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  • What's a good way to get an IT internship? [closed]

    - by user1419715
    I'm a second year CS student who's worked really hard to build and expand my skills. I've spent the past week now trying to find a place to volunteer (i.e. work for FREE) so I can get a little bit of in-the-door experience with web development. I have a portfolio with several decent projects, a handful of languages and other hard/soft skills that employers constantly say they're clamoring for. I can't even get people to take my calls. This is me offering to work for them for FREE, remember. I'm in a reputable program at a respected school, get decent grades and...yeah, I've worked really hard to be presentable. On the rare occassions I actually get to speak to somebody at a design firm they hedge and do everything they can to get me off the phone. Nobody's ever expressed even the slightest interest in taking me on. The answer to the experience problem is supposed to be "you need to spend a year or two building up a big portfolio of projects on your own" so that employers will be impressed. I've done that. Websites, standalone apps, etc.. Nobody will even look at my resume, though. Question: Why does there seem to be so little interest in taking on upaid interns in the world of IT? Update: Sorry you all think I'm too aggressive or angry. It wasn't my intent to be a jerk to people while asking them for their opinions. That said, how would you feel if employer after employer turned you down cold when you offered yourself to them without asking for remuneration? One can't even get an unpaid job in this economy now, it seems. How am I going about my search? I find web firms in my area and contact them via email with a brief sales pitch of myself and a resume attached. Then a couple of days later I follow up with a phone contact. Nobody--anywhere--is advertising for interns of any kind. If there were I'm sure there'd be about 500 resumes per position, even unpaid. I've had good experiences in the past with cold-calling firms for actual paid jobs in other industries (hiring is a pain in the ass process and a call like this can show initiative while reducing a busy employer's need to do all the hiring overhead work), so I thought volunteering would work at least as well. My skills are pretty good for a CS student and include the usual suspects: HTML/CSS/Javascript, Python, Java, C, C#/.Net etc etc. I made a point on my resume to tie each ability claim to a project as well. Oh, and regarding the "working for free still costs the employer money" argument: that's an excellent point I hadn't though of. But it means...what? I have to pay the employer for the privilege of working there now?

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  • What are good design practices when working with Entity Framework

