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  • InputText inside Primefaces dataTable is not refreshed

    - by robson
    I need to have inputTexts inside datatable when form is in editable mode. Everything works properly except form cleaning with immediate="true" (without form validation). Then primefaces datatable behaves unpredictable. After filling in datatable with new data - it still stores old values. Short example: test.xhtml <h:body> <h:form id="form"> <p:dataTable var="v" value="#{test.list}" id="testTable"> <p:column headerText="Test value"> <p:inputText value="#{v}"/> </p:column> </p:dataTable> <h:dataTable var="v" value="#{test.list}" id="testTable1"> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="Test value" /> </f:facet> <p:inputText value="#{v}" /> </h:column> </h:dataTable> <p:dataTable var="v" value="#{test.list}" id="testTable2"> <p:column headerText="Test value"> <h:outputText value="#{v}" /> </p:column> </p:dataTable> <p:commandButton value="Clear" actionListener="#{test.clear()}" immediate="true" update=":form:testTable :form:testTable1 :form:testTable2"/> <p:commandButton value="Update" actionListener="#{test.update()}" update=":form:testTable :form:testTable1 :form:testTable2"/> </h:form> </h:body> And java: import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import javax.annotation.PostConstruct; import javax.faces.bean.ViewScoped; import javax.inject.Inject; import javax.inject.Named; @Named @ViewScoped public class Test implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private List<String> list; @PostConstruct private void init(){ update(); } public List<String> getList() { return list; } public void setList(List<String> list) { this.list = list; } public void clear() { list = new ArrayList<String>(); } public void update() { list = new ArrayList<String>(); list.add("Item 1"); list.add("Item 2"); } } In the example above I have 3 configurations: 1. p:dataTable with p:inputText 2. h:dataTable with p:inputText 3. p:dataTable with h:outputText And 2 buttons: first clears data, second applies data Workflow: 1. Try to change data in inputTexts in p:dataTable and h:dataTable 2. Clear data of list (arrayList of string) - click "clear" button (imagine that you click cancel on form because you don't want to store data to database) 3. Load new data - click "update" button (imagine that you are openning new form with new data) Question: Why p:dataTable with p:inputText still stores manually changed data, not the loaded ones? Is there any way to force p:dataTable to behaving like h:dataTable in this case?

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  • Best strategy for synching data in iPhone app

    - by iamj4de
    I am working on a regular iPhone app which pulls data from a server (XML, JSON, etc...), and I'm wondering what is the best way to implement synching data. Criteria are speed (less network data exchange), robustness (data recovery in case update fails), offline access and flexibility (adaptable when the structure of the database changes slightly, like a new column). I know it varies from app to app, but can you guys share some of your strategy/experience? For me, I'm thinking of something like this: 1) Store Last Modified Date in iPhone 2) Upon launching, send a message like getNewData.php?lastModifiedDate=... 3) Server will process and send back only modified data from last time. 4) This data is formatted as so: <+><data id="..."></data></+> // add this to SQLite/CoreData <-><data id="..."></data></-> // remove this <%><data id="..."><attribute>newValue</attribute></data></%> // new modified value I don't want to make <+, <-, <%... for each attribute as well, because it would be too complicated, so probably when receive a <% field, I would just remove the data with the specified id and then add it again (assuming id here is not some automatically auto-incremented field). 5) Once everything is downloaded and updated, I will update the Last Modified Date field. The main problem with this strategy is: If the network goes down when I am updating something = the Last Modified Date is not yet updated = next time I relaunch the app, I will have to go through the same thing again. Not to mention potential inconsistent data. If I use a temporary table for update and make the whole thing atomic, it would work, but then again, if the update is too long (lots of data change), the user has to wait a long time until new data is available. Should I use Last-Modified-Date for each of the data field and update data gradually?

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  • In MS SQL Server, is there a way to "atomically" increment a column being used as a counter?

