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  • How to properly test for constraint violation in hibernate?

    - by Cesar
    I'm trying to test Hibernate mappings, specifically a unique constraint. My POJO is mapped as follows: <property name="name" type="string" unique="true" not-null="true" /> What I want to do is to test that I can't persist two entities with the same name: @Test(expected=ConstraintViolationException.class) public void testPersistTwoExpertiseAreasWithTheSameNameIsNotAllowed(){ ExpertiseArea ea = new ExpertiseArea("Design"); ExpertiseArea otherEA = new ExpertiseArea("Design"); ead.setSession(getSessionFactory().getCurrentSession()); ead.getSession().beginTransaction(); ead.makePersistent(ea); ead.makePersistent(otherEA); ead.getSession().getTransaction().commit(); } On commiting the current transaction, I can see in the logs that a ConstraintViolationException is thrown: 16:08:47,571 DEBUG SQL:111 - insert into ExpertiseArea (VERSION, name, id) values (?, ?, ?) Hibernate: insert into ExpertiseArea (VERSION, name, id) values (?, ?, ?) 16:08:47,571 DEBUG SQL:111 - insert into ExpertiseArea (VERSION, name, id) values (?, ?, ?) Hibernate: insert into ExpertiseArea (VERSION, name, id) values (?, ?, ?) 16:08:47,572 WARN JDBCExceptionReporter:100 - SQL Error: -104, SQLState: 23505 16:08:47,572 ERROR JDBCExceptionReporter:101 - integrity constraint violation: unique constraint or index violation; SYS_CT_10036 table: EXPERTISEAREA 16:08:47,573 ERROR AbstractFlushingEventListener:324 - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException: Could not execute JDBC batch update So I would expect the test to pass, since the expected ConstraintViolationException is thrown. However, the test never completes (neither pass nor fails) and I have to manually kill the test runner. What's the correct way to test this?

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  • How to create a dynamic Linq Join extension method

    - by Royd Brayshay
    There was a library of dynamic Linq extensions methods released as a sample with VS2008. I'd like to extend it with a Join method. The code below fails with a parameter miss match exception at run time. Can anyone find the problem? public static IQueryable Join(this IQueryable outer, IEnumerable inner, string outerSelector, string innerSelector, string resultsSelector, params object[] values) { if (inner == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("inner"); if (outerSelector == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("outerSelector"); if (innerSelector == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("innerSelector"); if (resultsSelector == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("resultsSelctor"); LambdaExpression outerSelectorLambda = DynamicExpression.ParseLambda(outer.ElementType, null, outerSelector, values); LambdaExpression innerSelectorLambda = DynamicExpression.ParseLambda(inner.AsQueryable().ElementType, null, innerSelector, values); ParameterExpression[] parameters = new ParameterExpression[] { Expression.Parameter(outer.ElementType, "outer"), Expression.Parameter(inner.AsQueryable().ElementType, "inner") }; LambdaExpression resultsSelectorLambda = DynamicExpression.ParseLambda(parameters, null, resultsSelector, values); return outer.Provider.CreateQuery( Expression.Call( typeof(Queryable), "Join", new Type[] { outer.ElementType, inner.AsQueryable().ElementType, outerSelectorLambda.Body.Type, innerSelectorLambda.Body.Type, resultsSelectorLambda.Body.Type }, outer.Expression, inner.AsQueryable().Expression, Expression.Quote(outerSelectorLambda), Expression.Quote(innerSelectorLambda), Expression.Quote(resultsSelectorLambda))); } I've now fixed it myself, here's the answer. Please vote it up or add a better one.

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  • Problem retrieving Strings from varbinary columns using HIbernate and MySQL

    - by user303396
    Hello, Here's my scenario. I save a bunch of Strings containing asian characters in MySQL using Hibernate. These strings are written in varbinary columns. Everything works fine during the saving operation. The DB contains the correct values (sequence of bytes). If I query (again using Hibernate) for the Strings that I saved I get the correct results. But when Hibernate fills the entity to which the Strings belong with the values from the DB I get different values then the ones I used in the query that retrieved them. Instead of receiving the correct values I receive a bunch of FFFD replacement characters. For example: if I store "??" in the DB and then I query for it, the resulting String will be \uFFFD\uFFFD\uFFFD\uFFFD\uFFFD\uFFFD. the DB connection has the following parameters set useUnicode=true&characterEncoding=UTF-8, I've tried using the true UTF-8 configurations for Hibernate but that didn't solve the problem What am I missing? Any suggestions? Thanks

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  • Why is this PHP loop rendering every row twice?