    - by AD
    This will apply mostly for an asp.net application where the data is not accessed via soa. Meaning that you get access to the objects loaded from the framework, not Transfer Objects, although some recommendation still apply. This is a community post, so please add to it as you see fit. Applies to: Entity Framework 1.0 shipped with Visual Studio 2008 sp1. Why pick EF in the first place? Considering it is a young technology with plenty of problems (see below), it may be a hard sell to get on the EF bandwagon for your project. However, it is the technology Microsoft is pushing (at the expense of Linq2Sql, which is a subset of EF). In addition, you may not be satisfied with NHibernate or other solutions out there. Whatever the reasons, there are people out there (including me) working with EF and life is not bad.make you think. EF and inheritance The first big subject is inheritance. EF does support mapping for inherited classes that are persisted in 2 ways: table per class and table the hierarchy. The modeling is easy and there are no programming issues with that part. (The following applies to table per class model as I don't have experience with table per hierarchy, which is, anyway, limited.) The real problem comes when you are trying to run queries that include one or many objects that are part of an inheritance tree: the generated sql is incredibly awful, takes a long time to get parsed by the EF and takes a long time to execute as well. This is a real show stopper. Enough that EF should probably not be used with inheritance or as little as possible. Here is an example of how bad it was. My EF model had ~30 classes, ~10 of which were part of an inheritance tree. On running a query to get one item from the Base class, something as simple as Base.Get(id), the generated SQL was over 50,000 characters. Then when you are trying to return some Associations, it degenerates even more, going as far as throwing SQL exceptions about not being able to query more than 256 tables at once. Ok, this is bad, EF concept is to allow you to create your object structure without (or with as little as possible) consideration on the actual database implementation of your table. It completely fails at this. So, recommendations? Avoid inheritance if you can, the performance will be so much better. Use it sparingly where you have to. In my opinion, this makes EF a glorified sql-generation tool for querying, but there are still advantages to using it. And ways to implement mechanism that are similar to inheritance. Bypassing inheritance with Interfaces First thing to know with trying to get some kind of inheritance going with EF is that you cannot assign a non-EF-modeled class a base class. Don't even try it, it will get overwritten by the modeler. So what to do? You can use interfaces to enforce that classes implement some functionality. For example here is a IEntity interface that allow you to define Associations between EF entities where you don't know at design time what the type of the entity would be. public enum EntityTypes{ Unknown = -1, Dog = 0, Cat } public interface IEntity { int EntityID { get; } string Name { get; } Type EntityType { get; } } public partial class Dog : IEntity { // implement EntityID and Name which could actually be fields // from your EF model Type EntityType{ get{ return EntityTypes.Dog; } } } Using this IEntity, you can then work with undefined associations in other classes // lets take a class that you defined in your model. // that class has a mapping to the columns: PetID, PetType public partial class Person { public IEntity GetPet() { return IEntityController.Get(PetID,PetType); } } which makes use of some extension functions: public class IEntityController { static public IEntity Get(int id, EntityTypes type) { switch (type) { case EntityTypes.Dog: return Dog.Get(id); case EntityTypes.Cat: return Cat.Get(id); default: throw new Exception("Invalid EntityType"); } } } Not as neat as having plain inheritance, particularly considering you have to store the PetType in an extra database field, but considering the performance gains, I would not look back. It also cannot model one-to-many, many-to-many relationship, but with creative uses of 'Union' it could be made to work. Finally, it creates the side effet of loading data in a property/function of the object, which you need to be careful about. Using a clear naming convention like GetXYZ() helps in that regards. Compiled Queries Entity Framework performance is not as good as direct database access with ADO (obviously) or Linq2SQL. There are ways to improve it however, one of which is compiling your queries. The performance of a compiled query is similar to Linq2Sql. What is a compiled query? It is simply a query for which you tell the framework to keep the parsed tree in memory so it doesn't need to be regenerated the next time you run it. So the next run, you will save the time it takes to parse the tree. Do not discount that as it is a very costly operation that gets even worse with more complex queries. There are 2 ways to compile a query: creating an ObjectQuery with EntitySQL and using CompiledQuery.Compile() function. (Note that by using an EntityDataSource in your page, you will in fact be using ObjectQuery with EntitySQL, so that gets compiled and cached). An aside here in case you don't know what EntitySQL is. It is a string-based way of writing queries against the EF. Here is an example: "select value dog from Entities.DogSet as dog where dog.ID = @ID". The syntax is pretty similar to SQL syntax. You can also do pretty complex object manipulation, which is well explained [here][1]. Ok, so here is how to do it using ObjectQuery< string query = "select value dog " + "from Entities.DogSet as dog " + "where dog.ID = @ID"; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>(query, EntityContext.Instance)); oQuery.Parameters.Add(new ObjectParameter("ID", id)); oQuery.EnablePlanCaching = true; return oQuery.FirstOrDefault(); The first time you run this query, the framework will generate the expression tree and keep it in memory. So the next time it gets executed, you will save on that costly step. In that example EnablePlanCaching = true, which is unnecessary since that is the default option. The other way to compile a query for later use is the CompiledQuery.Compile method. This uses a delegate: static readonly Func<Entities, int, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, Dog>((ctx, id) => ctx.DogSet.FirstOrDefault(it => it.ID == id)); or using linq static readonly Func<Entities, int, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, Dog>((ctx, id) => (from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.ID == id select dog).FirstOrDefault()); to call the query: query_GetDog.Invoke( YourContext, id ); The advantage of CompiledQuery is that the syntax of your query is checked at compile time, where as EntitySQL is not. However, there are other consideration... Includes Lets say you want to have the data for the dog owner to be returned by the query to avoid making 2 calls to the database. Easy to do, right? EntitySQL string query = "select value dog " + "from Entities.DogSet as dog " + "where dog.ID = @ID"; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>(query, EntityContext.Instance)).Include("Owner"); oQuery.Parameters.Add(new ObjectParameter("ID", id)); oQuery.EnablePlanCaching = true; return oQuery.FirstOrDefault(); CompiledQuery static readonly Func<Entities, int, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, Dog>((ctx, id) => (from dog in ctx.DogSet.Include("Owner") where dog.ID == id select dog).FirstOrDefault()); Now, what if you want to have the Include parametrized? What I mean is that you want to have a single Get() function that is called from different pages that care about different relationships for the dog. One cares about the Owner, another about his FavoriteFood, another about his FavotireToy and so on. Basicly, you want to tell the query which associations to load. It is easy to do with EntitySQL public Dog Get(int id, string include) { string query = "select value dog " + "from Entities.DogSet as dog " + "where dog.ID = @ID"; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>(query, EntityContext.Instance)) .IncludeMany(include); oQuery.Parameters.Add(new ObjectParameter("ID", id)); oQuery.EnablePlanCaching = true; return oQuery.FirstOrDefault(); } The include simply uses the passed string. Easy enough. Note that it is possible to improve on the Include(string) function (that accepts only a single path) with an IncludeMany(string) that will let you pass a string of comma-separated associations to load. Look further in the extension section for this function. If we try to do it with CompiledQuery however, we run into numerous problems: The obvious static readonly Func<Entities, int, string, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, Dog>((ctx, id, include) => (from dog in ctx.DogSet.Include(include) where dog.ID == id select dog).FirstOrDefault()); will choke when called with: query_GetDog.Invoke( YourContext, id, "Owner,FavoriteFood" ); Because, as mentionned above, Include() only wants to see a single path in the string and here we are giving it 2: "Owner" and "FavoriteFood" (which is not to be confused with "Owner.FavoriteFood"!). Then, let's use IncludeMany(), which is an extension function static readonly Func<Entities, int, string, Dog> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, Dog>((ctx, id, include) => (from dog in ctx.DogSet.IncludeMany(include) where dog.ID == id select dog).FirstOrDefault()); Wrong again, this time it is because the EF cannot parse IncludeMany because it is not part of the functions that is recognizes: it is an extension. Ok, so you want to pass an arbitrary number of paths to your function and Includes() only takes a single one. What to do? You could decide that you will never ever need more than, say 20 Includes, and pass each separated strings in a struct to CompiledQuery. But now the query looks like this: from dog in ctx.DogSet.Include(include1).Include(include2).Include(include3) .Include(include4).Include(include5).Include(include6) .