    - by Dan P
    Assuming a Read Committed Snapshot transaction isolation setting, is the following statement "atomic" in the sense that you won't ever "lose" a concurrent increment? update mytable set counter = counter + 1 I would assume that in the general case, where this update statement is part of a larger transaction, that it wouldn't be. For example, I think this scenario is possible: update the counter within transaction #1 do some other stuff in transaction #1 update the counter with transaction #2 commit transaction #2 commit transaction #1 In this situation, wouldn't the counter end up only being incremented by 1? Does it make a difference if that is the only statement in a transaction? How does a site like stackoverflow handle this for its question view counter? Or is the possibility of "losing" some increments just considered acceptable?

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  • Using injected EntityManager in class hierarchies

    - by Emre Sahin
    The following code works: @Stateless @LocalBean public class MyClass { @PersistenceContext(name = "MyPU") EntityManager em; public void myBusinessMethod(MyEntity e) { em.persist(e); } } But the following hierarchy gives a TransactionRequiredException in Glassfish 3.0 (and standard JPA annotations with EclipseLink.) at the line of persist. @Stateless @LocalBean public class MyClass extends MyBaseClass { public void myBusinessMethod(MyEntity e) { super.update(e); } } public abstract class MyBaseClass { @PersistenceContext(name = "MyPU") EntityManager em; public void update(Object e) { em.persist(e); } } For my EJB's I collected common code in an abstract class for cleaner code. (update also saves who did the operation and when, all my entities implement an interface.) This problem is not fatal, I can simply copy update and sister methods to subclasses but I would like to keep all of them together in a single place. I didn't try but this may be because my base class is abstract, but I would like to learn a proper method for such a (IMHO common) use case.

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  • Rails running multiple delayed_job - lock tables

    - by pepernik
    Hey. I use delayed_job for background processing. I have 8 CPU server, MySQL and I start 7 delayed_job processes RAILS_ENV=production script/delayed_job -n 7 start Q1: I'm wondering is it possible that 2 or more delayed_job processes start processing the same process (the same record-row in the database delayed_jobs). I checked the code of the delayed_job plugin but can not find the lock directive in a way it should be. I think each process should lock the database table before executing an UPDATE on lock_by column. They lock the record simply by updating the locked_by field (UPDATE delayed_jobs SET locked_by...). Is that really enough? No locking needed? Why? I know that UPDATE has higher priority than SELECT but I think this does not have the effect in this case. My understanding of the multy-threaded situation is: Process1: Get waiting job X. [OK] Process2: Get waiting jobs X. [OK] Process1: Update locked_by field. [OK] Process2: Update locked_by field. [OK] Process1: Get waiting job X. [Already processed] Process2: Get waiting jobs X. [Already processed] I think in some cases more jobs can get the same information and can start processing the same process. Q2: Is 7 delayed_jobs a good number for 8CPU server? Why yes/not. Thx 10x!

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  • memory leak in php script

    - by Jasper De Bruijn
    Hi, I have a php script that runs a mysql query, then loops the result, and in that loop also runs several queries: $sqlstr = "SELECT * FROM user_pred WHERE uprType != 2 AND uprTurn=$turn ORDER BY uprUserTeamIdFK"; $utmres = mysql_query($sqlstr) or trigger_error($termerror = __FILE__." - ".__LINE__.": ".mysql_error()); while($utmrow = mysql_fetch_array($utmres, MYSQL_ASSOC)) { // some stuff happens here // echo memory_get_usage() . " - 1241<br/>\n"; $sqlstr = "UPDATE user_roundscores SET ursUpdDate=NOW(),ursScore=$score WHERE ursUserTeamIdFK=$userteamid"; if(!mysql_query($sqlstr)) { $err_crit++; $cLog->WriteLogFile("Failed to UPDATE user_roundscores record for user $userid - teamuserid: $userteamid\n"); echo "Failed to UPDATE user_roundscores record for user $userid - teamuserid: $userteamid<br>\n"; break; } unset($sqlstr); // echo memory_get_usage() . " - 1253<br/>\n"; // some stuff happens here too } The update query never fails. For some reason, between the two calls of memory_get_usage, there is some memory added. Because the big loop runs about 500.000 or more times, in the end it really adds up to alot of memory. Is there anything I'm missing here? could it herhaps be that the memory is not actually added between the two calls, but at another point in the script? Edit: some extra info: Before the loop it's at about 5mb, after the loop about 440mb, and every update query adds about 250 bytes. (the rest of the memory gets added at other places in the loop). The reason I didn't post more of the "other stuff" is because its about 300 lines of code. I posted this part because it looks to be where the most memory is added.

