Search Results

Search found 5333 results on 214 pages for 'mem fun ref'.

Page 182/214 | < Previous Page | 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189  | Next Page >

  • How to collect and inject all beans of a given type in Spring XML configuration

    - by GrzegorzOledzki
    One of the strongest accents of the Spring framework is the Dependency Injection concept. I understand one of the advices behind that is to separate general high-level mechanism from low-level details (as announced by Dependency Inversion Principle). Technically, that boils down to having a bean implementation to know as little as possible about a bean being injected as a dependency, e.g. public class PrintOutBean { private LogicBean logicBean; public void action() { System.out.println(logicBean.humanReadableDetails()); } //... } <bean class="PrintOutBean"> <property name="loginBean" ref="ShoppingCartBean"/> </bean> But what if I wanted to a have a high-level mechanism operating on multiple dependent beans? public class MenuManagementBean { private Collection<Option> options; public void printOut() { for (Option option:options) { // do something for option } //... } } I know one solution would be to use @Autowired annotation in the singleton bean, that is... @Autowired private Collection<Option> options; But doesn't it violate the separation principle? Why do I have to specify what dependents to take in the very same place I use them (i.e. MenuManagementBean class in my example)? Is there a way to inject collections of beans in the XML configuration like this (without any annotation in the MMB class)? <bean class="MenuManagementBean"> <property name="options"> <xxx:autowire by-type="MyOptionImpl"/> </property> </bean>

    Read the article

  • Should developers *really* have private offices?

    - by Aron Rotteveel
    We will probably be moving within a year, so we have to make some decisions regarding office layout. At the moment, our company is basically one big office. When our developers can't bother to be disturbed at all, we all have our own headphones to mute the outside world. Still, it seems a lot of people feel that private offices are no doubt the way to go. From Joel's article Private Offices Redux: Not every programmer in the world wants to work in a private office. In fact quite a few would tell you unequivocally that they prefer the camaradarie and easy information sharing of an open space. Don't fall for it. They also want M&Ms for breakfast and a pony. Open space is fun but not productive. Even though I can understand the benefit on productivity, does having a private office really result in more net productivity? There seem to be plenty of companies that create wide open spaces and still maintain good productivity. Or so it seems. (I should mention many of them use cubicles, though) What is your opinion on this? What does your company do? Is there some middle ground in this? Some more related information on this matter: Private Offices Redux The new Fog Creek office A Field Guide to Developers Gmail recruitment page. Found this last one somewhat remarkable since the Gmail recruitment page promotes the "wide open space" idea.

    Read the article

  • How to make a program not show up in Alt-Tab or on the taskbar.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I have a program that needs to sit in the background and when a user connects to a RDP session it will do some stuff then launch a program. when the program is closed it will do some housekeeping and logoff the session. The current way I am doing it is like this I have the terminal server launch this application. I have it set as a windows forms application and my code is this public static void Main() { //Do some setup work Process proc = new Process(); //setup the process proc.Start(); proc.WaitForExit(); //Do some housecleaning NativeMethods.ExitWindowsEx(0, 0); } I really like this because there is no item in the taskbar and there is nothing showing up in alt-tab. However to do this I gave up access to functions like void WndProc(ref Message m) So Now I can't listen to windows messages (Like WTS_REMOTE_DISCONNECT or WTS_SESSION_LOGOFF) and do not have a handle to use for for bool WTSRegisterSessionNotification(IntPtr hWnd, int dwFlags); I would like my code to be more robust so it will do the housecleaning if the user logs off or disconnects from the session before he closes the program. Any reccomendations on how I can have my cake and eat it too?

    Read the article

  • XNA: What can cause SpriteBatch.End() to throw a NRE?