[...].Include(include19).Include(include20) where dog.ID == id select dog which is awful as well. Ok, then, but wait a minute. Can't we return an ObjectQuery< with CompiledQuery? Then set the includes on that? Well, that what I would have thought so as well: static readonly Func<Entities, int, ObjectQuery<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, ObjectQuery<Dog>>((ctx, id) => (ObjectQuery<Dog>)(from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.ID == id select dog)); public Dog GetDog( int id, string include ) { ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = query_GetDog(id); oQuery = oQuery.IncludeMany(include); return oQuery.FirstOrDefault; } That should have worked, except that when you call IncludeMany (or Include, Where, OrderBy...) you invalidate the cached compiled query because it is an entirely new one now! So, the expression tree needs to be reparsed and you get that performance hit again. So what is the solution? You simply cannot use CompiledQueries with parametrized Includes. Use EntitySQL instead. This doesn't mean that there aren't uses for CompiledQueries. It is great for localized queries that will always be called in the same context. Ideally CompiledQuery should always be used because the syntax is checked at compile time, but due to limitation, that's not possible. An example of use would be: you may want to have a page that queries which two dogs have the same favorite food, which is a bit narrow for a BusinessLayer function, so you put it in your page and know exactly what type of includes are required. Passing more than 3 parameters to a CompiledQuery Func is limited to 5 parameters, of which the last one is the return type and the first one is your Entities object from the model. So that leaves you with 3 parameters. A pitance, but it can be improved on very easily. public struct MyParams { public string param1; public int param2; public DateTime param3; } static readonly Func<Entities, MyParams, IEnumerable<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, MyParams, IEnumerable<Dog>>((ctx, myParams) => from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.Age == myParams.param2 && dog.Name == myParams.param1 and dog.BirthDate > myParams.param3 select dog); public List<Dog> GetSomeDogs( int age, string Name, DateTime birthDate ) { MyParams myParams = new MyParams(); myParams.param1 = name; myParams.param2 = age; myParams.param3 = birthDate; return query_GetDog(YourContext,myParams).ToList(); } Return Types (this does not apply to EntitySQL queries as they aren't compiled at the same time during execution as the CompiledQuery method) Working with Linq, you usually don't force the execution of the query until the very last moment, in case some other functions downstream wants to change the query in some way: static readonly Func<Entities, int, string, IEnumerable<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, IEnumerable<Dog>>((ctx, age, name) => from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.Age == age && dog.Name == name select dog); public IEnumerable<Dog> GetSomeDogs( int age, string name ) { return query_GetDog(YourContext,age,name); } public void DataBindStuff() { IEnumerable<Dog> dogs = GetSomeDogs(4,"Bud"); // but I want the dogs ordered by BirthDate gridView.DataSource = dogs.OrderBy( it => it.BirthDate ); } What is going to happen here? By still playing with the original ObjectQuery (that is the actual return type of the Linq statement, which implements IEnumerable), it will invalidate the compiled query and be force to re-parse. So, the rule of thumb is to return a List< of objects instead. static readonly Func<Entities, int, string, IEnumerable<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, int, string, IEnumerable<Dog>>((ctx, age, name) => from dog in ctx.DogSet where dog.Age == age && dog.Name == name select dog); public List<Dog> GetSomeDogs( int age, string name ) { return query_GetDog(YourContext,age,name).ToList(); //<== change here } public void DataBindStuff() { List<Dog> dogs = GetSomeDogs(4,"Bud"); // but I want the dogs ordered by BirthDate gridView.DataSource = dogs.OrderBy( it => it.BirthDate ); } When you call ToList(), the query gets executed as per the compiled query and then, later, the OrderBy is executed against the objects in memory. It may be a little bit slower, but I'm not even sure. One sure thing is that you have no worries about mis-handling the ObjectQuery and invalidating the compiled query plan. Once again, that is not a blanket statement. ToList() is a defensive programming trick, but if you have a valid reason not to use ToList(), go ahead. There are many cases in which you would want to refine the query before executing it. Performance What is the performance impact of compiling a query? It can actually be fairly large. A rule of thumb is that compiling and caching the query for reuse takes at least double the time of simply executing it without caching. For complex queries (read inherirante), I have seen upwards to 10 seconds. So, the first time a pre-compiled query gets called, you get a performance hit. After that first hit, performance is noticeably better than the same non-pre-compiled query. Practically the same as Linq2Sql When you load a page with pre-compiled queries the first time you will get a hit. It will load in maybe 5-15 seconds (obviously more than one pre-compiled queries will end up being called), while subsequent loads will take less than 300ms. Dramatic difference, and it is up to you to decide if it is ok for your first user to take a hit or you want a script to call your pages to force a compilation of the queries. Can this query be cached? { Dog dog = from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == id select dog; } No, ad-hoc Linq queries are not cached and you will incur the cost of generating the tree every single time you call it. Parametrized Queries Most search capabilities involve heavily parametrized queries. There are even libraries available that will let you build a parametrized query out of lamba expressions. The problem is that you cannot use pre-compiled queries with those. One way around that is to map out all the possible criteria in the query and flag which one you want to use: public struct MyParams { public string name; public bool checkName; public int age; public bool checkAge; } static readonly Func<Entities, MyParams, IEnumerable<Dog>> query_GetDog = CompiledQuery.Compile<Entities, MyParams, IEnumerable<Dog>>((ctx, myParams) => from dog in ctx.DogSet where (myParams.checkAge == true && dog.Age == myParams.age) && (myParams.checkName == true && dog.Name == myParams.name ) select dog); protected List<Dog> GetSomeDogs() { MyParams myParams = new MyParams(); myParams.name = "Bud"; myParams.checkName = true; myParams.age = 0; myParams.checkAge = false; return query_GetDog(YourContext,myParams).ToList(); } The advantage here is that you get all the benifits of a pre-compiled quert. The disadvantages are that you most likely will end up with a where clause that is pretty difficult to maintain, that you will incur a bigger penalty for pre-compiling the query and that each query you run is not as efficient as it could be (particularly with joins thrown in). Another way is to build an EntitySQL query piece by piece, like we all did with SQL. protected List<Dod> GetSomeDogs( string name, int age) { string query = "select value dog from Entities.DogSet where 1 = 1 "; if( !String.IsNullOrEmpty(name) ) query = query + " and dog.Name == @Name "; if( age > 0 ) query = query + " and dog.Age == @Age "; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>( query, YourContext ); if( !String.IsNullOrEmpty(name) ) oQuery.Parameters.Add( new ObjectParameter( "Name", name ) ); if( age > 0 ) oQuery.Parameters.Add( new ObjectParameter( "Age", age ) ); return oQuery.ToList(); } Here the problems are: - there is no syntax checking during compilation - each different combination of parameters generate a different query which will need to be pre-compiled when it is first run. In this case, there are only 4 different possible queries (no