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  • sqlalchemy dynamic mapping

    - by adancu
    Hi, I have the following problem: I have the class: class Word(object): def __init__(self): self.id = None self.columns = {} def __str__(self): return "(%s, %s)" % (str(self.id), str(self.columns)) self.columns is a dict which will hold (columnName:columnValue) values. The name of the columns are known at runtime and they are loaded in a wordColumns list, for example wordColumns = ['english', 'korean', 'romanian'] wordTable = Table('word', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key = True) ) for columnName in wordColumns: wordTable.append_column(Column(columnName, String(255), nullable = False)) I even created a explicit mapper properties to "force" the table columns to be mapped on word.columns[columnName], instead of word.columnName, I don't get any error on mapping, but it seems that doesn't work. mapperProperties = {} for column in wordColumns: mapperProperties['columns[\'%']' % column] = wordTable.columns[column] mapper(Word, wordTable, mapperProperties) When I load a word object, SQLAlchemy creates an object which has the word.columns['english'], word.columns['korean'] etc. properties instead of loading them into word.columns dict. So for each column, it creates a new property. Moreover word.columns dictionary doesn't even exists. The same way, when I try to persist a word, SQLAlchemy expects to find the column values in properties named like word.columns['english'] (string type) instead of the dictionary word.columns. I have to say that my experience with Python and SQLAlchemy is quite limited, maybe it isn't possible to do what I'm trying to do. Any help appreciated, Thanks in advance.

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  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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  • Open closed prinicple, problem

    - by Marcus
    Hi, I'm trying to apply OCP to a code snippet I have that in it's current state is really smelly, but I feel I'm not getting all the way to the end. Current code: public abstract class SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject1 : SomeObject {} public class SpecificObject2 : SomeObject {} // Smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { if (someObject is SpecificObject1) {} else if (someObject is SpecificObject2) {} } } That is really ugly, my new approach looks like this: // No so smelly code public class Model { public void Store(SomeObject someObject) { throw new Expception("Not allowed!"); } public void Store(SpecificObject1 someObject) {} public void Store(SpecificObject2 someObject) {} } When a new SomeObject type comes along I must implement how that specific object is stored, this will break OCP cause I need to alter the Model-class. To move the store logic to SomeObject also feels wrong cause then I will violate SRP (?), becuase in this case the SomeObject is almost like a DTO, it's resposibility it not how to know to store itself. If a new implementation to SomeObject comes along who's store implementation is missing I will get a runtime error due to exception in Store method in Model class, it also feels like a code smell. This is because calling code will in the form of IEnumerable<SomeObject> sequence; I will not know the specific types of the sequence objects. I can't seem to grasp the OCP-concept. Anyone has any concrete examples or links that is a bit more than just some Car/Fruit example?

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  • Java import statement

    - by nattyP
    I am using java on debian 5 java version "1.6.0_20" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_20-b02) Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM (build 16.3-b01, mixed mode, sharing) Why is there a difference between the following Case 1: import java.util.*; Case 2: import java.util.*; import java.util.Arrays; import java.util.List; Why doesnt the first case cover the second case? The code only compiles when I import Arrays and List explicitly. Code: import java.util.*; import java.util.Arrays; import java.util.List; public class Test { public static void main (String[] args) { List<Integer> i = new ArrayList(Arrays.asList(1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10)); List<Integer> j = new ArrayList(); ListIterator<Integer> n = i.listIterator(i.size()); while(n.hasPrevious()) { j.add(n.previous()); } println(j); } static void println(Object o) { System.out.println(o); } static void print(Object o) { System.out.print(o); } }

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  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

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  • CompositionHost.Initialize() can not execute twice.