    - by Rosarch
    I don't understand what I'm doing wrong here: public void Draw(GameTime gameTime) // in ScreenManager { SpriteBatch.Begin(SpriteBlendMode.AlphaBlend); for (int i = 0; i < Screens.Count; i++) { if (Screens[i].State == Screen.ScreenState.HIDDEN) continue; Screens[i].Draw(gameTime); } SpriteBatch.End(); // null ref exception } SpriteBatch itself is not null. Some more context: public class MasterEngine : Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Game { public MasterEngine() { graphicsDeviceManager = new GraphicsDeviceManager(this); Components.Add(new GamerServicesComponent(this)); // ... spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); screenManager = new ScreenManager(assets, gameEngine, graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice, spriteBatch); } //... protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { screenManager.Draw(gameTime); // calls the problematic method base.Draw(gameTime); } } Am I failing to initialize something properly? UPDATE: As an experiment, I tried this to the constructor of MasterEngine: spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.DrawString(assets.GetAsset<SpriteFont>("calibri"), "ftw", new Vector2(), Color.White); spriteBatch.End(); This does not cause a NRE. hmm.... UPDATE 2: This does cause an NRE: protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.End(); // boned here //screenManager.Draw(gameTime); base.Draw(gameTime); }

    Read the article

  • Calling from C# to C function which accept a struct array allocated by caller

    - by lifey
    I have the following C struct struct XYZ { void *a; char fn[MAX_FN]; unsigned long l; unsigned long o; }; And I want to call the following function from C#: extern "C" int func(int handle, int *numEntries, XYZ *xyzTbl); Where xyzTbl is an array of XYZ of size numEntires which is allocated by the caller I have defined the following C# struct: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.StructLayoutAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi)] public struct XYZ { public System.IntPtr rva; [System.Runtime.InteropServices.MarshalAsAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst = 128)] public string fn; public uint l; public uint o; } and a method: [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImport(@"xyzdll.dll", CallingConvention = CallingConvention.Cdecl)] public static extern Int32 func(Int32 handle, ref Int32 numntries, [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPArray)] XYZ[] arr); Then I try to call the function : XYZ xyz = new XYZ[numEntries]; for (...) xyz[i] = new XYZ(); func(handle,numEntries,xyz); Of course it does not work. Can someone shed light on what I am doing wrong ?

    Read the article

  • How operator oveloading works

    - by Rasmi Ranjan Nayak
    I have below code class rectangle { ..... .....//Some code int operator+(rectangle r1) { return(r1.length+length); } }; In main fun. int main() { rectangle r1(10,20); rectangle r2(40,60); rectangle r3(30,60); int len = r1+r3; } Here if we will see in operator+(), we are doing r1.length + length. How the compiler comes to know that the 2nd length in return statement belong to object r3 not to r1 or r2? I think answer may be in main() we have writeen int len = r1+r3; If that is the case then why do we need to write in operator+(....) { r1.lenth + lenth; //Why not length + length? } Why not length + length? Bcause compiler already knows from main() that the first length belong to object r1 and 2nd to object r3.

    Read the article

  • why malloc+memset slower than calloc?

    - by kingkai
    It's known that calloc differentiates itself with malloc in which it initializes the memory alloted. With calloc, the memory is set to zero. With malloc, the memory is not cleared. So in everyday work, i regard calloc as malloc+memset. Incidentally, for fun, i wrote the following codes for benchmark. The result is confused. Code 1: #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> #define BLOCK_SIZE 1024*1024*256 int main() { int i=0; char *buf[10]; while(i<10) { buf[i] = (char*)calloc(1,BLOCK_SIZE); i++; } } time ./a.out real 0m0.287s user 0m0.095s sys 0m0.192s Code 2: #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> #include<string.h> #define BLOCK_SIZE 1024*1024*256 int main() { int i=0; char *buf[10]; while(i<10) { buf[i] = (char*)malloc(BLOCK_SIZE); memset(buf[i],'\0',BLOCK_SIZE); i++; } } time ./a.out real 0m2.693s user 0m0.973s sys 0m1.721s Repalce memset with bzero(buf[i],BLOCK_SIZE) in Code 2 produce the result alike. My Question is that why malloc+memset is so much slower than calloc? How can calloc do that ? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • F# - POCO Class