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  • Switching from form_for to remote_form_for problems with submit changes in Rails

    - by Matthias Günther
    Hi there, another day with Rails and today I want to use Ajax. linkt_remote_link for changing a text was pretty easy so I thought it would also be easy to switch my form_for loop just to an ajax request form with remote_form_for, but the problem with the remote_form_for is that it doesn't save my changes? Here the code that worked: <% form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> Here the code which don't save me the changes and submit them: <% remote_form_for bill, :url => {:action => 'update', :id => bill.id} do |f| %> # make the processing e.g. displaying texfields and so on <%= submit_tag 'speichern'%> It produces the following html code: <form action="/adminbill/update/58" class="edit_bill" id="edit_bill_58" method="post" onsubmit="$.ajax({data:$.param($(this).serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/adminbill/update/58'}); return false;"><div style="margin:0;padding:0;display:inline"><input name="_method" type="hidden" value="put" /></div> <!-- here the html things for the forms --> <input class="button" name="commit" type="submit" value="speichern" /> I don't know if I have to consider something special when using remote_form_for (see remote_form_for)

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  • Transaction Management

    - by Senthilnathan
    Hi all, In my code I am updating two table, one after the other. update(table1_details); update(table2_details); So if the update fails in table1 , table2 should not be updated or should be rolled back. How to handle this situation. I know I have to use transaction. Can some one help with code !!! I am using Java with spring and hibernate .

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  • How to notify client about updated UpdatePanel content on server side

    - by csh1981
    I have a problem with UpdatePanel.Update() which works initially but then stops. I have tumbled with this problem for some time and some background is needed so please read ahead. I have an ASP.net application in which I have a subpage that display computed information in graphs. Each graph is embedded in an UpdatePanel. The graph is a user control that uses the standard asp:Chart for display. My task is to enable this page with AJAX capabilities so the page is responsive during postbacks. When I access this page from another page, during the initial page rendering, I use a wait dialog for each graph and a pageload event on the client side. In the client event, a hidden button is clicked which a server event handles (the hidden button is inside an UpdatePanel so the postback is asynchronous). Each graph is computed and the UpdatePanels are in turn updated with the Chart content. This is done using UpdatePanel.Update. And it is successful. However, I also have some RadioButtons on the page. These are dynamically created. The purpose of them is to switch graph type --- to show the same data in a different way. Same type of time consuming computation is needed in order to do so. I subscribe on each RadioButton's OnCheckedChanged event and the postback is asynchronous since the radiobuttons are inside an UpdatePanel. In the server event handler I determine the type of graph and use this as an input to the Chart control. I then remove the old Chart control from my Panel and adds new Chart and then I call UpdatePanel.Update(). But with no success. Nothing happens, no errors, nothing. Why is this?? I think this is strange because if I compute every Chart data in the initial rendering instead of using the "Wait dialog"-solution described earlier then I can select graph types successfully and all subsequent AJAX requests work as intended. Also, the same code (computing the chart, removal, and adding the Chart control to Panel and UpdatePanel.Update()) is hit during the initial rendering of the page, and it works only the first time. Here is the method that computes the graph and adds it to the panel and update the UpdatePanel: public void UpdateGraph(GraphType type, GraphMapper mapper) { //Panel is the content of UpdatePanelGraph's Panel.Controls.Clear(); chart = new Chart(type, mapper); //Computation happens inside here panel.Controls.Add(chart); //UpdatePanelGraph is in UpdateMode Conditional and has //ChildrenAsTriggers set to false UpdatePanelGraph.Update(); } I really need a way for these radiobuttons to work, possible using some clientside JavaScript or another way of handling things on the server side. I have thought about using a JavaScript postback call on the UpdatePanel instead of the UpdatePanel.Update(). However, the issue I have here is how to notify the client side when the server side is finished with computing the graph? An plausible explanation of the strange behavior is also much appreciated. Any help appreciated, thanks