    - by Christopher
    I'm working on a real frankensite here not of my own design. There's a rudimentary CMS and one of the pages shows customer records from a MySQL DB. For some reason, it has no probs picking up the data from the DB - there's no duplicate records - but it renders each row twice. The page PHP is viewable at http://christopher.pastebin.com/DQkjjG3s (attempted to include in this post but it was horribly mangled, think it's important to have it all in context). I'm not the world's best PHP expert but I think I can see an error in a for loop when there is one... But everything looks ok to me. You'll notice that the customer name is clickable; clicking takes you to another page where you can view their full info as held in the DB - and for both rows, the customer ID is identical, and manually checking the DB shows there's no duplicate entries. The code is definitely rendering each row twice, but for what reason I have no idea. All pointers / advice appreciated.

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  • Difference between HashMap, LinkedHashMap and SortMap in java

    - by theband
    Map m1 = new HashMap(); m1.put("map", "HashMap"); m1.put("schildt", "java2"); m1.put("mathew", "Hyden"); m1.put("schildt", "java2s"); print(m1.keySet()); print(m1.values()); SortedMap sm = new TreeMap(); sm.put("map", "TreeMap"); sm.put("schildt", "java2"); sm.put("mathew", "Hyden"); sm.put("schildt", "java2s"); print(sm.keySet()); print(sm.values()); LinkedHashMap lm = new LinkedHashMap(); lm .put("map", "LinkedHashMap"); lm .put("schildt", "java2"); lm .put("mathew", "Hyden"); lm .put("schildt", "java2s"); print(lm .keySet()); print(lm .values()); What is the difference between these three? I don't see any difference in the output as all the three has keySet and values. What are Hashtables?

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  • How to send set of data for Ajax call from jquery with php at the serverside?

    - by Vinodtiru
    I basically have to do a update of a record. I have a set of controls like textbox, list box, radio button etc. Then i have a button on click of which i need to carry all the updated data into mysql database with a ajax request without page refresh. I am using the php with codeigniter as my serverside code. On client side i am able to send the ajax request like $(document).ready(function(){ $('#users_menu').click( function(){ $('#tempdiv').load('http://localhost//web1/index.php/c1',null); } ); }); In the above code the request is placed to a server side php page where i am not able to read the values of the control values (values of textbox, listbox etc). Now this means i should be sending the list with the request. But i am not aware of how to send this request. Please help me with some details of how to send the list of values or is it possible to read the vaules some how in the serverside php code. For your information i am using codeigniter with my php. Any kind of help is appreciated. Thanks and Regards VinodT.

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  • Winforms: Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt

    - by mamcx
    I have a bunch of background events. All of them call a log: private void log(string text, params object[] values) { if (editLog.InvokeRequired) { editLog.BeginInvoke( (MethodInvoker)delegate { this.log(text, values); }); } else { text = string.Format(text, values) + Environment.NewLine; lock (editLog) { editLog.AppendText(text); editLog.SelectionStart = editLog.TextLength; editLog.ScrollToCaret(); } } } Sometimes I get this, but other times not: System.AccessViolationException was unhandled Message=Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. Source=System.Windows.Forms StackTrace: at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.CallWindowProc(IntPtr wndProc, IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wParam, IntPtr lParam) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.DefWndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.DebuggableCallback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.SendMessage(HandleRef hWnd, Int32 msg, Int32 wParam, Object& editOle) at System.Windows.Forms.TextBoxBase.ScrollToCaret() at Program1.frmMain.log(String text, Object[] values) in ... ... ... P.D: Not always stop at this line, randomly will be one of the three times editLog methods/properties are used. Not always a exception is throw. Sometimes look like the thing freeze. But not the main UI, just the flow of messages (ie: log look like is never called again) The app is a single form, with background process. I can't see what I doing wrong with this...

