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  • What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

    - by R..
    mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

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  • There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/...

    - by virsum
    I have two WCF services hosted in a single Windows Service on a Windows Server 2003 machine. If the Windows service needs to access either of the WCF services (like when a timed event occurs), it uses one of the five named pipe endpoints exposed (different service contracts). The service also exposes HTTP MetadataExchange endpoints for each of the two services, and net.tcp endpoints for consumers external to the server. Usually things work great, but every once in a while I get an error message that looks something like this: System.ServiceModel.EndpointNotFoundException: There was no endpoint listening at net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing that could accept the message. This is often caused by an incorrect address or SOAP action. See InnerException, if present, for more details. --- System.IO.PipeException: The pipe endpoint 'net.pipe://localhost/IPDailyProcessing' could not be found on your local machine. --- End of inner exception stack trace --- Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.PipeConnectionInitiator.GetPipeName(Uri uri) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.NamedPipeConnectionPoolRegistry.NamedPipeConnectionPool.GetPoolKey(EndpointAddress address, Uri via) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ConnectionPoolHelper.EstablishConnection(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ClientFramingDuplexSessionChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOpenOnce.System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.ICallOnce.Call(ServiceChannel channel, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.CallOnceManager.CallOnce(TimeSpan timeout, CallOnceManager cascade) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.EnsureOpened(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs, TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannel.Call(String action, Boolean oneway, ProxyOperationRuntime operation, Object[] ins, Object[] outs) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.InvokeService(IMethodCallMessage methodCall, ProxyOperationRuntime operation) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ServiceChannelProxy.Invoke(IMessage message) It doesn't happen reliably, which is maddening because I can't repeat it when I want to. In my windows service I also have some timed events and some file listeners, but these are fairly infrequent events. Does anyone have any ideas why I might be encountering an issue? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Server returns 500 error only when called by Java client using urlConnection/httpUrlConnection

    - by user455889
    Hi - I'm having a very strange problem. I'm trying to call a servlet (JSP) with an HTTP GET and a few parameters (http://mydomain.com/method?param1=test&param2=123). If I call it from the browser or via WGET in a bash session, it works fine. However, when I make the exact same call in a Java client using urlConnection or httpURLConnection, the server returns a 500 error. I've tried everything I have found online including: urlConn.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "en-us,en;q=0.5"); Nothing I've tried, however, has worked. Unfortunately, I don't have access to the server I'm calling so I can't see the logs. Here's the latest code: private String testURLConnection() { String ret = ""; String url = "http://localhost:8080/TestService/test"; String query = "param1=value1&param2=value2"; try { URLConnection connection = new URL(url + "?" + query).openConnection(); connection.setRequestProperty("Accept-Charset", "UTF-8"); connection.setRequestProperty("Accept-Language", "en-us,en;q=0.5"); BufferedReader bufferedReader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(connection.getInputStream())); String line; StringBuilder content = new StringBuilder(); while ((line = bufferedReader.readLine()) != null) { content.append(line + "\n"); } bufferedReader.close(); metaRet = content.toString(); log.debug(methodName + " return = " + metaRet); } catch (Exception ex) { log.error("Exception: " + ex); log.error("stack trace: " + getStackTrace(ex)); } return metaRet; } Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Anyone know exactly which JMS messages will be redelivered in CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE mode if the client

    - by user360612
    The spec says "Acknowledging a consumed message automatically acknowledges the receipt of all messages that have been delivered by its session" - but what I need to know is what it means by 'delivered'. For example, if I call consumer.receive() 6 times, and then call .acknowledge on the 3rd message - is it (a) just the first 3 messages that are ack'd, or (b) all 6? I'm really hoping it's option a, i.e. messages after the one you called acknowledge on WILL be redelivered, otherwise it's hard to see how you could prevent message lost in the event of my receiver process crashing before I've had a chance to persist and acknowledge the messages. But the spec is worded such that it's not clear. I get the impression the authors of the JMS spec considered broker failure, but didn't spend too long thinking about how to protect against client failure :o( Anyway, I've been able to test with SonicMQ and found that it implements (a), i.e. messages 'received' later than the message you call .ack on DO get redelivered in the event of a crash, but I'd love to know how other people read the standard, and if anyone knows how any other providers have implemented CLIENT_ACKNOWLEDGE? (i.e. what the 'de facto' standard is) Thanks Ben