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  • Use Struct as a Ptr/class? Need a fix .NET

    - by acidzombie24
    I wrote a bunch of code and i would like to fix it the fastest way possible. I'll describe my problem in a easier way. I have apples and oranges, they are both Point and in the list apples, oranges. I create a PictureBox and draw the apple/oranges on screen and move them around and update the Point via Tag. The problem now is since its a struct the tag is a copy so the original elements in the list are not update. So, how do i update them? I consider using Point? But those seem to be readonly. So the only solution i can think of is Clear the list, iterate through all the controls then check the picturebox property to check if the image is a apple or orange then add it to a list I really only thought of this solution typing this question, but my main question is, is there a better way? Is there some List<Ptr<Point>> class i can use so when i update the apples or oranges through the tag the element in the list will update as a class would?

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  • Why hasn't MSSQL made a WHERE clause mandatory by default?

    - by Josh Einstein
    It seems like a no brainer to me. I've heard countless stories about people forgetting the WHERE clause in an UPDATE or DELETE and trashing an entire table. I know that careless people shouldn't be issuing queries directly and all that... and that there are legitimate cases where you want to affect all rows, but wouldn't it make sense to have an option on by default that requires such queries to be written like: UPDATE MyTable SET MyColumn = 0 WHERE * Or without changing the language, UPDATE MyTable SET MyColumn = 0 WHERE 1 = 1 -- tacky, I know

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  • need help building a stored procedure that takes rows from one table into another.

    - by MyHeadHurts
    alright i built this stored procedure to take the columns from a stagging table and copy them into my other table, but if these four columns are duplicates it wont insert the rows, works fine. however, what i want to do is if only the tour, taskname and deptdate are the same, then i will update the rest of the information. and if all four columns are the same dont instert. INSERT INTO dashboardtasks1 SELECT [tour], [taskname], [deptdate], [tasktype], [desc], [duedate], [compdate], [comments], [agent], [compby], [graceperiod] FROM staggingtasks WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks1 WHERE (staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks1.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks1.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks1.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks1.duedate ) ) i saw something like this INSERT INTO table (a,b,c) VALUES (1,2,3) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE c=c+1; UPDATE table SET c=c+1 WHERE a=1; but how could i do it if my stated 3 columns are the samed then update? or is there a way to do this with an if statement and use 2 different queries, but how would my if statement work would it check if the row exists in the table i am uploading to and then run the insert statement? or what if i did something like IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks WHERE staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks.deptdate ) begin UPDATE [dashboardtasks] SET [tour] = staggingtasks.tour, [taskname] = staggingtasks.taskname, [deptdate] = staggingtasks.deptdate, [tasktype] = staggingtasks.tasktype, [desc] = staggingtasks.desc, [duedate] = staggingtasks.duedate, [compdate] = staggingtasks.compdate, [comments] = staggingtasks.comments, [agent] = staggingtasks.agent, [compby] = staggingtasks.compby, [graceperiod] = staggingtasks.graceperiod end else EXISTS (SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks WHERE staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks.duedate ) begin INSERT INTO dashboardtasks1 SELECT [tour], [taskname], [deptdate], [tasktype], [desc], [duedate], [compdate], [comments], [agent], [compby], [graceperiod] FROM staggingtasks WHERE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM dashboardtasks1 WHERE (staggingtasks.tour=dashboardtasks1.tour and staggingtasks.taskname=dashboardtasks1.taskname and staggingtasks.deptdate=dashboardtasks1.deptdate and staggingtasks.duedate=dashboardtasks1.duedate ) ) end end

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  • Python's asyncore to periodically send data using a variable timeout. Is there a better way?