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  • UTF-8 character encoding battles json_encode()

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Quest I am looking to fetch rows that have accented characters. The encoding for the column (NAME) is latin1_swedish_ci. The Code The following query returns Abord â Plouffe using phpMyAdmin: SELECT C.NAME FROM CITY C WHERE C.REGION_ID=10 AND C.NAME_LOWERCASE LIKE '%abor%' ORDER BY C.NAME LIMIT 30 The following displays expected values (function is called db_fetch_all( $result )): while( $row = mysql_fetch_assoc( $result ) ) { foreach( $row as $value ) { echo $value . " "; $value = utf8_encode( $value ); echo $value . " "; } $r[] = $row; } The displayed values: 5482 5482 Abord â Plouffe Abord â Plouffe The array is then encoded using json_encode: $rows = db_fetch_all( $result ); echo json_encode( $rows ); Problem The web browser receives the following value: {"ID":"5482","NAME":null} Instead of: {"ID":"5482","NAME":"Abord â Plouffe"} (Or the encoded equivalent.) Question The documentation states that json_encode() works on UTF-8. I can see the values being encoded from LATIN1 to UTF-8. After the call to json_encode(), however, the value becomes null. How do I make json_encode() encode the UTF-8 values properly? One possible solution is to use the Zend Framework, but I'd rather not if it can be avoided.

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  • Microsoft Excel 2010 How to reference a table to another sheet

    - by Shiro
    I am using Excel 2010. I got a sheet name "March" I would like to duplicate it (with reference / link) to another sheet called "Summary" which included January, Feb, and March. In the summary tab I would add another column called "Month" and will duplicate the value "March" or their tab month. I did some research on it, they said copy and paste special with link, but I can't find it. I need to reference the whole table, just in case any change add / remove the row of the table, the summary still will update it. Is there any solution with this? Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Javascript array always passed to controller as null

    - by Xuan Vu
    I'm having some problem with passing a javascript array to the controller. I have several checkboxes on my View, when a checkbox is checked, its ID will be saved to an array and then I need to use that array in the controller. Here are the code: VIEW: var selectedSearchUsers = new Array(); $(document).ready(function () { $("#userSearch").click(function () { selectedSearchUsers.length = 0; ShowLoading(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: '/manage/searchusers', dataType: "json", data: $("#userSearchForm").serialize(), success: function (result) { UserSearchSuccess(result); }, cache: false, complete: function () { HideLoading(); } }); }); $(".userSearchOption").live("change", function () { var box = $(this); var id = box.attr("dataId"); var checked = box.attr("checked"); if (checked) { selectedSearchUsers.push(id); } else { selectedSearchUsers.splice(selectedSearchUsers.indexOf(id), 1); } }); $("#Send").click(function () { var postUserIDs = { values: selectedSearchUsers }; ShowLoading(); $.post("/Manage/ComposeMessage", postUserIDs, function (data) { }, "json"); }); }); When the "Send" button is clicked, I want to pass the selectedSearchUsers to the "ComposeMessage" action. Here is the Action code: public JsonResult ComposeMessage(List values) { //int count = selectedSearchUsers.Length; string count = values.Count.ToString(); return Json(count); } However, the List values is always null. Any idea why? Thank you very much.

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  • pfSense command to delete stale SAD

    - by Justin Shin
    I'm experiencing an issue with pfSense where duplicate SAD's are getting created after rekeying, forcing me to manually go ahead and delete the old SAD's. It's not a huge issue but it does get to be a problem once I let it go for a few days. I just installed the cron package for pfSense so I could run a script to identify stale SAD's and delete them but I am not that familiar with BSD or pfSense. Is there a command that enumerates SAD's and their properties, and another that can delete by ID? I can form the conditional parts of the script but I do not know the commands to run. I would imagine it would be something like: Enumerate SAD's Identify Duplicate ones by matching Source and destination IP's Find the one with the larger bytes transferred Delete

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  • Clone remote CentOS server to local test server?

    - by dannymcc
    We have a dedicated server running ContOS 5.5. The server runs our Magento store and a basic php website with mysql. I have a spare rack server in my office (HP ProLiant DL360 G4) that has more than enough storage space to store a duplicate of our dedicated server. I would like to clone the dedicated server entirely and have a local duplicate. It wouldn't need to be kept in sync because I can do that with GIT. The reason I want to do this is simple; learn more about the dedicated server and CentOS. Is this possible? I have SSH access to the dedicated server and obviously complete access to the local server.