params, age-only, name-only and both params), but you can see that there can be way more with a normal world search. - Noone likes to concatenate strings! Another option is to query a large subset of the data and then narrow it down in memory. This is particularly useful if you are working with a definite subset of the data, like all the dogs in a city. You know there are a lot but you also know there aren't that many... so your CityDog search page can load all the dogs for the city in memory, which is a single pre-compiled query and then refine the results protected List<Dod> GetSomeDogs( string name, int age, string city) { string query = "select value dog from Entities.DogSet where dog.Owner.Address.City == @City "; ObjectQuery<Dog> oQuery = new ObjectQuery<Dog>( query, YourContext ); oQuery.Parameters.Add( new ObjectParameter( "City", city ) ); List<Dog> dogs = oQuery.ToList(); if( !String.IsNullOrEmpty(name) ) dogs = dogs.Where( it => it.Name == name ); if( age > 0 ) dogs = dogs.Where( it => it.Age == age ); return dogs; } It is particularly useful when you start displaying all the data then allow for filtering. Problems: - Could lead to serious data transfer if you are not careful about your subset. - You can only filter on the data that you returned. It means that if you don't return the Dog.Owner association, you will not be able to filter on the Dog.Owner.Name So what is the best solution? There isn't any. You need to pick the solution that works best for you and your problem: - Use lambda-based query building when you don't care about pre-compiling your queries. - Use fully-defined pre-compiled Linq query when your object structure is not too complex. - Use EntitySQL/string concatenation when the structure could be complex and when the possible number of different resulting queries are small (which means fewer pre-compilation hits). - Use in-memory filtering when you are working with a smallish subset of the data or when you had to fetch all of the data on the data at first anyway (if the performance is fine with all the data, then filtering in memory will not cause any time to be spent in the db). Singleton access The best way to deal with your context and entities accross all your pages is to use the singleton pattern: public sealed class YourContext { private const string instanceKey = "On3GoModelKey"; YourContext(){} public static YourEntities Instance { get { HttpContext context = HttpContext.Current; if( context == null ) return Nested.instance; if (context.Items[instanceKey] == null) { On3GoEntities entity = new On3GoEntities(); context.Items[instanceKey] = entity; } return (YourEntities)context.Items[instanceKey]; } } class Nested { // Explicit static constructor to tell C# compiler // not to mark type as beforefieldinit static Nested() { } internal static readonly YourEntities instance = new YourEntities(); } } NoTracking, is it worth it? When executing a query, you can tell the framework to track the objects it will return or not. What does it mean? With tracking enabled (the default option), the framework will track what is going on with the object (has it been modified? Created? Deleted?) and will also link objects together, when further queries are made from the database, which is what is of interest here. For example, lets assume that Dog with ID == 2 has an owner which ID == 10. Dog dog = (from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == 2 select dog).FirstOrDefault(); //dog.OwnerReference.IsLoaded == false; Person owner = (from o in YourContext.PersonSet where o.ID == 10 select dog).FirstOrDefault(); //dog.OwnerReference.IsLoaded == true; If we were to do the same with no tracking, the result would be different. ObjectQuery<Dog> oDogQuery = (ObjectQuery<Dog>) (from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == 2 select dog); oDogQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; Dog dog = oDogQuery.FirstOrDefault(); //dog.OwnerReference.IsLoaded == false; ObjectQuery<Person> oPersonQuery = (ObjectQuery<Person>) (from o in YourContext.PersonSet where o.ID == 10 select o); oPersonQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; Owner owner = oPersonQuery.FirstOrDefault(); //dog.OwnerReference.IsLoaded == false; Tracking is very useful and in a perfect world without performance issue, it would always be on. But in this world, there is a price for it, in terms of performance. So, should you use NoTracking to speed things up? It depends on what you are planning to use the data for. Is there any chance that the data your query with NoTracking can be used to make update/insert/delete in the database? If so, don't use NoTracking because associations are not tracked and will causes exceptions to be thrown. In a page where there are absolutly no updates to the database, you can use NoTracking. Mixing tracking and NoTracking is possible, but it requires you to be extra careful with updates/inserts/deletes. The problem is that if you mix then you risk having the framework trying to Attach() a NoTracking object to the context where another copy of the same object exist with tracking on. Basicly, what I am saying is that Dog dog1 = (from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == 2).FirstOrDefault(); ObjectQuery<Dog> oDogQuery = (ObjectQuery<Dog>) (from dog in YourContext.DogSet where dog.ID == 2 select dog); oDogQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; Dog dog2 = oDogQuery.FirstOrDefault(); dog1 and dog2 are 2 different objects, one tracked and one not. Using the detached object in an update/insert will force an Attach() that will say "Wait a minute, I do already have an object here with the same database key. Fail". And when you Attach() one object, all of its hierarchy gets attached as well, causing problems everywhere. Be extra careful. How much faster is it with NoTracking It depends on the queries. Some are much more succeptible to tracking than other. I don't have a fast an easy rule for it, but it helps. So I should use NoTracking everywhere then? Not exactly. There are some advantages to tracking object. The first one is that the object is cached, so subsequent call for that object will not hit the database. That cache is only valid for the lifetime of the YourEntities object, which, if you use the singleton code above, is the same as the page lifetime. One page request == one YourEntity object. So for multiple calls for the same object, it will load only once per page request. (Other caching mechanism could extend that). What happens when you are using NoTracking and try to load the same object multiple times? The database will be queried each time, so there is an impact there. How often do/should you call for the same object during a single page request? As little as possible of course, but it does happens. Also remember the piece above about having the associations connected automatically for your? You don't have that with NoTracking, so if you load your data in multiple batches, you will not have a link to between them: ObjectQuery<Dog> oDogQuery = (ObjectQuery<Dog>)(from dog in YourContext.DogSet select dog); oDogQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; List<Dog> dogs = oDogQuery.ToList(); ObjectQuery<Person> oPersonQuery = (ObjectQuery<Person>)(from o in YourContext.PersonSet select o); oPersonQuery.MergeOption = MergeOption.NoTracking; List<Person> owners = oPersonQuery.ToList(); In this case, no dog will have its .Owner property set. Some things to keep in mind when you are trying to optimize the performance. No lazy loading, what am I to do? This can be seen as a blessing in disguise. Of course it is annoying to load everything manually. However, it decreases the number of calls to the db and forces you to think about when you should load data. The more you can load in one database call the better. That was always true, but it is enforced now with this 'feature' of EF. Of course, you can call if( !ObjectReference.IsLoaded ) ObjectReference.Load(); if you want to, but a better practice is to force the framework to load the objects you know you will need in one shot. This is where the discussion about parametrized Includes begins to make sense. Lets say you have you Dog object public class Dog { public Dog Get(int id) { return YourContext.DogSet.FirstOrDefault(it => it.ID == id ); } } This is the type of function you work with all the time. It gets called from all over the place and once you have that Dog object, you will do very different things to it in different functions. First, it should be pre-compiled, because you will call that very often. Second, each different pages will want to have access to a different subset of the Dog data. Some will want the Owner, some the FavoriteToy, etc. Of course, you could call Load() for each reference you need anytime you need one. But that will generate a call to the database each time. Bad idea. So instead, each page will ask for the data it wants to see when it first request for the Dog object: static public Dog Get(int id) { return GetDog(entity,"");} static public Dog Get(int id, string includePath) { string query = "select value o " + " from YourEntities.DogSet as o " +