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  • XBAP Browser Control - Invoking Click event of the html Input type button

    - by maharaj
    Hi, Here is what I have. 1.XBAP application with WPF Browser control, hosted on Page1.xaml 2.XBAP in Full Trust, certificate installed in client browser 3.Once the XBAP loaded, the browser control is navigated to some third party site. 4.We are using MVVM for XAML stuff So, when a certain page is loaded, I attach click event handler to the input button with id="submit" on the html page displayed in the browser control (used the code similar to whats in this URL http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/wpf/thread/a4f0e4d0-78bf-44c5-a3fe-8faf2e7a0568/). It works just fine as long as I dont make a wcf web service call in my ViewModel, before or after I attach this event hander. Idea is to invoke the click event for the html button and grab the data from the html page before calling the webservice to save data from the page. Here is the issue: When I make the wcf webservice call (sync or async, it doesnt matter) the click event doesnt happen but if I comment out the the code for wcf service call the click event of the html input of type button gets invoked. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Salil

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  • Constructor and Destructors in C++ [Not a question] [closed]

    - by Jack
    I am using gcc. Please tell me if I am wrong - Lets say I have two classes A & B class A { public: A(){cout<<"A constructor"<<endl;} ~A(){cout<<"A destructor"<<endl;} }; class B:public A { public: B(){cout<<"B constructor"<<endl;} ~B(){cout<<"B destructor"<<endl;} }; 1) The first line in B's constructor should be a call to A's constructor ( I assume compiler automatically inserts it). Also the last line in B's destructor will be a call to A's destructor (compiler does it again). Why was it built this way? 2) When I say A * a = new B(); compiler creates a new B object and checks to see if A is a base class of B and if it is it allows 'a' to point to the newly created object. I guess that is why we don't need any virtual constructors. ( with help from @Tyler McHenry , @Konrad Rudolph) 3) When I write delete a compiler sees that a is an object of type A so it calls A's destructor leading to a problem which is solved by making A's destructor virtual. As user - Little Bobby Tables pointed out to me all destructors have the same name destroy() in memory so we can implement virtual destructors and now the call is made to B's destructor and all is well in C++ land. Please comment.

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  • Multiple SessionFactories in Windows Service with NHibernate

    - by Rob Taylor
    Hi all, I have a Webapp which connects to 2 DBs (one core, the other is a logging DB). I must now create a Windows service which will use the same business logic/Data access DLLs. However when I try to reference 2 session factories in the Service App and call the factory.GetCurrentSession() method, I get the error message "No session bound to current context". Does anyone have a suggestion about how this can be done? public class StaticSessionManager { public static readonly ISessionFactory SessionFactory; public static readonly ISessionFactory LoggingSessionFactory; static StaticSessionManager() { string fileName = System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["DefaultNHihbernateConfigFile"]; string executingPath = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetName().CodeBase); fileName = executingPath + "\\" + fileName; SessionFactory = cfg.Configure(fileName).BuildSessionFactory(); cfg = new Configuration(); fileName = System.Configuration.ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["LoggingNHihbernateConfigFile"]; fileName = executingPath + "\\" + fileName; LoggingSessionFactory = cfg.Configure(fileName).BuildSessionFactory(); } } The configuration file has the setting: <property name="current_session_context_class">call</property> The service sets up the factories: private ISession _session = null; private ISession _loggingSession = null; private ISessionFactory _sessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory; private ISessionFactory _loggingSessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.LoggingSessionFactory; ... _sessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory; _loggingSessionFactory = StaticSessionManager.LoggingSessionFactory; _session = _sessionFactory.OpenSession(); NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_session); _loggingSession = _loggingSessionFactory.OpenSession(); NHibernate.Context.CurrentSessionContext.Bind(_loggingSession); So finally, I try to call the correct factory by: ISession session = StaticSessionManager.SessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); Can anyone suggest a better way to handle this? Thanks in advance! Rob

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  • How to suppress jqgrid from initially loading data?

    - by Steve Johnston
    I have a page that has a couple of jqGrids on it, along with a few other fields. I want to make one AJAX call myself that pulls back a JSON object that has the data that should be used to fill the entire page. So, I would like to make the call myself, populate the "other fields" and then pull a couple of collections off of the main JSON object that was returned and populate each of the jqGrids with those collections "manually". I have this much working, but I can't get jqGrid to stop attempting to make an AJAX request itself. Shouldn't there be a way to tell jqGrid to NOT attempt an AJAX call when it is initialized? I found a similar question asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1850159/how-to-suppress-jqgrid-from-initially-loading-data But I don't have the option that solved it for the poster. It seems pretty logical to me that some people may want to use this plugin without having the table attempt to get its own data upon initialization. Am I missing an option somewhere in the documentation (wiki - options)? Thanks.