    - by Khoa
    I am currently try to integrate MEF and PRISM to work with each other. Everything is working fine so far. Now i would like to use MEF runtime module discovery (DeploymentCatalog) which will be used to download XAPs from server directory and then plug it into one of the Region inside my MAIN UI. I am using UnityBootStrapper and inside this class i also integrated MEF container. This sample application is based on Glenn Block (http://codebetter.com/glennblock/2010/01/03/mef-and-prism-exploration-mef-module-loading/). The following code is used to initialize CompositionContainer inside my Bootstrapper: // This is the host catalog which contains all parts of running assembly. var catalog = GetHostCatalog(); // Create MEF container which initial catalog var container = new CompositionContainer(catalog); // here we explicitly map a part to make it available on imports elsewhere, using // Unity to resolve the export so dependencies are resolved // We do this because region manager is third-party ... therefore, we need to // export explicitly because the implementation doesn't have its own [export] tag container.ComposeExportedValue<IRegionManager>(Container.Resolve<IRegionManager>()); container.ComposeExportedValue<IEventAggregator>(Container.Resolve<IEventAggregator>()); // Obtain CatalogService as a singleton // All dynamic modules will use this service to add its parts. Container.RegisterInstance<ICatalogService>(new CatalogService(catalog)); // Initialize the container CompositionHost.Initialize(container); Now i have another class called DeploymentCatalogService which is used to download the XAP from server. The current problem i am facing is that inside DeploymentCatalogService Initialize method, CompositionHost container is try to initialize its container with aggregateCatalog again. _aggregateCatalog = new AggregateCatalog(); _aggregateCatalog.Catalogs.Add(new DeploymentCatalog()); CompositionHost.Initialize(_aggregateCatalog); This causes an Exception which stated that The container has already been initialized. Is there a way to use the existing container and update it with the new aggregateCatalog? Hope this is not too confusing. Please be nice i am still new to MEF. Cheers,

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  • Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

    - by zpasternack
    I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

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  • SSIS String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated.

    - by Subbarao
    When I run SSIS package from BIDS it runs fine without any error / problem. When I try to call it through a ASP.NET website I get the following error - "String or binary data would be truncated. The statement has been terminated." I checked all the columns / data to see if anything is exceeding the limit, everything is fine. I can run the package through command line using dtexec C:dtexec /f "C:\temp\MyTempPackage.dtsx", it executes without any problem . The problem is when I try to run it through ASP.NET. The following is the code that I am trying to use - //DTS Runtime Application Application app = new Application(); //DTS Package Package package = app.LoadPackage(packagePath, null); //Execute and Get the result DTSExecResult result = package.Execute(); I am making a call to a webservice from asp.net which has the above code. Both the webservice and website have identity impersonation enabled. I have identity enabled in my web.config for this <identity impersonate="true" userName="MyUserName" password="MyPassword"/> This problem is only when I am trying to import a Excel file (.xlsx) when I import a .txt file everything is fine. Excel Import blew up in both 32bit and 64bit enviornments. Help on how to make this to work is greatly appreciated.

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  • How can I exclude words with apostrophes when reading into a table of strings?

    - by rearden
    ifstream fin; string temp; fin.open("engldict.txt"); if(fin.is_open()) { bool apos = false; while(!fin.eof()) { getline(fin, temp, '\n'); if(temp.length() > 2 && temp.length() < 7) { for(unsigned int i = 0; i < temp.length(); i++) { if(temp.c_str()[i] == '\'') apos = true; } if(!apos) dictionary.insert(temp); } } } This code gives me a runtime error: Unhandled exception at 0x00A50606 in Word Jumble.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000014. and throws me a break point at: size_type size() const _NOEXCEPT { // return length of sequence return (this->_Mysize); } within the xstring header. This exception is thrown no matter what character I use, so long as it is present within the words I am reading in. I am aware that it is probably a super simple fix, but I just really need another set of eyes to see it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Dynamic GUI Framework Designing

    - by user575715
    There is a Scenario to be developed for a 3-tier Application .We need to design a Framework or a utility sort of thing . In tradional aspect of GUI Designing , either we tend to create a static gui page and code the elements on it along with other properties of the elements such as (disabled/enabled,image source,name ,id ,which function to be called under onclick event.) or we tend to drag and drop the elements from the control pallete provided by variety of gui frameworks. Certain things i need to design a POC so that we can develop this concept. 1) There must a utility ,such that during creation of screen layout , that screen should be saved in the database(RDBMS) with a screen number. 2) All the Events related to that control should be saved in some other table which will be dynamically mapped during the calling of screen number by the user. 3) When the user call that screen ,a generic function should be invoked which'll call the screen file from the database and apply all the properties ,events,etc at runtime and the final output will be displayed to the user. This POC will help the us to customised the screens according to our usage.also all the code will seperated which can easily be used for some other development process. Thanks Amit Kalra

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  • Why is my quick sort so slow?