    - by ebb
    Hey there! I'm trying to write a POCO class in proper F#... But something is wrong.. The C# code that I want to "translate" to proper F# is: public class MyTest { [Key] public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } The closest I can come to the above code in F# is something like: type Mytest() = let mutable _id : int = 0; let mutable _name : string = null; [<KeyAttribute>] member x.ID with public get() : int = _id and public set(value) = _id <- value member x.Name with public get() : string = _name and public set value = _name <- value However when I try to access the properties of the F# version it just returns a compile error saying "Lookup on object of indeterminate type based on information prior to this program point. A type annotation may be needed prior to this program point to constrain the type of the object. This may allow the lookup to be resolved." The code thats trying to get the property is a part of my Repository (I'm using EF Code First). module Databasethings = let GetEntries = let ctx = new SevenContext() let mydbset = ctx.Set<MyTest>() let entries = mydbset.Select(fun item -> item.Name).ToList() // This line comes up with a compile error at "item.Name" (the compile error is written above) entries What the hell is going on? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How does PHP interface with Apache?

    - by Sbm007
    Hi, I've almost finished writing a HTTP/1.0 compliant web server under Java (no commercial usage as such, this is just for fun) and basically I want to include PHP support. I realize that this is no easy task at all, but I think it'll be a nice accomplishment. So I want to know how PHP exactly interfaces with the Apache web server (or any other web server really), so I can learn from it and write my own PHP wrapper. It doesn't necessarily have to be mod_php, I don't mind writing a FastCGI wrapper - which to my knowledge is capable of running PHP as well. I would've thought that all that PHP needs is the output that goes to client (so it can interpret the PHP parts), the full HTTP request from client (so it can extract POST variables and such) and the client's host name. And then you simply take the parsed PHP code and write that to the output stream. There will probably be more things, but in essence that's how I would have thought it works. From what I've gathered so far, apache2handler provides an API which PHP makes use of to 'connect' to Apache. I guess it's an idea to look at the source code for apache2handler and php5apache2.dll or so, but before I do that I thought I'd ask SO first. If anyone has more information, experience, or some sort of specification that is relevant to this then please let me know. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • C# XNA: What can cause SpriteBatch.End() to throw a NRE?

    - by Rosarch
    I don't understand what I'm doing wrong here: public void Draw(GameTime gameTime) // in ScreenManager { SpriteBatch.Begin(SpriteBlendMode.AlphaBlend); for (int i = 0; i < Screens.Count; i++) { if (Screens[i].State == Screen.ScreenState.HIDDEN) continue; Screens[i].Draw(gameTime); } SpriteBatch.End(); // null ref exception } SpriteBatch itself is not null. Some more context: public class MasterEngine : Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Game { public MasterEngine() { graphicsDeviceManager = new GraphicsDeviceManager(this); Components.Add(new GamerServicesComponent(this)); // ... spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); screenManager = new ScreenManager(assets, gameEngine, graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice, spriteBatch); } //... protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { screenManager.Draw(gameTime); // calls the problematic method base.Draw(gameTime); } } Am I failing to initialize something properly? UPDATE: As an experiment, I tried this to the constructor of MasterEngine: spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.DrawString(assets.GetAsset<SpriteFont>("calibri"), "ftw", new Vector2(), Color.White); spriteBatch.End(); This does not cause a NRE. hmm.... UPDATE 2: This does cause an NRE: protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.End(); // boned here //screenManager.Draw(gameTime); base.Draw(gameTime); }

    Read the article

  • Does Interlocked guarantee visibility to other threads in C# or do I still have to use volatile?

    - by Lirik
    I've been reading the answer to a similar question, but I'm still a little confused... Abel had a great answer, but this is the part that I'm unsure about: ...declaring a variable volatile makes it volatile for every single access. It is impossible to force this behavior any other way, hence volatile cannot be replaced with Interlocked. This is needed in scenarios where other libraries, interfaces or hardware can access your variable and update it anytime, or need the most recent version. Does Interlocked guarantee visibility of the atomic operation to all threads, or do I still have to use the volatile keyword on the value in order to guarantee visibility of the change? Here is my example: public class CountDownLatch { private volatile int m_remain; // <--- do I need the volatile keyword there since I'm using Interlocked? private EventWaitHandle m_event; public CountDownLatch (int count) { Reset(count); } public void Reset(int count) { if (count < 0) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException(); m_remain = count; m_event = new ManualResetEvent(false); if (m_remain == 0) { m_event.Set(); } } public void Signal() { // The last thread to signal also sets the event. if (Interlocked.Decrement(ref m_remain) == 0) m_event.Set(); } public void Wait() { m_event.WaitOne(); } }

    Read the article

  • When is a try catch not a try catch?

