor and execute Runnables. If I only execute 1 Runnable with the Executor, there is no Problem, but if I execute another Runnable I get following Error: 06-26 18:00:42.288: A/libc(25073): Fatal signal 11 (SIGSEGV) at 0x7f486162 (code=1), thread 25106 (pool-1-thread-2) 06-26 18:00:42.304: D/dalvikvm(25073): GC_CONCURRENT freed 119K, 2% free 8908K/9056K, paused 4ms+4ms, total 45ms 06-26 18:00:42.327: I/System.out(25073): In Check All with Prefix: a and Length: 4 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** *** 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): Build fingerprint: 'google/yakju/maguro:4.2.2/JDQ39/573038:user/release-keys' 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): Revision: '9' 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): pid: 25073, tid: 25106, name: pool-1-thread-2 >>> de.uni_duesseldorf.cn.distributed_computing2 <<< 06-26 18:00:42.390: I/DEBUG(126): signal 11 (SIGSEGV), code 1 (SEGV_MAPERR), fault addr 7f486162 ... 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): memory map around fault addr 7f486162: 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): 60292000-60391000 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): (no map for address) 06-26 18:00:42.538: I/DEBUG(126): bed14000-bed35000 [stack] I set up the ThreadPoolExecutor like this: // numberOfPackages: Number of Runnables to be executed public void initializeThreadPoolExecutor (int numberOfPackages) { int corePoolSize = Runtime.getRuntime().availableProcessors(); int maxPoolSize = numberOfPackages; long keepAliveTime = 60; final BlockingQueue workingQueue = new LinkedBlockingQueue(); executor = new ThreadPoolExecutor(corePoolSize, maxPoolSize, keepAliveTime, TimeUnit.SECONDS, workingQueue); } I have no clue, why it fails when starting the second Thread. Maybe Memory Leaks? Any Help appreciated. Thanks in Advance

    Read the article

  • Time gaps between host clEnqueue_xxx calls

    - by dialer
    Consider these OpenCL calls (3 memcpy DtoH, 4313 cl_float elements each): clEnqueueReadBuffer(CommandQueue, SpectrumAbsMem, CL_FALSE, 0, SpectrumMemSize, SpectrumAbs, 0, NULL, NULL); clEnqueueReadBuffer(CommandQueue, SpectrumReMem, CL_FALSE, 0, SpectrumMemSize, SpectrumRe, 0, NULL, NULL); clEnqueueReadBuffer(CommandQueue, SpectrumImMem, CL_FALSE, 0, SpectrumMemSize, SpectrumIm, 0, NULL, NULL); When I analyze these with the NVIDIA visual profiler, I see that the actual memcpy operation only takes 8 us, but there is a significant gap of around 130 us after each memcpy. I'm already using the supposedly asynchronous method (the CL_FALSE in the argument list). When I use only one operation, but with three times the size, the operation is way faster. Why is the time gap between the actual memcpy operations so huge, whereas the gap between the kernel execution (exactly before these three operations) and the first memcpy is only 7us? Can I get rid of it, or do I need to accumulate more data before starting a memcpy? If so, is there a convenient way how I could combine mutliple arrays into a single contiguous block of memory, but still have a cl_mem object as a separate device memory pointer to each section?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187  | Next Page >