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  • Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

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  • Rate Limit Calls To Api Using Cache

    - by namtax
    Hi I am using coldfusion to call the last.fm api, using a cfc bundle sourced from here I am concerned about going over the request limit, which is 5 requests per originating IP address per second, averaged over a 5 minute period. The cfc bundle has a central component which calls all the other components, which are split up into sections like "artist", "track" etc...This central component "lastFmApi.cfc." is initiated in my application, and persisted for the lifespan of the application // Application.cfc example <cffunction name="onApplicationStart"> <cfset var apiKey = '[your api key here]' /> <cfset var apiSecret = '[your api secret here]' /> <cfset application.lastFm = CreateObject('component', 'org.FrankFusion.lastFm.lastFmApi').init(apiKey, apiSecret) /> </cffunction> Now if I want to call the api through a handler/controller, for example my artist handler...I can do this <cffunction name="artistPage" cache="5 mins"> <cfset qAlbums = application.lastFm.user.getArtist(url.artistName) /> </cffunction> I am a bit confused towards caching, but am caching each call to the api in this handler for 5 mins, but does this make any difference, because each time someone hits a new artist page wont this still count as a fresh hit against the api? Wondering how best to tackle this Thanks

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  • What VC++ compiler/linker does when building a C++ project with Managed Extension

    - by ???
    The initial problem is that I tried to rebuild a C++ project with debug symbols and copied it to test machine, The output of the project is external COM server(.exe file). When calling the COM interface function, there's a RPC call failre: COMException(0x800706BE): The remote procedure call failed. According to the COM HRESULT design, if the FACILITY code is 7, it's actually a WIN32 error, and the win32 error code is 0x6BE, which is the above mentioned "remote procedure call failed". All I do is replace the COM server .exe file, the origin file works well. When I checked into the project, I found it's a C++ project with Managed Extension. When I checking the DLL with reflector, it shows there's 2 additional .NET assembly reference. Then I checked the project setting and found nothing about the extra 2 assembly reference. I turned on the show includes option of compiler and verbose library of linker, and try to analyze whether the assembly is indirectly referenced via .h file. I've collect all the .h file and grep all the files with '#using' '#import' and the assembly file itself. There really is a '#using ' in one of the .h file but not-relevant to the referenced assembly. And about the linked .lib library files, only one of the .lib file is a side-product of another managed-extension-enabled C++ project, all others are produced by a pure, traditional C++ project. For the managed-extension-enabled C++ project, I checked the output DLL assembly, it did NOT reference to the 2 assembly. I even try to capture the access of the additional assembly file via sysinternal's filemon and procmon, but the rebuild process does NOT access these file. I'm very confused about the compile and linking process model of a VC++/CLI project, where the additional assembly reference slipped into the final assembly? Thanks in advance for any of your help.

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  • Why is Delphi unable to infer the type for a parameter TEnumerable<T>?

    - by deepc
    Consider the following declaration of a generic utility class in Delphi 2010: TEnumerableUtils = class public class function InferenceTest<T>(Param: T): T; class function Count<T>(Enumerable: TEnumerable<T>): Integer; overload; class function Count<T>(Enumerable: TEnumerable<T>; Filter: TPredicate<T>): Integer; overload; end; Somehow the compiler type inference seems to have problems here: var I: Integer; L: TList<Integer>; begin TEnumerableUtils.InferenceTest(I); // no problem here TEnumerableUtils.Count(L); // does not compile: E2250 There is no overloaded version of 'Count' that can be called with these arguments TEnumerableUtils.Count<Integer>(L); // compiles fine end; The first call works as expected and T is correctly inferred as Integer. The second call does not work, unless I also add <Integer -- then it works, as can be seen in the third call. Am I doing something wrong or is the type inference in Delphi just not supporting this (I don't think it is a problem in Java which is why expected it to work in Delphi, too).