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  • What does this SAP error mean? recv104 NiIReadrecv nixxi.cp5087

    - by Techboy
    I have an SAP BI Portal system and an SAP BW system. In the Visual Administrator of the BI Portal, section 'JCo RFC Provider' I have created some RFC listeners. In the SAP BW system (in transaction SM59), I have created, tested and activated the relevant RFC connections. When I start a JCo RFC Provider in the BI Portal the BW system that it communicates with produces these errors (displayed from SAP transaction SM21): Operating system call recv failed (error no. 104 ) Module nam Line Error text Caller.... Reason/cal nixxi.cp 5087 recv104 NiIRead recv Documentation for system log message Q0 I : The specified operating system call was returned with an error. For communication calls (receive, send, etc) often the cause of errors are network problems. It could also be a configuration problem at operating system level. (file cannot be opened, no space in the file system etc.). Additional specifications for error number 104 Name for errno number E_UNKNOWN_NO The meaning of the value stored in 'errno' is platform-dependent. The value which occurred here is unknown to the SysLog system. Either there is an incorrect error number in the SysLog message, or the tables TSLE2 or TSLE3 are not completely maintained. Technical details File Offset RecFm System log type Grp N variable message data 6 410220 m Error (Function,Module,Row) Q0 I recv104 NiIReadrecv nixxi.cp5087 There is plenty of space left in the file system, the servers can ping each other and there is no firewall between the servers. The tables (TSLE2 or TSLE3) mentioned in the error message do not provide any additional information. Please can you tell me if this error message refers to something specific, or if it is generic: recv104 NiIReadrecv nixxi.cp5087