    - by user513075
    Hello, I am practicing writing sorting algorithms as part of some interview preparation, and I am wondering if anybody can help me spot why this quick sort is not very fast? It appears to have the correct runtime complexity, but it is slower than my merge sort by a constant factor of about 2. I would also appreciate any comments that would improve my code that don't necessarily answer the question. Thanks a lot for your help! Please don't hesitate to let me know if I have made any etiquette mistakes. This is my first question here. private class QuickSort implements Sort { @Override public int[] sortItems(int[] ts) { List<Integer> toSort = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for (int i : ts) { toSort.add(i); } toSort = partition(toSort); int[] ret = new int[ts.length]; for (int i = 0; i < toSort.size(); i++) { ret[i] = toSort.get(i); } return ret; } private List<Integer> partition(List<Integer> toSort) { if (toSort.size() <= 1) return toSort; int pivotIndex = myRandom.nextInt(toSort.size()); Integer pivot = toSort.get(pivotIndex); toSort.remove(pivotIndex); List<Integer> left = new ArrayList<Integer>(); List<Integer> right = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for (int i : toSort) { if (i > pivot) right.add(i); else left.add(i); } left = partition(left); right = partition(right); left.add(pivot); left.addAll(right); return left; } }

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  • Longer execution through Java shell than console?

    - by czuk
    I have a script in Python which do some computations. When I run this script in console it takes about 7 minutes to complete but when I run it thought Java shell it takes three times longer. I use following code to execute the script in Java: this.p = Runtime.getRuntime().exec("script.py --batch", envp); this.input = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream())); this.output = new BufferedWriter(new OutputStreamWriter(p.getOutputStream())); this.error = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getErrorStream())); Do you have any suggestion why the Python script runs three time longer in Java than in a console? update The computation goes as follow: Java sends data to the Python. Python reads the data. Python generates a decision tree --- this is a long operation. Python sends a confirmation that the tree is ready. Java receives the confirmation. Later there is a series of communications between Java and Python but it takes only several second.

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  • Does the pointer to free() have to point to beginning of the memory block, or can it point to the interior?

    - by Lambert
    The question is in the title... I searched but couldn't find anything. Edit: I don't really see any need to explain this, but because people think that what I'm saying makes no sense (and that I'm asking the wrong questions), here's the problem: Since people seem to be very interested in the "root" cause of all the problem rather than the actual question asked (since that apparently helps things get solved better, let's see if it does), here's the problem: I'm trying to make a D runtime library based on NTDLL.dll, so that I can use that library for subsystems other than the Win32 subsystem. So that forces me to only link with NTDLL.dll. Yes, I'm aware that the functions are "undocumented" and could change at any time (even though I'd bet a hundred dollars that wcstombs will still do the same exact thing 20 years from now, if it still exists). Yes, I know people (especially Microsoft) don't like developers linking to that library, and that I'll probably get criticized for the right here. And yes, those two points above mean that programs like chkdsk and defragmenters that run before the Win32 subsystem aren't even supposed to be created in the first place, because it's literally impossible to link with anything like kernel32.dll or msvcrt.dll and still have NT-native executables, so we developers should just pretend that those stages are meant to be forever out of our reaches. But no, I doubt that anyone here would like me to paste a few thousand lines of code and help me look through them and try to figure out why memory allocations that aren't failing are being rejected by the source code I'm modifying. So that's why I asked about a different problem than the "root" cause, even though that's supposedly known to be the best practice by the community. If things still don't make sense, feel free to post comments below! :)

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  • Calling private constructors with Reflection.Emit?

    - by Jakob Botsch Nielsen
    I'm trying to emit the following IL: LocalBuilder pointer = il.DeclareLocal(typeof(IntPtr)); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); il.Emit(OpCodes.Stloc, pointer); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ldloca, pointer); il.Emit(OpCodes.Call, typeof(IntPtr).GetMethod("ToPointer")); il.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); The delegate I bind with has the signature void* TestDelegate(IntPtr ptr) It throws the exception Operation could destabilize the runtime. Anyone knows what's wrong? EDIT: Alright, so I got the IL working now. The entire goal of this was to be able to call a private constructor. The private constructor takes a pointer so I can't use normal reflection. Now.. When I call it, I get an exception saying Attempt by method <built method> to access method <private constructor> failed. Apparently it's performing security checks - but from experience I know that Reflection is able to do private stuff like this normally, so hopefully there is a way to disable that check?