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  • Suggest a good method with least lookup time complexity

    - by Amrish
    I have a structure which has 3 identifier fields and one value field. I have a list of these objects. To give an analogy, the identifier fields are like the primary keys to the object. These 3 fields uniquely identify an object. Class { int a1; int a2; int a3; int value; }; I would be having a list of say 1000 object of this datatype. I need to check for specific values of these identity key values by passing values of a1, a2 and a3 to a lookup function which would check if any object with those specific values of a1, a2 and a3 is present and returns that value. What is the most effective way to implement this to achieve a best lookup time? One solution I could think of is to have a 3 dimensional matrix of length say 1000 and populate the value in it. This has a lookup time of O(1). But the disadvantages are. 1. I need to know the length of array. 2. For higher identity fields (say 20), then I will need a 20 dimension matrix which would be an overkill on the memory. For my actual implementation, I have 23 identity fields. Can you suggest a good way to store this data which would give me the best look up time?

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  • Issues in Convergence of Sequential minimal optimization for SVM

    - by Amol Joshi
    I have been working on Support Vector Machine for about 2 months now. I have coded SVM myself and for the optimization problem of SVM, I have used Sequential Minimal Optimization(SMO) by Mr. John Platt. Right now I am in the phase where I am going to grid search to find optimal C value for my dataset. ( Please find details of my project application and dataset details here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2284059/svm-classification-minimum-number-of-input-sets-for-each-class) I have successfully checked my custom implemented SVM`s accuracy for C values ranging from 2^0 to 2^6. But now I am having some issues regarding the convergence of the SMO for C 128. Like I have tried to find the alpha values for C=128 and it is taking long time before it actually converges and successfully gives alpha values. Time taken for the SMO to converge is about 5 hours for C=100. This huge I think ( because SMO is supposed to be fast. ) though I`m getting good accuracy? I am screwed right not because I can not test the accuracy for higher values of C. I am actually displaying number of alphas changed in every pass of SMO and getting 10, 13, 8... alphas changing continuously. The KKT conditions assures convergence so what is so weird happening here? Please note that my implementation is working fine for C<=100 with good accuracy though the execution time is long. Please give me inputs on this issue. Thank You and Cheers.

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  • Creating instance of a service-side DataContract class on client-side in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • HtmlHelper Getting the route name

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I've created a html helper that adds a css class property to a li item if the user is on the current page. The helper looks like this: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class if ( currentControllerName.Equals( controllerName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) && currentActionName.Equals( actionName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) ) builder.AddCssClass( "active" ); // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.ActionLink( linkText, actionName, controllerName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } I want to expand this class so I can pass a route name to the helper and if the user is on that route then it adds the css class to the li item. However I'm having difficulty finding the route the user is on. Is this possible? The code I have so far is: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string routeName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class // Some code for here // if ( routeName == currentRoute ) AddCssClass; // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.RouteLink( linkText, routeName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } BTW I'm using MVC 1.0. Thanks

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  • JSF Render response programmatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBean holds a reference to parentManaged bean through JSF's managed property facility. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object. I use the managed property of childManagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentManagedBean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean. So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programmatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean? Is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it? Note: I'm using JSF 1.1 EDIT- After following the solution of "resubmit-ing the form" from javascript, I am seeing that the old form is getting resubmitting which overwrites all of my changed values.

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  • DB2Command ExecuteNonQuery Insert multiple rows problem

    - by DB2 Nubie
    I'm attempting to insert multiple rows into a DB2 database using C# code like this: string query = "INSERT INTO TESTDB2.RG_Table (V,E,L,N,Q,B,S,P) values" + "('lkjlkj', 'iouoiu', '2009-03-27 12:01:19', 'nnne', 'sdfdf', NULL, NULL, NULL)," + "('lkjlk2', 'iuoiu2', '2009-03-27 12:01:19', 'nnne2', 'sddf2', NULL, NULL, NULL)"; DB2Command cmd = new DB2Command(query, this.transactionConnection, this.transaction); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); If I stop building the query string after the first set of values is included it executes without an error. Attempting to load multiple values using this method results in the following error: Upload error : ERROR [42601] [IBM][DB2] SQL0104N An unexpected token "," was found following "". Expected tokens may include: "". SQLSTATE =42601 The SQL syntax matches that which I have read elsewhere, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/452859/inserting-multiple-rows-in-a-single-sql-query and IBM's documentation gives this example: cmd = conn.CreateCommand(); cmd.Transaction = trans; cmd.CommandText = "INSERT INTO company_a VALUES(5275, 'Sanders', 20, 'Mgr', 15, 18357.50), " + "(5265, 'Pernal', 20, 'Sales', NULL, 18171.25), " + "(5791, 'O''Brien', 38, 'Sales', 9, 18006.00)"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); Can anyone explain what could account for this?