    - by Nick Sonneveld
    I wanted to write a server that a client could connect to and receive periodic updates without having to poll. The problem I have experienced with asyncore is that if you do not return true when dispatcher.writable() is called, you have to wait until after the asyncore.loop has timed out (default is 30s). The two ways I have tried to work around this is 1) reduce timeout to a low value or 2) query connections for when they will next update and generate an adequate timeout value. However if you refer to 'Select Law' in 'man 2 select_tut', it states, "You should always try to use select() without a timeout." Is there a better way to do this? Twisted maybe? I wanted to try and avoid extra threads. I'll include the variable timeout example here: #!/usr/bin/python import time import socket import asyncore # in seconds UPDATE_PERIOD = 4.0 class Channel(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, sock, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, sock=sock, map=sck_map) self.last_update = 0.0 # should update immediately self.send_buf = '' self.recv_buf = '' def writable(self): return len(self.send_buf) > 0 def handle_write(self): nbytes = self.send(self.send_buf) self.send_buf = self.send_buf[nbytes:] def handle_read(self): print 'read' print 'recv:', self.recv(4096) def handle_close(self): print 'close' self.close() # added for variable timeout def update(self): if time.time() >= self.next_update(): self.send_buf += 'hello %f\n'%(time.time()) self.last_update = time.time() def next_update(self): return self.last_update + UPDATE_PERIOD class Server(asyncore.dispatcher): def __init__(self, port, sck_map): asyncore.dispatcher.__init__(self, map=sck_map) self.port = port self.sck_map = sck_map self.create_socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) self.bind( ("", port)) self.listen(16) print "listening on port", self.port def handle_accept(self): (conn, addr) = self.accept() Channel(sock=conn, sck_map=self.sck_map) # added for variable timeout def update(self): pass def next_update(self): return None sck_map = {} server = Server(9090, sck_map) while True: next_update = time.time() + 30.0 for c in sck_map.values(): c.update() # <-- fill write buffers n = c.next_update() #print 'n:',n if n is not None: next_update = min(next_update, n) _timeout = max(0.1, next_update - time.time()) asyncore.loop(timeout=_timeout, count=1, map=sck_map)

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  • MySQL: Ignore the timestamp attribute

    - by Nique
    I have a timestamp column in my database, and i use it for almost every field, but now, i just want to update the hit counter.. and i do not want to update the timestamp column with it. I use the timestamp field to see the last 'content' update. Not for every hit. Is it possible to let mysql stop updating the timestamp column for just one query?

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  • SQL Server: "Mostly-unique" index

    - by Ian Boyd
    In a table i want to ensure that only unique vales exist over the five-column key: Timestamp Account RatingDate TripHistoryKey EventAction ========= ======= ========== ============== =========== 2010511 1234 2010511 1 INSERT 2010511 1234 2010511 4 INSERT 2010511 1234 2010511 7 INSERT 2010511 1234 2010511 1 INSERT <---duplicate But i only want the unique constraint to apply between rows when EventAction is INSERT: Timestamp Account RatingDate TripHistoryKey EventAction ========= ======= ========== ============== =========== 2010511 1234 2010511 1 INSERT 2010511 1234 2010511 1 UPDATE 2010511 1234 2010511 1 UPDATE <---not duplicate 2010511 1234 2010511 1 UPDATE <---not duplicate 2010511 1234 2010511 1 DELETE <---not duplicate 2010511 1234 2010511 1 DELETE <---not duplicate 2010511 1234 2010511 1 INSERT <---DUPLICATE Possible?

