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  • Development process for an embedded project with significant hardware changes

    - by pierr
    I have a good idea about Agile development process but it seems it does not fit well with a embedded project with significant hardware changes. I will describe below what we are currently doing (Ad-hoc way, no defined process yet). The changes are divided into three categories and different processes are used for each of them: complete hardware change example : use a different video codec IP a) Study the new IP b) RTL/FPGA simulation c) Implement the legacy interface - go to b) d) Wait until hardware (tape out) is ready f) Test on the real hardware hardware improvement example : enhance the image display quality by improving the underlying algorithm a) RTL/FPGA simulation b) Wait until hardware and test on the hardware Minor change example : only change hardware register mapping a) Wait until hardware and test on the hardware The worry is it seems we don't have too much control and confidence about software maturity for the hardware changes as the bring-up schedule is always very tight and the customer desired a seamless change when updating to a new version of hardware. How did you manage this kind of hardware change? Did you solve that by a Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL)? Did you have a automatic test for the HAL layer? How did you test when the hardware platform is not even ready? Do you have well-documented processes for this kind of change?

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  • prototype.js equivalent to jquery ajaxSettings cache = true addthis plugin

    - by openstepmedia
    I need help from a prototype.js expert: I'm trying to achieve the following (taken from the addthis forum), and port the solution from jquery to prototype.js (I'm using magento). Original post is here: http://www.addthis.com/forum/viewtopic.php?f=3&t=22217 For the getScript() function, I can create a custom function to load the remote js, however I'm trying to load the js file via the prototype ajax call, and trying to avoid having the script cached in the browser. <script type="text/javascript" src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#changeURL").click(function() { $(".addthis_button").attr("addthis:url","http://www.example.com"); window.addthis.ost = 0; window.addthis.ready(); }); }); // prevent jQuery from appending cache busting string to the end of the URL var cache = jQuery.ajaxSettings.cache; jQuery.ajaxSettings.cache = true; jQuery.getScript('http://s7.addthis.com/js/250/addthis_widget.js'); // Restore jQuery caching setting jQuery.ajaxSettings.cache = cache; </script> <p id="changeURL">Change URL</p> <a class="addthis_button" addthis:url="http://www.google.com"></a> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://s7.addthis.com/js/250/addthis_widget.js#username=rahf"></script>

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  • We have multiple app servers running against a single database. How do I ensure that each row in a q

    - by Dave
    We have about 7 app servers running .NET windows services that ping a single sql server 2005 queue table and fetch a fixed amount of records to process at fixed intervals. The amount of records to process and the amount of time between fetches are both configurable and are initially set to 100 and 30 seconds initially. Currently, my queue table has an int status column which can be either "Ready, Processing, Complete, Error". The proc that fetches the records has a sql transaction with the following code inside the transaction: 1) Fetch x number of records into temp table where the status is "Ready". The select uses a holdlock hint 2) Update the status on those records in the Queue table to "Processing" The .NET services do some processing that may take seconds or even minutes per record. Another proc is called per record that simply updates the status to "Complete". The update proc has no transaction as I'm leaning on the implicit transaction as part of the update clause here. I don't know the traffic exceptions for this but figure it will be under 10k records per day. Is this the best way to handle this scenario? If so, are there any details that I've left out, such as a hint here or there? Thanks! Dave

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  • Make fancybox jQuery plugin with results from submitting a form on same page

    - by Chase
    I am trying to take form results that are generated from a PHP call and populate them into a div that will then appear in a light box upon click of the submit button. So far I have successfully setup the form and am populating the results on the same page into a hidden div. I can make this div appear no problem in a light box by setting up a href link but cannot make it show up by simply by clicking the submit button. I know my fancybox and jQuery calls are good but not sure where I'm going wrong on the submit button. Here is what I have so far to make it work with a link: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#various1").fancybox({ 'transitionIn' : 'none', 'transitionOut' : 'none', 'scrolling' : 'auto', 'overlayOpacity' : '0' }); }); </script> <a id="various1" href="#inline1" >Inline</a> <div style="display: none;"> <div id="inline1" style="width:500px;height:550px;"> Works great here when you click inline after I have submitted the form. Here is what I tried to make it work with the submit button: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(){ alert('jQTest'); $("#various1").fancybox(); }); }); <input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" value="--> Find" /> I think it has to be some way I'm calling the jQuery for the fancybox or some identifier for the submit button & div because the submit button click is registering fine. Suggestions?