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  • Constructing a WeakReference<T> throws COMException

    - by ChaseMedallion
    The following code: IDisposable d = ... new WeakReference<IDisposable>(d); Has started throwing the following exception on SOME machines. What could cause this? System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException: Unspecified error (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004005 (E_FAIL)) EDIT: the machines that experience the error are running Windows Server 2008 R2. Windows Server 2012 and desktop machines running windows 7 work fine. (this is true, but I now think a different issue is the relevant difference... see below). EDIT: as an additional note, this occurred right after updating our codebase to Entity Framework 6.1.1.-beta1. In the above code, The IDisposable is a class which wraps an EF DbContext. EDIT: why the votes to close? EDIT: the stack trace of the failure ends at the WeakReference<T> constructor called in the above code: at System.WeakReference`1..ctor(T target, Boolean trackResurrection) // from here on down it's code we wrote/simple LINQ. None of this code has changed recently; // we just upgraded to EF6 and saw this failure start happening at Core.Data.EntityFrameworkDataContext.RegisterDependentDisposable(IDisposable child) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.GetConstructorParameter[TService](Type parameterType) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectListIterator`2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer`1..ctor(IEnumerable`1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.CreateService[TService]() at MVC controller action method EDIT: it turns out that the machines having issues with this were running AppDynamics. Uninstalling that seems to have removed the issue.

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  • Google Chrome Extension : Port: Could not establish connection. Receiving end does not exist

    - by tcornelis
    I have been looking for an answer for almost a week now, but having read all the stackoverflow items i can't seem to find a solution that is working for me. The error that i'm having is : Port: Could not establish connection. Receiving end does not exist. lastError:30 set lastError:30 dispatchOnDisconnect messaging:277 folder layout : img developer_icon.png js sidebar.js main.js jquery-2.0.3.js manifest.json my the manifest.json file looks something like this (it is version 2) :` "browser_action": { "default_icon": "./img/developer_icon.png" }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["*://*/*"], "js": ["./js/sidebar.js"], "run_at": "document_end" } ], "background" : { "scripts" : ["./js/main.js","./js/jquery-2.0.3.js"] }, I want to handle the user clicking the extension icon so i could inject a sidebar in the existing website (because the extension i would like to develop requires that amount of space). So in main.js : chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function(tab) { chrome.tabs.getSelected(null, function(tab){ chrome.tabs.sendMessage( //Selected tab id tab.id, //Params inside a object data {callFunction: "toggleSidebar"}, //Optional callback function function(response) { console.log(response); } ); }); }); and in sidebar.js : chrome.runtime.onMessage.addListener(function(req,sender,sendResponse){ console.log("sidebar handling request"); toggleSidebar(); }); but i'm never able to see the console.log in my console because of the error. Does someone know what i did wrong? Thanks in advance!

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  • ActionScript / AIR - One Button Limit (Exclusive Touch) For Mobile Devices?

    - by TheDarkIn1978
    two years ago, when i was developing an application for the iPhone, i used the following built-in system method on all of my buttons: [button setExclusiveTouch:YES]; essentially, if you had many buttons on screen, this method insured that the application wouldn't be permitted do crazy things when several button events firing at the same time as any new button press would cancel all others. problematic: ButtonA and ButtonB are available. each button has a mouse up event which fire a specific animated (tweened) reorganization/layout of the UI. if both button's events are fired at the same time, their events will likely conflict, causing a strange new layout, perhaps a runtime error. solution: application buttons cancel any current pending mouse up events when said button enters mouse down. private function mouseDownEventHandler(evt:MouseEvent):void { //if other buttons are currently in a mouse down state ready to fire //a mouse up event, cancel them all here. } of course it's simple to manually handle this if there are only a few buttons on stage, but managing buttons becomes more and more complicated / bug-prone if there are several / many buttons available. is there a convenience method available in AIR specifically for this functionality?

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  • Dereferencing the null pointer

    - by zilgo
    The standard says that dereferencing the null pointer leads to undefined behaviour. But what is "the null pointer"? In the following code, what we call "the null pointer": struct X { static X* get() { return reinterpret_cast<X*>(1); } void f() { } }; int main() { X* x = 0; (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (1) x = X::get(); (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (2) x = reinterpret_cast<X*>( X::get() - X::get() ); (*x).f(); // the null pointer? (3) (*(X*)0).f(); // I think that this the only null pointer here (4) } My thought is that dereferencing of the null pointer takes place only in the last case. Am I right? Is there difference between compile time null pointers and runtime according to C++ Standard?

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  • What files does JDIC need to run?