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  • What exactly is a Mobile mouse? + Mouse Recommendation

    - by chobo2
    I am really disappointed with Logitech. My first cordless wireless mouse was from them and it lasted like 5 years. So I decided to get another one from them http://www.futureshop.ca/catalog/proddetail.asp?logon=&langid=EN&sku_id=0665000FS10099373&catid= And this mouse sucks bad. After 6 months it broke. I returned it under warranty and got a new one now 4-6 month later it is on the verge of breaking again.... You pay like $50 for this mouse and it lasts like 6 months that sad. I just lost faith in Logitech mice as I remember my bro also had a logitech mouse too and it broke after like 6 months. He then bought another logitech mouse(different model) that has been working for maybe 2 years(and no signs of breaking) but I am not crazy about the mouse(I don't like the 2 buttons by the wheel) and I not sure if they even sell it(maybe they got rid of it because it lasts too long). http://www.tigerdirect.ca/applications/SearchTools/item-details.asp?EdpNo=1578495&CatId=1285 So I am looking at a Microsoft mouse. http://www.futureshop.ca/catalog/proddetail.asp?logon=&langid=EN&sku_id=0665000FS10125565&catid= I am looking at this one but I am not sure what they mean by mobile mouse. I think that is what MS calls notebook mice. So I am not sure if this would be a good mouse to get for a desktop. I see it uses like a micro usb receiver but I am not sure if it is smaller then a standard mouse. But almost all the mice I looked at at futureshop.ca or staples are labeled notebook mice or mobile mice. So not sure what mice would be right for me. I don't want a corded one though. I really liked the LX6 design alot but it can't last more than 6 months. Thanks