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  • SimpleModal load external HTML page in dialog

    - by Bart
    Is it possible to load an external HTML file into a variable and then use this variable to load the SimpleModal dialog? Something like this: $(document).ready(function($) { var externalPage $.get("Renderer.htm"); $('#basic-modal .basic').click(function(e) { $(externalPage).modal(); return false; }); }); An alternative solution (that works) is loading the external HTML file in a hidden div and then use this to load the dialog. $(document).ready(function($) { $('#simplemodal-content').hide(); // or hide in css $('#simplemodal-content').load("Renderer.htm"); $('#basic-modal .basic').click(function(e) { $('#simplemodal-content').modal(); return false; }); }); However if I take this approach the css defined for the external page can interfere with my local page and thus change the layout, which is not desired. If there's a 3rd solution that's better than these approaches, please share. PS: sadly it also has to work perfectly in IE6.

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  • Design/Architecture Advice Needed

    - by Rachel
    Summary: I have different components on homepage and each components shows some promotion to the user. I have Cart as one Component and depending upon content of the cart promotion are show. I have to track user online activities and send that information to Omniture for Report Generation. Now my components are loaded asynchronously basically are loaded when AjaxRequest is fired up and so there is not fix pattern or rather information on when components will appear on the webpages. Now in order to pass information to Omniture I need to call track function on $(document).(ready) and append information for each components(7 parameters are required by Omniture for each component). So in the init:config function of each component am calling Omniture and passing paramters but now no. of Omniture calls is directly proportional to no. of Components on the webpage but this is not acceptable as each call to Omniture is very expensive. Now I am looking for a way where in I can club the information about 7 parameters and than make one Call to Omniture wherein I pass those information. Points to note is that I do not know when the components are loaded and so there is no pre-defined time or no. of components that would be loaded. The thing is am calling track function when document is ready but components are loaded after call to Omniture has been made and so my question is Q: How can I collect the information for all the components and than just make one call to Omniture to send those information ? As mentioned, I do not know when the components are loaded as they are done on the Ajax Request. Hope I am able to explain my challenge and would appreciate if some one can provide from Design/Architect Solutions for the Challenge.

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  • Fancybox troubles

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am trying to implement a fancybox. http://fancybox.net/howto I want to call this function on an an element. Full JS file. http://fancybox.net/js/fancybox/jquery.fancybox-1.2.1.js $.fn.fancybox = function(settings) { I have done this: $(document).ready(function() { $("a#inline").fn.fancybox(); }); However, I keep getting this error (through firebug): $("a#inline").fn is undefined [Break on this error] $("a#inline").fn.fancybox(); What does this mean? I am basically having instantiating problems. Please help. EDIT The HTML file: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Technologies</title> <link href="style.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="fancy/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="fancy/jquery.fancybox-1.2.1.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="fancy/fancybox.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("a#inline").fancybox(); }); </script> </head> <body> <?php include_once ("header.php"); ?> <div id="channel_calc"> How many Channels do I need? <span id="yellow"><a id="inline" href="#ddm">Channel Calculator</a></span> </div>

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  • Actionscript: NetStream stutters after buffering.

    - by meandmycode
    Using NetStream to stream content from http, I've noticed that esp with certain exported h264's, if the player encounters an empty buffer, it will stop and buffer to the requested length (as expected). However once the buffer is full, the playback doesn't resume, but instead jumps ahead, as such- instantly playing the buffered duration in a brief moment, and thusly triggering an empty buffer again.. this will then continue over and over. Presumably when the netstream pauses to buffer, the playhead position continues, and the player is attempting to snap to that position on resume- however given it could take 5 seconds to build a 2 second buffer- it ends up with a useless buffer again.. (this is an assumption) I've attempted to work around this by listening for an empty buffer netstatus event, pausing the stream, and at the same time setting up a loop to check the current buffer length vs the requested buffer length.. and resuming once the buffer length is greater than or equal to the requested buffer.. however this causes problems when there isn't enough of the video remaining.. for example, a 10 second buffer with only 5 seconds remaining, the loop just sits there waiting for a buffer length of 10 seconds when theres only 5 left... You would think that you could simply check which was smaller, the time left or the requested buffer length.. however the times flash gives are not accurate.. If you add the net streams current time index, plus the buffered time, the total is not the entire duration of the movie (when at the end).. it is close but not the same. This brings me back to the original problem, and if there is another way to fix this, clearly flash knows when the buffer is ready, so how can i get flash pause when it buffers, and resume once the buffer is ready? currently it doesn't.. it pauses and then once the buffer is full- it plays the entire buffered content in about .1 of a second. Thanks in advance, Stephen.