    - by Dearmash
    I have a fun issue where during application shutdown, try / catch blocks are being seemingly ignored in the stack. I don't have a working test project (yet due to deadline, otherwise I'd totally try to repro this), but consider the following code snippet. public static string RunAndPossiblyThrow(int index, bool doThrow) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { if(doThrow) throw; } return ""; } public static string Run(int index) { if(_store.Contains(index)) return _store[index]; throw new ApplicationException("index not found"); } public static string RunAndIgnoreThrow(int index) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { } return ""; } During runtime this pattern works famously. We get legacy support for code that relies on exceptions for program control (bad) and we get to move forward and slowly remove exceptions used for program control. However, when shutting down our UI, we see an exception thrown from "Run" even though "doThrow" is false for ALL current uses of "RunAndPossiblyThrow". I've even gone so far as to verify this by modifying code to look like "RunAndIgnoreThrow" and I'll still get a crash post UI shutdown. Mr. Eric Lippert, I read your blog daily, I'd sure love to hear it's some known bug and I'm not going crazy. EDIT This is multi-threaded, and I've verified all objects are not modified while being accessed

    Read the article

  • Having a problem inserting into database

    - by neo skosana
    I have a stored procedure: CREATE PROCEDURE busi_reg(IN instruc VARCHAR(10), IN tble VARCHAR(20), IN busName VARCHAR(50), IN busCateg VARCHAR(100), IN busType VARCHAR(50), IN phne VARCHAR(20), IN addrs VARCHAR(200), IN cty VARCHAR(50), IN prvnce VARCHAR(50), IN pstCde VARCHAR(10), IN nm VARCHAR(20), IN surname VARCHAR(20), IN eml VARCHAR(50), IN pswd VARCHAR(20), IN srce VARCHAR(50), IN refr VARCHAR(50), IN sess VARCHAR(50)) BEGIN INSERT INTO b_register SET business_name = busName, business_category = busCateg, business_type = busType, phone = phne, address = addrs, city = cty, province = prvnce, postal_code = pstCde, firstname = nm, lastname = surname, email = eml, password = pswd, source = srce, ref_no = refr; END; This is my php script: $busName = $_POST['bus_name']; $busCateg = $_POST['bus_cat']; $busType = $_POST['bus_type']; $phne = $_POST['phone']; $addrs = $_POST['address']; $cty = $_POST['city']; $prvnce = $_POST['province']; $pstCde = $_POST['postCode']; $nm = $_POST['name']; $surname = $_POST['lname']; $eml = $_POST['email']; $srce = $_POST['source']; $ref = $_POST['ref_no']; $result2 = $db->query("CALL busi_reg('$instruc', '$tble', '$busName', '$busCateg', '$busType', '$phne', '$addrs', '$cty', '$prvnce', '$pstCde', '$nm', '$surname', '$eml', '$pswd', '$srce', '$refr', '')"); if($result) { echo "Data has been saved"; } else { printf("Error: %s\n",$db->error); } Now the error that I get: Commands out of sync; you can't run this command now

    Read the article

  • What Test Environment Setup do Top Project Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

    - by viatropos
    Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

    Read the article

  • Creating Settings form using TreeView in C#

    - by Kiran Chandrashekhar
    I am developing the settings form for the software developed in C#. I was looking at how different software have implemented their settings form. In most of the cases that I came across, they seem to be using Treeview on the left pane of the form and configuration settings on the right pane. Ref URL : http://2.bp.blogspot.com/-nMfQoLurxwM/UDXfiZKd4DI/AAAAAAAAAME/IRf6kmxay4w/s1600/bild1.jpg I was wondering, how the different controls are designed/displayed on the right pane. Do they hide all the controls depending which node is selected in the TreeView something like this : if (treeView1.SelectedNode == treeView1.Nodes[0]) { this.groupBox1.Visible = true; this.button1.Visible = true; this.textBox1.Visible = true; this.textBox2.Visible = true; this.label1.Visible = true; this.label2.Visible = true; this.label3.Visible = true; } else { this.groupBox1.Visible = false; this.button1.Visible = false; this.textBox1.Visible = false; this.textBox2.Visible = false; this.label1.Visible = false; this.label2.Visible = false; this.label3.Visible = false; this.groupBox2.Visible = true; this.button2.Visible = true; this.textBox3.Visible = true; this.textBox3.Visible = true; this.labe4.Visible = true; this.label5.Visible = true; this.label6.Visible = true; // bool success = selectColor(); } Is my understanding correct ? Or do we have a better design approach for creating a settings form. Thanks