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  • Determining threshold for lock escalation

    - by Davin
    I have a table with around 2.5 millions records and will be updating around 700k of them and want to update these while still allowing other users to see the data. My update statement looks something like this: UPDATE A WITH (UPDLOCK,ROWLOCK) SET A.field = B.field FROM Table_1 A INNER JOIN Table2 B ON A.id = B.id WHERE A.field IS NULL AND B.field IS NOT NULL I was wondering if there was any way to work out at what point sql server will escalate a lock placed on an update statement (as I don't want the whole table to be locked)? I don't have permissions to run a server trace to see how the locks are being applied, so is there any other way of knowing at what point the lock will be escalated to cover the whole table? Thanks!

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  • Disadvantages of MySQL Row Locking

    - by Nyxynyx
    I am using row locking (transactions) in MySQL for creating a job queue. Engine used is InnoDB. SQL Query START TRANSACTION; SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1 FOR UPDATE; UPDATE mytable SET status = 1; COMMIT; According to this webpage, The problem with SELECT FOR UPDATE is that it usually creates a single synchronization point for all of the worker processes, and you see a lot of processes waiting for the locks to be released with COMMIT. Question: Does this mean that when the first query is executed, which takes some time to finish the transaction before, when the second similar query occurs before the first transaction is committed, it will have to wait for it to finish before the query is executed? If this is true, then I do not understand why the row locking of a single row (which I assume) will affect the next transaction query that would not require reading that locked row? Additionally, can this problem be solved (and still achieve the effect row locking does for a job queue) by doing a UPDATE instead of the transaction? UPDATE mytable SET status = 1 WHERE status IS NULL ORDER BY timestamp DESC LIMIT 1

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  • PostGreSQL - bind variables and date addition

    - by azp74
    I need to update some timestamp columns in a table in a PostGres (8.3) database. My query (simplified) look like this: update table1 set dateA = dateA + interval '10 hours' where id = 1234; This is part of a script and there's a lot to update so my preference is to use bind variables, rather than to have to build the query string each time. This means my query becomes: update table1 set dateA = dateA + interval '? hours' where id = ?; When I do this, the complaint is that I've supplied 2 bind variables when only one is required. If I try to put the ? outside the quote marks: update table1 set dateA = dateA + interval ? ' hours' where id = ?; I get: ... syntax error at or near "' hours'" It looks as though the query has been interpreted as ... dateA = dateA + interval '10' ' hours' ... I can't find anything in the documentation to help ... any suggestions? Thanks

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  • Does Win 2008 r2 x64 server come with .net 3 sp1 package already installed?

    - by luckyluke
    same as in title? I have a test server with mentioned OS and my app is .net 3.5 based. I do want to know if win 2008 r2 comes with service pack 1 for .net 3.5 from the box. And does it come with .net 3.5 sp1 family update as WELL, since after I downloaded the update, the installer says I do not have software required to update. Could some win 2008 guru perhaps explain it to me? thanks luke

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  • jQuery - Increase the value of a counter when a button is clicked

    - by Taimur
    Hi, I'm making a system where a user clicks a button and their score increases. There is a counter which I would like to increase the value of using jQuery (so that the page does not need to refresh) when the button is clicked. How would I go about this? <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#update").click(function() { $("#counter")++; } </script> #update is the button, #counter is the counter. In php, ++ increases something's value. What's the jQuery equivalent? Also, when the button is clicked, it needs to send a request which updates the score value in a mysql database as well, without the page refreshing. Does anyone know how I would do that? Thanks a lot UPDATE: I've tried a few of the methods below, but nothing seems to work! Do I need to change anything else for it to work? I've created a test page for it: <html> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.3.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var count = 0; $("#update").click(function() { count++; $("#counter").html("My current count is: "+count); } </script> <button id="update" type="button">Button</button> <div id="counter">1</div> </body> </htlm>

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  • updating batches of data

    - by gaponte69
    I am using GridView in asp .net and editing data with edit command field property (as we know after updating the edited row, we automatically update the database), and I want to use transactions (with begin to commit statement - including rollback) to commit this update query in database, after clicking in some button (after some events for example), not automatically to insert or update the edited data from grid directly to the DB...so I want to save them somewhere temporary (even many edited rows - not just one row) and then to confirm the transaction - to update the real tables in database... Any suggestions are welcomed... I've used some good links, but very helpful, like: http://www.asp.net/learn/data-access/tutorial-63-cs.aspx http://www.asp.net/learn/data-access/tutorial-66-cs.aspx etc...