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  • View Controller's viewDidLoad method finishing before applicationDidFinishLaunching

    - by mwt
    I'm creating a fairly complex iPhone app using Core Data. Up until now, things have been working fine. As the app has been getting more complex, however, a new problem has come up: the first view controller is finishing its viewDidLoad method before the AppDelegate gets even halfway through its applicationDidFinishLaunching method. The view controller is not the root, which is a tab bar controller. The VC in question is the one for the default selected tab on the tab bar. It's getting instantiated by IB. Nothing like this has occurred before in my experience, and it's throwing off the important initialization I'm doing in the AppDelegate (getting objects from Core Data and preparing them for use) . Furthermore, it's intermittent -- sometimes the delegate does finish first. Has anyone else noticed a difficulty like this? Any sample code that deals with such an issue? I suppose that the answer is to make the VC load the data that the AppDelegate is getting ready only when the AppDelegate sends a message that it's ready. I'm a bit concerned that this is adding something that will just end up biting me in the butt later on.

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  • MVC2 and jquery.validate.js

    - by Will I Am
    I am experiencing some confusion with jquery.validate.js First of all, what is MicrosoftMvcJqueryValidation.js. It is referenced in snippets on the web but appears to have dissapeared from the RTM MVC2 and is now in futures. Do I need it? The reason I'm asking is that I'm trying to use the validator with MVC and I can't get it to work. I defined my JS as: $(document).ready(function () { $("#myForm").validate({ rules: { f_fullname: { required: true }, f_email: { required: true, email: true }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "#f_email" }, f_password: { required: true, minlength: 6 }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "#f_password" } }, messages: { f_fullname: { required: "* required" }, f_email: { required: "* required", email: "* not a valid email address" }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" }, f_password: { required: "* required", minlength: "password must be at least 6 characters long" }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" } } }); }); and my form on the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm("CreateNew", "Account", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "myForm" })) { %> <fieldset> <label for="f_fullname">name:</label><input id="f_fullname"/> <label for="f_email"><input id="f_email"/> ...etc... <input type="submit" value="Create" id="f_submit"/> </fieldset> <% } %> and the validation method gets called on .ready() with no errors in firebug. however when I submit the form, nothing gets validated and the form gets submitted. If I create a submitHandler() it gets called, but the plugin doesn't detect any validation errors (.valid() == true) What am I missing?

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  • JQuery Simplemodal and Tabs Help Needed

    - by Dave R
    Hi, I've got an asp.net page containing a Textbox with an Autocomplete extender on it. It's setup so the user can type a short reference code into the textbox and then choose from the list of matching codes returned by the autocomplete. On the "select", I then call the server using JQuery. I'm currently using $.get here.... The callback function from $.get checks for "success" and then displays a simple-modal dialog containing info about the item they've just selected. if (sStatus == "success") { $.modal(sText, { overlayClose: true, appendTo:'form', onShow: function(dialog) { $("#ccTargets_tabContainer").tabs(); }, onClose: function(dialog) { $("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>").val(""); $.modal.close(); } }); $.ready(); } One of the bits of info being loaded here is a JQuery TABS setup, so the onShow function of the simplemodal is used to initiate the tabs which are within the simplemodal. Now to the crux of my problem. If I do multiple consecutive "autocompletes" on the same page it all works fine Unless I have selected a different tab on the tabs in the simplemodal ....If I select a different tab, close the simplemodal and then do another autocomplete I get a JQuery error which seems to relate to a selector doing something with the "old" selected tab that was on the "closed" modal. I'm clearly missing some sort of cleardown / initialisation somewhere, but can't find what it is. Help? I've tried "tabs.destroy" before the modal call in the code above and I've tried a $.ready() call as indicated too.... UPDATE: Is it something to do with JQuery Tabs appending my addressbar URL with the selected tab's ID?