    Read the article

  • [Apache] Creating rewrite rules for multiple urls in the same folder

    - by DavidYell
    I have been asked by our client to convert a site we created into SEO friendly url format. I've managed to crack a small way into this, but have hit a problem with having the same urls in the same folder. I am trying to rewrite the following urls, /review/index.php?cid=intercasino /review/submit.php?cid=intercasino /review/index.php?cid=intercasino&page=2#reviews I would like to get them to, /review/intercasino /submit-review/intercasino /review/intercasino/2#reviews I've almost got it working using the following rule, RewriteRule (submit-review)/(.*)$ review/submit.php?cid=$2 [L] RewriteRule (^review)/(.*) review/index.php?cid=$2 The problem, you may already see, is that /submit-review rewrites to /review, which in turn gets rewritten to index.php, thus my review submission page is lost in place of my index page. I figured that putting [L] would prevent the second rule being called, but it seems that it rewrites both urls in two seperate passes. I've also tried [QSE], and [S=1] I would rather not have to move my files into different folders to get the rewriting to work, as that just seems too much like bad practise. If anyone could give me some pointers on how to differentiate between these similar urls that would be great! Thanks (Ref: http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.0/mod/mod_rewrite.html)

    Read the article

  • What are the benefits of `while(condition) { //work }` and `do { //work } while(condition)`?

    - by Shaharyar
    I found myself confronted with an interview question where the goal was to write a sorting algorithm that sorts an array of unsorted int values: int[] unsortedArray = { 9, 6, 3, 1, 5, 8, 4, 2, 7, 0 }; Now I googled and found out that there are so many sorting algorithms out there! Finally I could motivate myself to dig into Bubble Sort because it seemed pretty simple to start with. I read the sample code and came to a solution looking like this: static int[] BubbleSort(ref int[] array) { long lastItemLocation = array.Length - 1; int temp; bool swapped; do { swapped = false; for (int itemLocationCounter = 0; itemLocationCounter < lastItemLocation; itemLocationCounter++) { if (array[itemLocationCounter] > array[itemLocationCounter + 1]) { temp = array[itemLocationCounter]; array[itemLocationCounter] = array[itemLocationCounter + 1]; array[itemLocationCounter + 1] = temp; swapped = true; } } } while (swapped); return array; } I clearly see that this is a situation where the do { //work } while(cond) statement is a great help to be and prevents the use of another helper variable. But is this the only case that this is more useful or do you know any other application where this condition has been used?

    Read the article

  • Why can't I extract a C++ type from a Python type using boost::python::extractor?

    - by Robin
    I've wrapped a C++ class using Py++ and everything is working great in Python. I can instantiate the c++ class, call methods, etc. I'm now trying to embed some Python into a C++ application. This is also working fine for the most-part. I can call functions on a Python module, get return values, etc. The python code I'm calling returns one of the classes that I wrapped: import _myextension as myext def run_script(arg): my_cpp_class = myext.MyClass() return my_cpp_class I'm calling this function from C++ like this: // ... excluding error checking, ref counting, etc. for brevity ... PyObject *pModule, *pFunc, *pArgs, *pReturnValue; Py_Initialize(); pModule = PyImport_Import(PyString_FromString("cpp_interface")); pFunc = PyObject_GetAttrString(pModule, "run_script"); pArgs = PyTuple_New(1); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, PyString_FromString("an arg")); pReturnValue = PyObject_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); bp::extract< MyClass& > extractor(pReturnValue); // PROBLEM IS HERE if (extractor.check()) { // This check is always false MyClass& cls = extractor(); } The problem is the extractor never actually extracts/converts the PyObject* to MyClass (i.e. extractor.check() is always false). According to the docs this is the correct way to extract a wrapped C++ class. I've tried returning basic data types (ints/floats/dicts) from the Python function and all of them are extracted properly. Is there something I'm missing? Is there another way to get the data and cast to MyClass?