    - by Domchi
    I'm trying to call JDIC from my application, but I can't get it to run. What files do I need and where? From what I've been able to gather from their site, I basically need to put jdic.jar in classpath... however there is also a lib folder with jdic.jar with a bit different size, and jdic_native_applet.jar, jdic_stub_unix.jar, jdic_stub_windows.jar and several folders with what I gather are platform specific files. I get this exception when instantiating AssociationService: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.jdesktop.jdic.filetypes.internal.AppAssociationReaderFactory_windows at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at org.jdesktop.jdic.filetypes.AssociationService.<init>(Unknown Source) at QuickTest.main(QuickTest.java:101) I've tried last "official" release and last alpha release. I'm running Java 6 and Win7 64bit. Does JDIC even work under Win7 (or 64bit, although I use 32bit Java)? I see no release after 2006, and no activity in the project after about 2008... while Win7 came in 2009. I know that parts of JDIC, like Desktop, were included in Java 6, however that doesn't seem to be the case with file associations. And if it doesn't, are there any (hopefully cross-platform) alternatives for managing file associations? There are some things for Windows only that I tried, but that requires running native commands with administrator privileges which I don't know how to pull, apart from asking user to run my app as administrator and then use Runtime.exec()... If there are no alternatives to JDIC, I'm interested if anyone has managed to handle file associations well with cross-platform installers?

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  • How do I prevent qFatal() from aborting the application?

    - by Dave
    My Qt application uses Q_ASSERT_X, which calls qFatal(), which (by default) aborts the application. That's great for the application, but I'd like to suppress that behavior when unit testing the application. (I'm using the Google Test Framework.) I have by unit tests in a separate project, statically linking to the class I'm testing. The documentation for qFatal() reads: Calls the message handler with the fatal message msg. If no message handler has been installed, the message is printed to stderr. Under Windows, the message is sent to the debugger. If you are using the default message handler this function will abort on Unix systems to create a core dump. On Windows, for debug builds, this function will report a _CRT_ERROR enabling you to connect a debugger to the application. ... To supress the output at runtime, install your own message handler with qInstallMsgHandler(). So here's my main.cpp file: #include <gtest/gtest.h> #include <QApplication> void testMessageOutput(QtMsgType type, const char *msg) { switch (type) { case QtDebugMsg: fprintf(stderr, "Debug: %s\n", msg); break; case QtWarningMsg: fprintf(stderr, "Warning: %s\n", msg); break; case QtCriticalMsg: fprintf(stderr, "Critical: %s\n", msg); break; case QtFatalMsg: fprintf(stderr, "My Fatal: %s\n", msg); break; } } int main(int argc, char **argv) { qInstallMsgHandler(testMessageOutput); testing::InitGoogleTest(&argc, argv); return RUN_ALL_TESTS(); } But my application is still stopping at the assert. I can tell that my custom handler is being called, because the output when running my tests is: My Fatal: ASSERT failure in MyClass::doSomething: "doSomething()", file myclass.cpp, line 21 The program has unexpectedly finished. What can I do so that my tests keep running even when an assert fails?

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  • JQuery - Set TBODY

    - by Villager
    Hello, I have a table defined as follows: <table id="myTable" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <thead><tr> <th>Date</th> <th>First Name</th> <th>Last Name</th> </tr></thead> <tbody> <!-- rows will go here --> </tbody> </table> I am trying to dynamically populate 'myTable' at runtime via JavaScript. To accomodate for this, I am using JQuery. I want to write some HTML into the tbody element within 'myTable'. However, I am having problems understanding how to do this with the selectors. I know that I can get 'myTable' using: $("#myTable") I know that I can set the HTML of myTable by using the following: $("#myTable").html(someHtmlString); However, that sets the HTML of the entire table. In reality, I just want to set the HTML within the TBODY of 'myTable'. How do I do this with JQuery? Thank you!

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  • OOP design issue: Polymorphism

    - by Graham Phillips
    I'm trying to solve a design issue using inheritance based polymorphism and dynamic binding. I have an abstract superclass and two subclasses. The superclass contains common behaviour. SubClassA and SubClassB define some different methods: SubClassA defines a method performTransform(), but SubClassB does not. So the following example 1 var v:SuperClass; 2 var b:SubClassB = new SubClassB(); 3 v = b; 4 v.performTransform(); would cause a compile error on line 4 as performTransform() is not defined in the superclass. We can get it to compile by casting... (v as SubClassA).performTransform(); however, this will cause a runtime exception to be thrown as v is actually an instance of SubClassB, which also does not define performTransform() So we can get around that by testing the type of an object before casting it: if( typeof v == SubClassA) { (cast v to SubClassA).performTransform(); } That will ensure that we only call performTransform() on v's that are instances of SubClassA. That's a pretty inelegant solution to my eyes, but at least its safe. I have used interface based polymorphism (interface meaning a type that can't be instantiated and defines the API of classes that implement it) in the past, but that also feels clunky. For the above case, if SubClassA and SubClassB implemented ISuperClass that defined performTransform, then they would both have to implement performTransform(). If SubClassB had no real need for a performTransform() you would have to implement an empty function. There must be a design pattern out there that addresses the issue.