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  • Getting browser to make an AJAX call ASAP, while page is still loading

    - by Chris
    I'm looking for tips on how to get the browser to kick off an AJAX call as soon as possible into processing a web page, ideally before the page is fully downloaded. Here's my approximate motivation: I have a web page that takes, say, 5 seconds to load. It calls a web service that takes, say, 10 seconds to load. If loading the page and calling the web service happened sequentially, the user would have to wait 15 seconds to see all the information. However, if I can get the web service call started before the 5 second page load is complete, then at least some of the work can happened in parallel. Ideally I'd like as much of the work to happen in parallel as possible. My initial theory was that I should place the AJAX-calling javascript as high up as possible in the web page HTML source (being mindful of putting it after the jquery.js include, because I'm making the call using jquery ajax). I'm also being mindful not to wrap the AJAX call in a jquery ready event handler. (I mention this because ready events are popular in a lot of jquery example code.) However, the AJAX call still doesn't seem to get kicked off as early as I'm hoping (at least as judged by the Google Chrome "Timeline" feature), so I'm wondering what other considerations apply. One thing that might potentially be detrimental is that the AJAX call is back to the same web server that's serving the original web page, so I might be in danger of hitting a browser limit on the # of HTTP connections back to that one machine? (The HTML page loads a number of images, css files, etc..)

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  • jQuery set selected value in option box once the box has been loaded

    - by Maarten
    I want to preset the value of a selectbox based on a hidden field. I need this after an error has been detected in a form to avoid the user having to set the value themselves again. I do this by setting the value of a hidden field server side. The problem I have seems to be that the select box isn't done yet at the time I try to set the selected value. Anyone know how to solve this (possibly in a very different way?) <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(function(){ // this functions loads the state select box with states if a country with states is selected $("select#countries").change(function(){ $.getJSON("/ajax/exhibition/getstates.php?idCountry="+$("select#countries").val(), function(j){ var options = ''; $.each(j, function(key, value){ options += '<option value="' + key + '">' + value + '</option>'; }); $("select#state").html(options); }); }); }); $(document).ready(function(){ // preset the state select box on page ready $('select#countries').change(); // set the selected value of the state select box var foo = $('#statepreset').val(); $("select#state option[value="+foo+"]").attr('selected', 'selected'); }); </script>

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  • Struts2 + jQuery Autocompletion (Solved, with DOJO :) )

    - by Luigi 1982
    I used the jQuery autocompletion for my Struts2 application. Pratically, my action made a list of strings that jQuery use. This is the script: $().ready(function() { $("#tag").autocomplete("/myAction/Action", { multiple : true, autoFill : true, minChars:1 }); }); During typing appear the box with the suggestions. The problem is that the box render another value, exactly render the code of my JSP ( links to CSS for the autocomplete plug-in). How can I solve this? This is my JSP: <html> <head> <script src="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/scripts/jquery-latest.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/scripts/main.css" type="text/css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" href="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/scripts/jquery.autocomplete.css" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="<%=request.getContextPath()%>scripts/jquery.bgiframe.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/<%=request.getContextPath()%>/query.dimensions.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<%=request.getContextPath()%>/scripts/jquery.autocomplete.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $().ready(function() { $("#tag").autocomplete("/myAction/Action", { multiple : true, autoFill : true, minChars:1 }); }); </script> </head> <body> <s:form action="Action" theme="simple"> <s:iterator value="elencoMateriali" var="asd"> <s:property value="#asd" escape="false"/> </s:iterator> <s:textfield id="tag" name="tagField" label="tag" /> </s:form> </body>

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  • Developmnet process for an embedded project with significant Hardware change