    Read the article

  • Preallocating memory with C++ in realtime environment

    - by Elazar Leibovich
    I'm having a function which gets an input buffer of n bytes, and needs an auxillary buffer of n bytes in order to process the given input buffer. (I know vector is allocating memory at runtime, let's say that I'm using a vector which uses static preallocated memory. Imagine this is NOT an STL vector.) The usual approach is void processData(vector<T> &vec) { vector<T> &aux = new vector<T>(vec.size()); //dynamically allocate memory // process data } //usage: processData(v) Since I'm working in a real time environment, I wish to preallocate all the memory I'll ever need in advance. The buffer is allocated only once at startup. I want that whenever I'm allocating a vector, I'll automatically allocate auxillary buffer for my processData function. I can do something similar with a template function static void _processData(vector<T> &vec,vector<T> &aux) { // process data } template<size_t sz> void processData(vector<T> &vec) { static aux_buffer[sz]; vector aux(vec.size(),aux_buffer); // use aux_buffer for the vector _processData(vec,aux); } // usage: processData<V_MAX_SIZE>(v); However working alot with templates is not much fun (now let's recompile everything since I changed a comment!), and it forces me to do some bookkeeping whenever I use this function. Are there any nicer designs around this problem?

    Read the article

  • Ability to switch Persistence Unit dynamically within the application (JPA)

    - by MVK
    My application data access layer is built using Spring and EclipseLink and I am currently trying to implement the following feature - Ability to switch the current/active persistence unit dynamically for a user. I tried various options and finally ended up doing the following. In the persistence.xml, declare multiple PUs. Create a class with as many EntityManagerFactory attributes as there are PUs defined. This will act as a factory and return the appropriate EntityManager based on my logic public class MyEntityManagerFactory { @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_1") private EntityManagerFactory emf1; @PersistenceUnit(unitName="PU_2") private EntityManagerFactory emf2; public EntityManager getEntityManager(int releaseId) { // Logic goes here to return the appropriate entityManeger } } My spring-beans xml looks like this.. <!-- First persistence unit --> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean" id="emFactory1"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="PU_1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" id="transactionManager1"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="emFactory1"/> </bean> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="transactionManager1"/> The above section is repeated for the second PU (with names like emFactory2, transactionManager2 etc). I am a JPA newbie and I know that this is not the best solution. I appreciate any assistance in implementing this requirement in a better/elegant way! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Mouse management in JavaScript games

    - by Jakob
    Im using JavaScript, the HTML5 canvas-element and WebGL to make a simple 3D-game in first person view for fun. Ideally, I would like to control my movement by using the keyboard to move and the mouse to look around, like you usually do in FPS-games. As you probably understand, there are some limits to this in the browser, since the mouse cant be captured: When using the onmousemove event, no further movement will be detected when the mouse pointer reaches the border of my screen (which means that I wont be able to run in a circle for example) Seeing the mouse move across the screen is not the end of the world, but it is a little annoying From what I know, it's impossible to hide the mouse as well as setting it's position in JavaScript. Hence, my question is this: If we cant to those things, what can we do in order to get close to the desktop gaming experience when it comes to the mouse in the browser? And I mean right now, using current APIs. Not "what could be changed in some standard to make life easier". Also, I realize that I could use the keyboard to look around, but then we're back in 1995 when Quake were actually played like that. And of course I know that it would be easier to write a desktop application or use Flash at least, but Im trying to push JavaScript's limits here. Apart from those things, what are your suggestions? Any kind of reference, existing game, crazy idea, hack or even browser specific solution would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • UI - How I can make users effectively read what my program says?