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  • Nginx case-insensitive reverse proxy rewrites

    - by BrianM
    I'm looking to setup an nginx reverse proxy to make some upcoming server moves and load balanced implementations much easier within our apps. Since our servers are all IIS case sensitivity hasn't been an issue, but now with nginx it's becoming one for me. I am simply looking to do a rewrite regardless of case. Infrastructure notes: All backend servers are IIS Most services are WCF services I am trying to simplify the URLs so I can move services around as we continue to build out I can't set my location to case insensitive due to the following error: nginx: [emerg] "proxy_pass" cannot have URI part in location given by regular expression, or inside named location, or inside "if" statement, or inside "limit_except" block in /etc/nginx/sites-enabled/test.conf:101 The main part of my conf file where I am trying to handle the rewrite is as follows location /svc_test { proxy_set_header x-real-ip $remote_addr; proxy_set_header x-forwarded-for $proxy_add_x_forwarded_for; proxy_set_header host $http_host; proxy_pass http://backend/serviceSite/WFCService.svc; } location ~* /test { rewrite ^/(.*)/$ /svc_test/$1 last; } It's the /test location that I can't get figured out. If I call http://nginxserver/svc_test/help I get the WCF help page to display correctly and I can make all available REST calls. This HAS to be a boneheaded regex issue on my part, but I have tried several variations and all I can get are 404 or 500 errors from nginx. This is NOT rocket science so can someone point me in the right direction so I can look like an idiot and just move on?

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  • Two-way Trust relationship between Samba 3 and AD 2008 R2

    - by Romain
    Did somebody already make a two-way trust relationship between Samba 3 and AD ? I've got Samba 3.5 domain (ES02) controller and AD 2008 R2 domain (ES01) controller. Trust domain seems to be ok: Trusted domains list: ES01 S-1-5-21-1816646249-803782145-3669927669 Trusting domains list: ES01 S-1-5-21-1816646249-803782145-3669927669 I can login AD domain workstation with a Samba user account and access to AD domain workstation shares from Samba workstation with Samba user account. BUT, when I try to access to Samba domain workstation shares from AD domain workstation with AD account (test), I've got this: [2012/12/16 23:00:26.146090, 5] auth/auth.c:268(check_ntlm_password) check_ntlm_password: winbind authentication for user [test] FAILED with error NT_STATUS_NO_SUCH_USER [2012/12/16 23:00:26.146123, 2] auth/auth.c:314(check_ntlm_password) check_ntlm_password: Authentication for user [test] - [test] FAILED with error NT_STATUS_NO_SUCH_USER When I try to access samba share with the Administrator account that I create on both side with same password, I've got this: [2012/12/16 22:57:22.701841, 1] rpc_server/srv_pipe_hnd.c:1602(serverinfo_to_SamInfo_base) _netr_LogonSamLogon: user ES01\Administrator has user sid S-1-5-21-1816646249-803782145-3669927669-500 but group sid S-1-5-21-3405883886-2425668597-4100599511-513. The conflicting domain portions are not supported for NETLOGON calls I don't know if winbind is working because of this: wbinfo -u root nobody smb3user administrator "wbinfo -u" should list all local and trusted users, no ? Any fresh idea would be appreciated, I've been reading all the Internet for 1 week... Regards,

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  • Sending USR2 to mongrel_rails sometimes results in an “Address already in use” on the restart

    - by Ben
    We have a rolling-restart mode for our mongrel cluster that sends a USR2 signal to each running process. This works great, most of the time. But very occasionally the mongrel process will shutdown, and then fail to restart, with the following error: /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mongrel-1.1.5/bin/../lib/mongrel/tcphack.rb:12:in `initialize_without_backlog': Address already in use - bind(2) (Errno::EADDRINUSE) from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mongrel-1.1.5/bin/../lib/mongrel/tcphack.rb:12:in `initialize' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mongrel-1.1.5/bin/../lib/mongrel.rb:93:in `new' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mongrel-1.1.5/bin/../lib/mongrel.rb:93:in `initialize' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mongrel-1.1.5/bin/../lib/mongrel/configurator.rb:139:in `new' from /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/mongrel-1.1.5/bin/../lib/mongrel/configurator.rb:139:in `listener' Looking though the mongrel source, the USR2 handler calls a synchronous stop on the running server, so it ought to block until the socket has been released. Has anyone seen this error? Does anyone have any ideas what might cause it? (I asked this question over on StackOverflow initially, but thought it might be more appropriate here)