    - by pierr
    Hi, I have a good idea about Agile development process but it seems it does not fit well with a embedded project with significant hardware change. I will describe below what we are currently doing (Ad-hoc way , no defined process yet). The change are divided to three categories and different process are used for them : complete hardware change example : use a different video codec IP a) Study the new IP b) RTL/FPGA simulation c) Implement the leagcy interface - go to b) d) Wait until hardware (tape out) is ready f) Test on the real Hardware hardware improvement example : enhance the image display quaulity by improving the underlie algorithm a)RTL/FPGA simulation b)Wait until hardware and test on the hardware Mino change exmaple : only change hardware register mapping a)Wait until hardware and test on the hardware The worry is it seems we don't have too much control and confidence about software maturity for the hardware change as the bring up schedule is always very tight and the customer desired a seemless change when updating to a new version hardware. How did you manage this kind of hardware hardware change? Did you solve that by a Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL)? Did you have a automatical test for the HAL layer? How did you test when the hardware platform is not even ready? Do you have well documented process for this kind of change? Thanks for your insight.

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  • Making that move from junior > mid level

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

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  • RMI no such object in table, Server communication error

    - by ben-casey
    My goal is to create a Distributed computing program that launches a server and client at the same time. I need it to be able to install on a couple of machines and have all the machines communicating with each other, i.e. Master node and 5 slave nodes all from one application. My problem is that I cannot properly use unicastRef, I'm thinking that it is a problem with launching everything on the same port, is there a better way I am overlooking? this is part of my code (the part that matters) try { RMIServer obj = new RMIServer(); obj.start(5225); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } try { System.out.println("We are slave's "); Registry rr = LocateRegistry.getRegistry("127.0.0.1", Store.PORT, new RClient()); Call ss = (Call) rr.lookup("FILLER"); System.out.println(ss.getHello()); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } this is my main class (above) this is the server class (below) public RMIServer() { } public void start(int port) throws Exception { try { Registry registry = LocateRegistry.createRegistry(port, new RClient(), new RServer()); Call stuff = new Call(); registry.bind("FILLER", stuff); System.out.println("Server ready"); } catch (Exception e) { System.err.println("Server exception: " + e.toString()); e.printStackTrace(); } } I don't know what I am missing or what I am overlooking but the output looks like this. Listen on 5225 Listen on 8776 Server ready We are slave's Listen on 8776 java.rmi.NoSuchObjectException: no such object in table at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.exceptionReceivedFromServer(StreamRemoteCall.java:255) at sun.rmi.transport.StreamRemoteCall.executeCall(StreamRemoteCall.java:233) at sun.rmi.server.UnicastRef.invoke(UnicastRef.java:359) at sun.rmi.registry.RegistryImpl_Stub.lookup(Unknown Source) at Main.main(Main.java:62) line 62 is this ::: Call ss = (Call) rr.lookup("FILLER");

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  • JQuery Tool tips

    - by kwek-kwek
    I want to create a tool tip for an image with a link now I had it working one but it doesn't work with the 2nd image. Here is my Sample Code: <!-- trigger element. a regular workable link --> <a id="test" title="Name - Title">Name</a> <!-- tooltip element --> <div class="tooltip"> <div><span class="name">Name</span><br /> Title <span><a href="#">more info»</a></span></div> </div> <!-- trigger element. a regular workable link --> <a id="test2" title="Name - Title">Name</a> <!-- tooltip element --> <div class="tooltip2"> <div><span class="name">Name</span><br /> Title <span><a href="#">more info»</a></span></div> </div> and here is my script that makes it all happens: <script> // What is $(document).ready ? See: http://flowplayer.org/tools/using.html#document_ready $(document).ready(function() { // enable tooltip for "test" element. use the "slide" effect $("#test").tooltip({ effect: 'slide', offset: [50, 40] }); $("#test2").tooltip2({ effect: 'slide', offset: [50, 40] }); }); </script> but not working please help.