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  • RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

    - by epitka
    I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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  • JAVA Procedure Error

    - by Sam....
    java.sql.SQLException: [Microsoft][SQLServer 2000 Driver for JDBC][SQLServer]Procedure 'STP_Insert_tblReceipt' expects parameter '@CPVFlag', which was not supplied. I m getting error at This Point when trying to call procedure... Everything is perfect ,,,Count of Question marks are similar to parameter provided cs = conn.prepareCall("{call STP_Insert_tblReceipt(?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?)}"); // cs = conn.prepareCall("{call STP_Receipt_Form_Insertion_Trial(?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?,?,?, ?)}"); cs.setLong(1, Long.parseLong(txtMobileNo.getText())); cs.setString(2, String.valueOf(cboDistributor.getSelectedItem())); cs.setLong(3, Long.parseLong(txtBoxNo.getText())); cs.setInt(4, Integer.parseInt(txtFileNo.getText())); cs.setString(5, pickUp_date); cs.setString(6, rec_date); cs.setString(7, String.valueOf(cmbCtrlNo.getSelectedItem())); cs.setString(8, UserName); cs.setString(9, rec_date); cs.setString(10, RegionLocation); cs.setString(11, txtRemark.getText().trim()); cs.setString(12, txtSimNo.getText().trim()); cs.setInt(13, 2); cs.setString(14, String.valueOf(cmbAryanRegion.getSelectedItem())); cs.setString(15, String.valueOf(cboPickUpType.getSelectedItem())); cs.setString(16, String.valueOf(txtCafNo.getText())); cs.setString(17, distributorId); //cs.setString(18, circleName); cs.setString(18, cboCircle.getSelectedItem().toString()); cs.registerOutParameter(19, java.sql.Types.INTEGER); cs.setString(20, auditorName); cs.setString(21, retailerName); cs.setString(22, retailerCode); cs.setInt(23, mappedFlag); //cs.setString(24, distCode); cs.setString(24, cboDistCode.getSelectedItem().toString()); //cs.setString(25, zoneName); cs.setString(25, cboZone.getSelectedItem().toString()); cs.setString(26, comment); **cs.setInt(27, 1);** **this is for CPV Flag** After this cs.execute();

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  • Multiple generic parameters on a html helper extension method

    - by WestDiscGolf
    What I'm trying to do is create an extension method for the HtmlHelper to create a specific output and associated details like TextBoxFor<. What I want to do is specify the property from the model class as per TextBoxFor<, then an associated controller action and other parameters. So far the signature of the method looks like: public static MvcHtmlString Create<TModel, TProperty, TController>(this HtmlHelper<TModel> htmlHelper, Expression<Func<TModel, TProperty>> expression, Expression<Action<TController>> action, object htmlAttributes) where TController : Controller where TModel : class The issue occurs when I go to call it. In my view if I call it as per the TextBoxFor without specifying the Model type I am able to specify the lambda expression to set the property which it's for, but when I go to specify the action I am unable to. However, when I specify the controller type Html.Create<HomeController>( ... ) I am unable to specify the model property that the control is to be created for. I want to be able to call it like <%= Html.Create(x => x.Title, controller => controller.action, null) %> I've been hitting my head for a few hours now on this issue over the past day, can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • Closures in Ruby

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm kind of new to Ruby and some of the closure logic has me a confused. Consider this code: array = [] for i in (1..5) array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] This makes sense to me because i is bound outside the loop, so the same variable is captured by each trip through the loop. It also makes sense to me that using an each block can fix this: array = [] (1..5).each{|i| array << lambda {i}} array.map{|f| f.call} => [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] ...because i is now being declared separately for each time through. But now I get lost: why can't I also fix it by introducing an intermediate variable? array = [] for i in 1..5 j = i array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] Because j is new each time through the loop, I'd think a different variable would be captured on each pass. For example, this is definitely how C# works, and how -- I think-- Lisp behaves with a let. But in Ruby not so much. It almost looks like = is aliasing the variable instead of copying the reference, but that's just speculation on my part. What's really happening?

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  • Mapping Vectors

    - by Dan Snyder
    Is there a good way to map vectors? Here's an example of what I mean: vec0 = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0] vec1 = [1,4,2,7,3,2] vec2 = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0] vec2 = [7,2,7,9,9,6,1,0,4] vec4 = [0,0,0,0,0,0] mainvec = [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,4,2,7,3,2,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,0,7,2,7,9,9,6,1,0,4,0,0,0,0,0,0] Lets say mainvec doesn't exist (I'm just showing it to you so you can see the general data structure in mind. Now say I want mainvec(12) which would be 4. Is there a good way to map the call of these vectors without just stitching them together into a mainvec? I realize I could make a bunch of if statements that test the index of mainvec and I can then offset each call depending on where the call is within one of the vectors, so for instance: mainvec(12) = vec1(1) which I could do by: mainvec(index) if (index >=13) vect1(index-11); I wonder if there's a concise way of doing this without if statements. Any Ideas?