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  • My server is slower than the average user's computer, should I still offload Access queries to SQL Server? [closed]

    - by andrewb
    Possible Duplicate: How do you do Load Testing and Capacity Planning for Databases I have a database set up with MS Access 2007 front ends and an SQL Server 2005 back end. At the moment, all the queries are saved in the front end as I've only recently moved to an SQL Server backend. I'm wondering how much of those queries I should save as stored procedures/views on SQL Server. About the system The number of concurrent users is only a handful, though it could be as high as 25 at one time (very unlikely). The average computer has an Intel i3-2120 CPU running at 3.3 GHz, which gets a PassMark score of 3,987, whilst the server has an Intel Xeon E5335 running at 2.0 GHz, which gets a PassMark score of 2,637. Always an awkward situation when an i3 outperforms a Xeon... though the i3 is from Q1 2011 and the Xeon is Q2 2009. There is potential for a server upgrade in the future, though it wouldn't come easy. I'm inclined to move the queries to the back end, as they are beginning to take noticeable time and I figure that is a better way of doing things. I like the idea of throwing everything at the server, then pushing for a server upgrade. It makes more sense in my mind to be upgrading one server rather than 30 PCs. Or am I being overzealous? Why my question isn't a duplicate It seems that my question has been misinterpreted and labelled a duplicate of quite a different question, one about testing and capacity planning. I'll try explain how my question is very different from the linked question. The crux of my question is something like "Even though my server is technically slower, is it better to have it doing more of the queries?" There's two ways that people could have answered this: I agree the server is going to be slower, but the extra benefits of such and such (like the less Access the better) means you should move most to the server anyway. (OR no it doesn't outweigh the benefit, keep them in Access) Actually the server will be faster because of such and such. I'm hoping that people out there could provide some answers like this, and the question in the dupe link doesn't really provide either of these answers. Ok sure, I suppose I could do extensive performance testing to compare Access queries running on a local machine to SQL Server queries running on the server, but that sounds like a very hard task (particularly performance testing of access) compared to someone giving some quick general guidance, and again, my question is looking for a lot more than immediate performance benefit.

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  • How to configure for multiple gettext domains with babel, pylons, setuptools

    - by ICanHaveSpam
    While trying to internationalize my pylons web and mobile application, 'myapp', Im finding that I would like to keep separate gettext pot files for separate domains. There will be common msgid values for both web and mobile users and there will also be unique msgid values that are only translated for web or mobile users. Im expecting localized msgstrs for mobile users will be different (more terse) than the localized msgstrs for normal web users. The environment is like: the same myapp/controllers will be used for both mobile and web requests. mobile users will have their pages rendered from myapp/templates/mobile normal web users will have their pages rendered from myapp/templates/web What happens by default: I end up with myapp/i18n/myapp.pot and myapp/i18n/*/LC_MESSAGES/myapp.[pm]o files that contain msgid values from controllers and both sets of templates. What Im looking for: to set the gettext domain for the user's session when I decide which templates will render their responses. myapp's msgids from controllers and web template extract into myapp/i18n/web.pot myapp's msgids from controllers and mobile templates extract into myapp/i18n/mobile.pot babel's init_catalog, update_catalog, and compile_catalog runs deal with these separate domains and create separate po and mo localization files. Where Im lost: configuring myapp's setup.cfg and setup.py to deal with separate gettext domains so that I can direct extracted msgid values into a particular pot file based on the path of the python and template files.

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  • Puppet - Possible to use software design patterns in modules?