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  • COM Interop - Wait for Excel to Complete Operation

    - by roygbiv
    Hello, I am doing some COM Interop work with Excel and other Office Automation Software. A Co-Worker has mentioned to me that I need to wait for these Automation Servers to become ready after issuing a command to them. I, however, cannot see the purpose of this as don't all calls block until the automation server completes the given task? For example I would normally write: Dim o as AutomationObject = AutomationServer.CreateObject(x, y, z) o.Property ' could throw COM exception!!???? My co-worker says I need to sleep after that call because the the Automation Server could still be working on creating and initializing the object. Dim o as AutomationObject = AutomationServer.CreateObject(x, y, z) Threading.Sleep(5000) ' wait for AutomationServer to "become ready" o.Property ' could still throw COM exception!!???? The problem I have with this is that the AutomationServer calls should block until the AutomationServer finishes or completes what it was working on or at the very least it should be a loop checking if "o" is nothing, but that makes no sense because once the call returns its done! My question is, Is there any benefit to Sleeping after an AutomationServer call? Is there a method to "wait" until the AutomationServer finishes (if it does not in fact block)?

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  • mercurial: how to synchronize mq patches from a master repo as mq patches to a set of clone repos

    - by dim
    I have to run a dozen of different build tests on a code base maintained in a mercurial repository. I don't want to run serially these tests on same repository because they modify a set of common files and I want to run them in parallel on different machines. Also, after all tests are run I want to have access to latest test results from those test work areas. Currently I'm cloning the master repository a dozen of times and run in each clone one different test. Before each test execution I do a pull/update/purge preparation sequence in order to start the test on latest clean state. That's good for me. I'm also preparing new changes using mq extension that I would test on all clones as above before committing them. For testing some ready candidate mq patches I want somehow to deploy/synchronize them to be available in test clones and apply those ready for testing using some guard before running the test. Did anybody do this synchronization before? What's the most simple way to do it? Do I need to have versioned mq patches for that?

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  • Listener error not connecting

    - by Sham
    I have two database running on Port No : 1521. When i m connecting to ORCL db it get's connected, but when i try to connect to another DB it gives me following error. ORA-12514: TNS:listener does not currently know of service requested in connect descriptor. My Listener: # listener.ora Network Configuration File: C:\app\Administrator\product\11.2.0 \dbhome_1\network\admin\listener.ora # Generated by Oracle configuration tools. ADMIN_RESTRICTIONS_LISTENER = ON LISTENER = (DESCRIPTION_LIST = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = 127.1.1.1)(PORT = 1521)) ) ) ADR_BASE_LISTENER = C:\app\Administrator TNSNAMES.ora ORCL = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = 127.1.1.1)(PORT = 1521)) (CONNECT_DATA = (SERVER = DEDICATED) (SERVICE_NAME = orcl) ) ) PARIVARTAN = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS_LIST = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = 127.1.1.1)(PORT = 1521)) ) (CONNECT_DATA = (SERVICE_NAME = Parivartan) ) ) Lsnrctl Result STATUS of the LISTENER ------------------------ Alias LISTENER Version TNSLSNR for 64-bit Windows: Version 11.2.0.1.0 - Production Start Date 14-DEC-2012 14:22:51 Uptime 0 days 0 hr. 19 min. 31 sec Trace Level off Security ON: Local OS Authentication SNMP OFF Listener Parameter File C:\app\Administrator\product\11.2.0\dbhome_1\network\a dmin\listener.ora Listener Log File c:\app\administrator\diag\tnslsnr\127.1.1.1\listener\al ert\log.xml Listening Endpoints Summary... (DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=tcp)(HOST=127.1.1.1)(PORT=1521))) Services Summary... Service "orcl" has 1 instance(s). Instance "orcl", status READY, has 1 handler(s) for this service... Service "orclXDB" has 1 instance(s). Instance "orcl", status READY, has 1 handler(s) for this service... The command completed successfully Reply me soon....

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  • jquery filter .not()

    - by FFish
    I have a form with image thumbnails to select with checkboxes for downloading. I want an array with the images in jQuery for an Ajax call. 2 questions: - On the top of the table there is a checkbox to toggle all checkboxes that I want to exclude from the mapping. I had a look at jQuery's .not() but I can't implement it with the :checkbox selector - is the following example code correct? $(document).ready(function() { $('#myform').submit(function() { var images = $("input:checkbox", this).map(function() { return $(this).attr("name"); }).get().join(); alert(products); // outputs: ",check1,check2,check3" return false; // cancel submit action by returning false }); }); // end doc ready HTML: <form id="myform" action="" > <input type="checkbox" id="toggleCheck" onclick="toggleSelectAll()" checked="checked" ><br /> <input type="checkbox" name="001.jpg" checked="checked" /><br /> <input type="checkbox" name="002.jpg" checked="checked" /><br /> <input type="checkbox" name="003.jpg" checked="checked" /><br /> <br /> <input type="submit" value="download" > </form>

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  • How to correctly relay TCP traffic between sockets?