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  • OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

    - by Pace
    I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • where did the _syscallN macros go in <linux/unistd.h>?

    - by Evan Teran
    It used to be the case that if you needed to make a system call directly in linux without the use of an existing library, you could just include <linux/unistd.h> and it would define a macro similar to this: #define _syscall3(type,name,type1,arg1,type2,arg2,type3,arg3) \ type name(type1 arg1,type2 arg2,type3 arg3) \ { \ long __res; \ __asm__ volatile ("int $0x80" \ : "=a" (__res) \ : "0" (__NR_##name),"b" ((long)(arg1)),"c" ((long)(arg2)), \ "d" ((long)(arg3))); \ if (__res>=0) \ return (type) __res; \ errno=-__res; \ return -1; \ } Then you could just put somewhere in your code: _syscall3(ssize_t, write, int, fd, const void *, buf, size_t, count); which would define a write function for you that properly performed the system call. It seems that this system has been superseded by something (i am guessing that "[vsyscall]" page that every process gets) more robust. So what is the proper way (please be specific) for a program to perform a system call directly on newer linux kernels? I realize that I should be using libc and let it do the work for me. But let's assume that I have a decent reason for wanting to know how to do this :-).

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  • Python modules not updating after restarting the main module.

    - by Ian
    I've recently come back to a project having had to stop for about 6 months, and after reinstalling my operating system and coming back to it I'm having all kinds of crazy things happen. I made sure to install the same version(2.6) of python that I was using before. It started by giving me strange tkinter error that I hadn't had trouble with before, the program is relatively simple and the 2 or 3 bugs that were left when i quit, I had documented and weren't related to the interface. Things got even weirder when the same error would pop up even after I had removed the offending section of code. In fact, the traceback pointed to a line that didn't even exist in the module it was referencing, eg: line 262 when the module was only 200 lines long. After just starting a completely new file for the main module and copy/pasting it finally recognized that the offending code was gone and I stopped getting the error only to find that any updates to the code I made in another module didn't show up when I restarted the program through the shell. (I didn't forget to save.) After fiddling with this, of course, the old interface error came back, only in a different section of code that had been working previously. In fact, if I revert back to the files I had six months ago, the program works fine. As soon as I change anything in the main module, however, the interface bug comes back. Here's the original error: Exception in Tkinter callback Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1410, in __call__ return self.func(*args) File "C:\PyStuff\interface.py", line 202, in dispOne __main__.top.destroy() File "C:\Python26\lib\lib-tk\Tkinter.py", line 1938, in destroy self.tk.call('destroy', self._w) TclError: can't invoke "destroy" command: application has been destroyed I'm guessing something else is going on here other than my own poor programming. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

    - by Thomas Dekiere
    i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

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  • Problem executing trackPageview with Google Analytics.

    - by dmrnj
    I'm trying to capture the clicks of certain download links and track them in Google Analytics. Here's my code var links = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (var i = 0; i < links.length; i++) { linkpath = links[i].pathname; if( linkpath.match(/\.(pdf|xls|ppt|doc|zip|txt)$/) || links[i].href.indexOf("mode=pdf") >=0 ){ //this matches our search addClickTracker(links[i]); } } function addClickTracker(obj){ if (obj.addEventListener) { obj.addEventListener('click', track , true); } else if (obj.attachEvent) { obj.attachEvent("on" + 'click', track); } } function track(e){ linkhref = (e.srcElement) ? e.srcElement.pathname : this.pathname; pageTracker._trackPageview(linkhref); } Everything up until the pageTracker._trackPageview() call works. In my debugging linkhref is being passed fine as a string. No abnormal characters, nothing. The issue is that, watching my http requests, Google never makes a second call to the tracking gif (as it does if you call this function in an "onclick" property). Calling the tracker from my JS console also works as expected. It's only in my listener. Could it be that my listener is not deferring the default action (loading the new page) before it has a chance to contact Google's servers? I've seen other tracking scripts that do a similar thing without any deferral.

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