    - by Mike Purcell
    As I work with puppet, I find myself wanting to automate more complex setups, for example vhosts for X number of websites. As my puppet manifests get more complex I find it difficult to apply the DRY (don't repeat yourself) principle. Below is a simplified snippet of what I am after, but doesn't work because puppet throws various errors depending up whether I use classes or defines. I'd like to get some feed back from some seasoned puppetmasters on how they might approach this solution. # site.pp import 'nodes' # nodes.pp node nodes_dev { $service_env = 'dev' } node nodes_prod { $service_env = 'prod' } import 'nodes/dev' import 'nodes/prod' # nodes/dev.pp node 'service1.ownij.lan' inherits nodes_dev { httpd::vhost::package::site { 'foo': } httpd::vhost::package::site { 'bar': } } # modules/vhost/package.pp class httpd::vhost::package { class manage($port) { # More complex stuff goes here like ensuring that conf paths and uris exist # As well as log files, which is I why I want to do the work once and use many notify { $service_env: } notify { $port: } } define site { case $name { 'foo': { class 'httpd::vhost::package::manage': port => 20000 } } 'bar': { class 'httpd::vhost::package::manage': port => 20001 } } } } } That code snippet gives me a Duplicate declaration: Class[Httpd::Vhost::Package::Manage] error, and if I switch the manage class to a define, and attempt to access a global or pass in a variable common to both foo and bar, I get a Duplicate declaration: Notify[dev] error. Any suggestions how I can implement the DRY principle and still get puppet to work? -- UPDATE -- I'm still having a problem trying to ensure that some of my vhosts, which may share a parent directory, are setup correctly. Something like this: node 'service1.ownij.lan' inherits nodes_dev { httpd::vhost::package::site { 'foo_sitea': } httpd::vhost::package::site { 'foo_siteb': } httpd::vhost::package::site { 'bar': } } What I need to happen is that sitea and siteb have the same parent "foo" folder. The problem I am having is when I call a define to ensure the "foo" folder exists. Below is the site define as I have it, hopefully it will make sense what I am trying to accomplish. class httpd::vhost::package { File { owner => root, group => root, mode => 0660 } define site() { $app_parts = split($name, '[_]') $app_primary = $app_parts[0] if ($app_parts[1] == '') { $tpl_path_partial_app = "${app_primary}" $app_sub = '' } else { $tpl_path_partial_app = "${app_primary}/${app_parts[1]}" $app_sub = $app_parts[1] } include httpd::vhost::log::base httpd::vhost::log::app { $name: app_primary => $app_primary, app_sub => $app_sub } } } class httpd::vhost::log { class base { $paths = [ '/tmp', '/tmp/var', '/tmp/var/log', '/tmp/var/log/httpd', "/tmp/var/log/httpd/${service_env}" ] file { $paths: ensure => directory } } define app($app_primary, $app_sub) { $paths = [ "/tmp/var/log/httpd/${service_env}/${app_primary}", "/tmp/var/log/httpd/${service_env}/${app_primary}/${app_sub}" ] file { $paths: ensure => directory } } } The include httpd::vhost::log::base works fine, because it is "included", which means it is only implemented once, even though site is called multiple times. The error I am getting is: Duplicate declaration: File[/tmp/var/log/httpd/dev/foo]. I looked into using exec, but not sure this is the correct route, surely others have had to deal with this before and any insight is appreciated as I have been grappling with this for a few weeks. Thanks.

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  • CIL and JVM Little endian to big endian in c# and java

    - by Haythem
    Hello, I am using on the client C# where I am converting double values to byte array. I am using java on the server and I am using writeDouble and readDouble to convert double values to byte arrays. The problem is the double values from java at the end are not the double values at the begin giving to c# writeDouble in Java Converts the double argument to a long using the doubleToLongBits method , and then writes that long value to the underlying output stream as an 8-byte quantity, high byte first. DoubleToLongBits Returns a representation of the specified floating-point value according to the IEEE 754 floating-point "double format" bit layout. The Program on the server is waiting of 64-102-112-0-0-0-0-0 from C# to convert it to 1700.0 but he si becoming 0000014415464 from c# after c# converted 1700.0 this is my code in c#: class User { double workingStatus; public void persist() { byte[] dataByte; using (MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream()) { using (BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(ms)) { bw.Write(workingStatus); bw.Flush(); bw.Close(); } dataByte = ms.ToArray(); for (int j = 0; j < dataByte.Length; j++) { Console.Write(dataByte[j]); } } public double WorkingStatus { get { return workingStatus; } set { workingStatus = value; } } } class Test { static void Main() { User user = new User(); user.WorkingStatus = 1700.0; user.persist(); } thank you for the help.

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  • Auto-responder rule in Outlook 2010 produces double signature (but only to certain emails)

    - by Austin ''Danger'' Powers
    I have set up an auto-responder in Outlook 2010 using a custom template, as a staff member will be on vacation for 6 weeks. It works perfectly, apart from the fact certain people receive two signatures at the bottom of the message instead of one. When reviewing the "sent" folder, there is no sign of double signatures. In the custom template, there is only 1 copy of the signature. Signatures are set to be applied automatically to new messages or replies- however, if I remove the signature from the template, then it seems no one receives a response with the signature. People sending from Hotmail accounts do not receive a duplicate signature. Gmail users do see a duplicate signature. Does anyone have any idea what could be causing this?

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