    - by flukes1
    I'm trying to write some Python code that will establish an invisible relay between two TCP sockets. My current technique is to set up two threads, each one reading and subsequently writing 1kb of data at a time in a particular direction (i.e. 1 thread for A to B, 1 thread for B to A). This works for some applications and protocols, but it isn't foolproof - sometimes particular applications will behave differently when running through this Python-based relay. Some even crash. I think that this is because when I finish performing a read on socket A, the program running there considers its data to have already arrived at B, when in fact I - the devious man in the middle - have yet to send it to B. In a situation where B isn't ready to receive the data (whereby send() blocks for a while), we are now in a state where A believes it has successfully sent data to B, yet I am still holding the data, waiting for the send() call to execute. I think this is the cause of the difference in behaviour that I've found in some applications, while using my current relaying code. Have I missed something, or does that sound correct? If so, my real question is: is there a way around this problem? Is it possible to only read from socket A when we know that B is ready to receive data? Or is there another technique that I can use to establish a truly 'invisible' two-way relay between [already open & established] TCP sockets?

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  • Toggle Blind Effect

    - by flipflopmedia
    Is there a way to alter this script to be used as the blind effect. // Andy Langton's show/hide/mini-accordion - updated 23/11/2009 // Latest version @ http://andylangton.co.uk/jquery-show-hide // this tells jquery to run the function below once the DOM is ready $(document).ready(function() { // choose text for the show/hide link - can contain HTML (e.g. an image) var showText=''; var hideText=''; // initialise the visibility check var is_visible = false; // append show/hide links to the element directly preceding the element with a class of "toggle" $('.toggle').prev().append(' '+showText+''); // hide all of the elements with a class of 'toggle' $('.toggle').hide(); // capture clicks on the toggle links $('a.toggleLink').click(function() { // switch visibility is_visible = !is_visible; // toggle the display - uncomment the next line for a basic "accordion" style //$('.toggle').hide();$('a.toggleLink').html(showText); $(this).parent().next('.toggle').toggle('slow'); // return false so any link destination is not followed return false; }); }); FYI- Where it says: var showText=''; var hideText=''; It was originally: var showText='Show'; var hideText='Hide'; I deleted the Show/Hide Text because I am applying the link to different areas of text. I like the Blind effect, vs. this Toggle effect, and need to know how to apply it, if possible. I cannot find a basic Blind effect script that allows the use of applying the link to ANY text, vs. a button or static text. Thanks! Hope you can help! Tracy

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  • matching an element's class to another element's ID, or *part* of another element's ID

    - by shecky
    hello again Such a simple concept but I'm struggling to express it ... apologies in advance for my verbosity. I have a container div with a class, e.g., ; I want to use that class to do two things: add a class (e.g., 'active') to the nav element whose ID matches the class of div#container (e.g., #nav-primary li# apples) add the same class to another element if part of this element's ID matches the class of #container (e.g., div#secondary-apples) I assume there's an .each() loop to check the primary nav's list items' IDs, and to check the div IDs of the secondary nav ... though the latter needs to have its prefix trimmed ... or should I say more simply if the secondary nav div IDs contain the class of div#container? I've tried a few variations of something like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav-primary li').each(function(){ var containerClass = $('#container').attr('class'); var secondaryID = $('#nav-primary li').attr('id'); // something like if ('#nav-primary li id' == (containerClass) { } // or should I first store a variable of the LI's ID and do something like this: if ( secondaryID == containerClass ) { } // and for the trickier part, how do I filter/trim the secondary nav div IDs, something like this: var secondaryNavID = $('#aux-left div[id ... something here to strip the 'secondary-' bit ... ]'); }); // end each }); // end doc.ready.func </script> The markup is, e.g.: ... ... ... ... ... ... ... Many thanks in advance for any suggestions, svs

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