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  • What to name 2 methods with same signatures

    - by coffeeaddict
    Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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  • copy rows before updating them to preserve archive in Postgres

    - by punkish
    I am experimenting with creating a table that keeps a version of every row. The idea is to be able to query for how the rows were at any point in time even if the query has JOINs. Consider a system where the primary resource is books, that is, books are queried for, and author info comes along for the ride CREATE TABLE authors ( author_id INTEGER NOT NULL, version INTEGER NOT NULL CHECK (version > 0), author_name TEXT, is_active BOOLEAN DEFAULT '1', modified_on TIMESTAMP DEFAULT CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, PRIMARY KEY (author_id, version) ) INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (1, 1, 'John'), (2, 1, 'Jack'), (3, 1, 'Ernest'); I would like to be able to update the above like so UPDATE authors SET author_name = 'Jack K' WHERE author_id = 1; and end up with 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 2, 2, Jack K, t, 2012-03-29 21:37:40 which I can then query with SELECT author_name, modified_on FROM authors WHERE author_id = 2 AND modified_on < '2012-03-29 21:37:00' ORDER BY version DESC LIMIT 1; to get 2, 1, Jack, t, 2012-03-29 21:35:00 Something like the following doesn't really work CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION archive_authors() RETURNS TRIGGER AS $archive_author$ BEGIN IF (TG_OP = 'UPDATE') THEN -- The following fails because author_id,version PK already exists INSERT INTO authors (author_id, version, author_name) VALUES (OLD.author_id, OLD.version, OLD.author_name); UPDATE authors SET version = OLD.version + 1 WHERE author_id = OLD.author_id AND version = OLD.version; RETURN NEW; END IF; RETURN NULL; -- result is ignored since this is an AFTER trigger END; $archive_author$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; CREATE TRIGGER archive_author AFTER UPDATE OR DELETE ON authors FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE archive_authors(); How can I achieve the above? Or, is there a better way to accomplish this? Ideally, I would prefer to not create a shadow table to store the archived rows.

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  • Something Better than .NET Reflector?

    - by Josh Stodola
    I used to love Reflector back in the day, but ever since RedGate took over it has gone downhill dramatically. Now it forces me to update (which is absolutely ridiculous), half the time the update doesn't go smoothly, and it is increasingly hindering my productivity with each update. I am sick of it, and I am ready for something better. Does anybody know of a better disassembler?

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  • How can I get an IObservable<T> in Rx from a "non-standard" event?

    - by Dan Tao
    Here's what I mean. Suppose I'm working with an API that exposes events, but these events do not follow the standard EventHandler or EventHandler<TEventArgs> signature. One event might look like this, for instance: Public Event Update(ByVal sender As BaseSubscription, ByVal e As BaseEvent) Now, typically, if I want to get an IObservable<TEventArgs> from an event, I can just do this: Dim updates = Observable.FromEvent(Of UpdateEventArgs)( _ target:=updateSource, _ eventName:="Update" _ ) But this doesn't work, because the Update event is not an EventHandler<UpdateEventArgs> -- in fact, there is no UpdateEventArgs -- it's basically just its own thing. Obviously, I could define my own class deriving from EventArgs (i.e., UpdateEventArgs), write another class to wrap the object providing the Update event, give the wrapper class its own Update event that is an EventHandler<UpdateEventArgs>, and get an IObservable<UpdateEventArgs> from that. But that's an annoying amount of work. Is there some way to create an IObservable<[something]> from a "non-standard" event like this, or am I out of luck?

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