    - by Magnetic_dud
    I have a simple form that searches through the 2000+ issues of a 3rd party webcomic. (Easy, it's like xkcd: http://url/number That form is as easy as possible, is like this: What number do you want? User writes a number, clicks ok, and goes on the 3rd party website on a new tab Then, my form asks a question: "Did you find that issue memorable? Enter the name here, and we will add it to the "best issues" in home page" When the user will write the name of the issue, it is added to the database (pending moderation by me) So, I supposed this design is the easiest and convenient that users can find. Unfortunately, NONE of the users (maybe a 2% behaved correctly) will actually read what I asked. Some of the issues are offline, and gives a 404. On that issues users will write in the textbox a completely wrong title, and correctly capitalized! It's like if i would name http://xkcd.com/627/ as "The Great Adventures of Jack Smith" Users are from around all over the country, with different browsers, and have a different cookie. I cannot believe that my users will not read what I ask, it is a WHITE PAGE with a button that disappears when clicked and a textbox.... easier than that??? Maybe i should put a checkbox with "I acknowledge that this form is for submitting memorable issues, not for fun"? Oh, who will read that? Or maybe i could enable the textbox only if the user has effectively clicked the link?

    Read the article

  • PHP/json My field names are being truncated to 30 characters. Can I stop this?

    - by Biff MaGriff
    Hi Everyone! Ok so I got this piece of vendor software that they said should be run on an apache php server and MySql database. I didn't have either of those so I put it on a PHP IIS server and I converted the code to work on SQL server. ex. mysql_select_db - mssql_select_db (among other things) So I have the following code in a php file $query = "SELECT * FROM TableName WHERE KEY_FIELD = '".$keyField."';"; $result = mssql_query($query); $arr = array(); while ( $obj = mssql_fetch_object($result) ) { $arr[] = $obj; } echo '{"results":'.json_encode($arr).'}'; and my results look something like this (captured with fiddler 2) {"results":[{"KEY_FIELD":"57", "My30characterlongfieldthatiscu":"GoodValue"}]} "My30characterlongfieldthatiscu" should be "My30characterlongfieldthatiscutoff" Kinda weird, no? The vendor claims that the app works perfectly on their end. I'm thinking this is some sort of IIS PHP limit, is there a way around it or can I expand it? I found this solution http://www.php.net/manual/en/ref.mssql.php#74834 but I don't understand it. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • XUL: Printing value from SQL query without using value attribute

    - by Grip
    I want to print the results of an SQL query in XUL with word-wrapping using the description tag. I have the following code: <grid> <columns> <column flex="2" /> <column flex="1" /> </columns> <rows datasources="chrome://glossary/content/db/development.sqlite3" ref="?" querytype="storage" > <template> <query>select distinct * from Terms</query> <action> <row uri="?"> <description value="?name" /> <description value="?desc" /> </row> </action> </template> </rows> This works for printing the data, but since I'm using the value attribute of description, there's no word-wrapping. I don't understand entirely what I'm doing with the value attribute, but I don't seem to be able to get the values of my SQL query in any other way. So, how could I get those values without the value tag? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Unable to dismiss MFMailComposeViewController, delegate not called

    - by Rod
    HI, I am calling MFMailComposeViewController from UITableViewController. Problem is, delegate method mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController)controllerdidFinishWithResult* is never called when I select Cancel or Send button in Mail compose window. Here is the table view class: @implementation DetailsTableViewController - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (indexPath.section==0 && indexPath.row==4){ //SEND MAIL MFMailComposeViewController *controller = [[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init]; controller.mailComposeDelegate = self; if ([MFMailComposeViewController canSendMail]) { [controller setSubject:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"Ref %@",[item objectForKey:@"reference"]]]; [controller setMessageBody:@" " isHTML:NO]; [controller setToRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObject:[item objectForKey:@"email"]]]; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; } [controller release]; } } - (void)mailComposeController:(MFMailComposeViewController*)controllerdidFinishWithResult:(MFMailComposeResult)result error:(NSError*)error { // NEVER REACHES THIS PLACE [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; NSLog (@"mail finished"); } The application don't crash. After Cancel or Send button is presses Compose Window stays on the screen with buttons disabled. I can exit application pressing Home key. I am able to open other Modal Views form TableView but not MailCompose.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189  | Next Page >