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  • Boost::Thread linking error on OSX?

    - by gct
    So I'm going nuts trying to figure this one out. Here's my basic setup: I'm compiling a shared library with a bunch of core functionality that uses a lot of boost stuff. We'll call this library libpf_core.so. It's linked with the boost static libraries, specifically the python, system, filesystem, thread, and program_options libraries. This all goes swimmingly. Now, I have a little test program called test_socketio which is compiled into a shared library (it's loaded as a plugin at runtime). It uses some boost stuff like boost::bind and boost::thread, and it's linked again libpf_core.so (which has the boost libraries included remember). When I go to compile test_socketio though, out of all my plugins it gives me a linking error: [ Building test_socketio ] g++ -c -pg -g -O0 -I/usr/local/include -I../include test_socketio.cc -o test_socketio.o g++ -shared test_socketio.o -lpy_core -o test_socketio.so Undefined symbols: "boost::lock_error::lock_error()", referenced from: boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex>::lock() in test_socketio.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status And I'm going crazy trying to figure out why this is. I've tried explicitly linking boost::thread into the plugin to no avail, tried ensuring that I'm using the boost headers associated with the libraries linked into libpf_core.so in case there was a conflict there. Is there something OSX specific regarding boost that I'm missing? In my searching on google I've seen a number of other people get this error but no one seems to have come up with a satisfactory solution.

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  • Using virtualization infrastructure for J2EE application distribution- viable alternative?

    - by Dan
    Our company builds custom J2EE web solutions. At the moment, we use standard J2EE distribution mechanisms (ear/war archives). Application servers are generally administered by our clients' IT departments and since we do not have complete control over the environment, a lot of entropy can be introduced into the solution. For example: latest app. server patch not applied conflicting third party libraries inside the app. server root server runtime and tuning parameters not configured (for example, number of connections in database pool) We are looking into using virtualization infrastructure for J2EE application distribution. Instead of sending the ear/war archive, we’d send image with application server node and our application preinstalled. Some of the benefits are same as using with using virtualization infrastructure in general, namely better use of hardware resources. For us, it reduces the entropy of hosting infrastructure - distributing VM should be less affected by hosting environment. So far, the downside I see can be in application server licenses, here they will have to use dedicated servers for our solution, but this is generally already done that way. Also, there is a complexity with maintaining virtualization infrastructure, but this is often something IT departments have more experience with than with administering and fine-tuning J2EE solutions. Anyone has experience with this model? What are the downsides? Will we not just replace one type of complexity with other?

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  • Linq-to-XML explicit casting in a generic method

    - by vlad
    I've looked for a similar question, but the only one that was close didn't help me in the end. I have an XML file that looks like this: <Fields> <Field name="abc" value="2011-01-01" /> <Field name="xyz" value="" /> <Field name="tuv" value="123.456" /> </Fields> I'm trying to use Linq-to-XML to get the values from these fields. The values can be of type Decimal, DateTime, String and Int32. I was able to get the fields one by one using a relatively simple query. For example, I'm getting the 'value' from the field with the name 'abc' using the following: private DateTime GetValueFromAttribute(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == "abc" select (DateTime)field.Attribute("value")).FirstOrDefault() } this is placed in a separate function that simply returns this value, and everything works fine (since I know that there is only one element with the name attribute set to 'abc'). however, since I have to do this for decimals and integers and dates, I was wondering if I can make a generic function that works in all cases. this is where I got stuck. here's what I have so far: private T GetValueFromAttribute<T>(IEnumerable<XElement> fields, String attName) { return (from field in fields where field.Attribute("name").Value == attName select (T)field.Attribute("value").Value).FirstOrDefault(); } this doesn't compile because it doesn't know how to convert from String to T. I tried boxing and unboxing (i.e. select (T) (Object) field.Attribute("value").Value but that throws a runtime Specified cast is not valid exception as it's trying to convert the String to a DateTime, for instance. Is this possible in a generic function? can I put a constraint on the generic function to make it work? or do I have to have separate functions to take advantage of Linq-to-XML's explicit cast operators?

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