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  • Skype performance in IPSEC VPN

    - by dunxd
    I've been challenged to "improve Skype performance" for calls within my organisation. Having read the Skype IT Administrators Guide I am wondering whether we might have a performance issue where the Skype Clients in a call are all on our WAN. The call is initiated by a Skype Client at our head office, and terminated on a Skype Client in a remote office connected via IPSEC VPN. Where this happens, I assume the trafficfrom Client A (encrypted by Skype) goes to our ASA 5510, where it is furtehr encrypted, sent to the remote ASA 5505 decrypted, then passed to Client B which decrypts the Skype encryption. Would the call quality benefit if the traffic didn't go over the VPN, but instead only relied on Skype's encryption? I imagine I could achieve this by setting up a SOCKS5 proxy in our HQ DMZ for Skype traffic. Then the traffic goes from Client A to Proxy, over the Skype relay network, then arrives at Cisco ASA 5505 as any other internet traffic, and then to Client B. Is there likely to be any performance benefit in doing this? If so, is there a way to do it that doesn't require a proxy? Has anyone else tackled this?

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  • Unable to connect to APNS with java-apns

    - by Mac
    I've got a Java program running on a firewalled server that is intended to send push notifications to my iPhone app by using java-apns. Problem is, whenever I try to send a notification the library fails to connect to the APNS server. From the stack trace, it seems that when creating the required SSL connection, the connection is being refused at some point (a java.net.ConnectException with a detail message of "connection refused" is being thrown when the library calls SSLSocketFactory's createSocket method). It would not surprise me at all if the firewall is blocking the connection, but unfortunately as I do not manage the server I am unable to verify that that is indeed the case. The fact that the program works fine from my (non-firewalled) desktop seems to support the theory. My question is, does anyone know of any method by which I can find the root cause of the problem, and/or can anyone tell me what I should tell the server admin to change to get things to work (if it is indeed the firewall that's the problem)? For reference, the server is a Linux box and I'm using version 0.1.2 of java-apns.

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  • How to get html/css/jpg pages server by both apache & tomcat with mod_jk

    - by user53864
    I've apache2 and tomcat6 both running on port 80 with mod_jk setup on ubutnu servers. I had to setup an error document 503 ErrorDocument 503 /maintenance.html in the apache configuration and somehow I managed to get it work and the error page is server by apache when tomcat is stopped. Developers created a good looking error page(an html page which calls css and jpg) and I'm asked to get this page served by apache when tomcat is down. When I tried with JkUnMount /*.css in the virtual hosting, the actual tomcat jsp pages didn't work properly(lost the format) as the tomcat applications uses jsp, css, js, jpg and so on. I'm trying if it is possible to get .css and .jpg served by both apache and tomcat so that when the tomcat is down I'll get css and jpg serverd by apache and the proper error document is served. Anyone has any technique? Here is my apache2 configuration: vim /etc/apache2/apache2.conf Alias / /var/www/ ErrorDocument 503 /maintenance.html ErrorDocument 404 /maintenance.html JkMount / myworker JkMount /* myworker JkMount /*.jsp myworker JkUnMount /*.html myworker <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName station1.mydomain.com DocumentRoot /usr/share/tomcat/webapps/myapps1 JkMount /* myworker JkUnMount /*.html myworker </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName station2.mydomain.com DocumentRoot /usr/share/tomcat/webapps/myapps2 JkMount /* myworker JkMount /*.html myworker </VirtualHost>

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  • Can't access IIS 7 server URL from the same IIS 7 server.

    - by Kevin Raffay
    We have an intranet site ie, xxx.yyyy.com, that users access by entering "http"://xxx.yyy.com. Our problems started when we migrated to IIS 7 running on a new 2003 server. We got rid of our single-sign on code and implemented a security model where we capture a user's domain credentials which we then authenticate against a DB. In order to get the domain credentials passed to our ASP.NET app, we have the following settings: Anonymous Authentication:Disabled ASP.NET Impersonation: Enabled Basic/Digest/Forms Authentication: Disabled Windows Authentication: Enabled We allow "*" and deny "?" in the web.config. Browsing "http"://xxx.yyy.com from any client PC results in a domain login prompt, and if your enter a proper user/pwd, you can get in. However, browsing "http"://xxx.yyy.com while remoting into the server results in 3 domain login prompts and eventually a 401 error - unauthorized. We have traced this behavior to problems with our web site where we have pages doing "screen scraping" using the HttpRequest calling a url on the same server. When doing a HttpRequest from any other client, using a test harness that passes authorized credentials, all is good. So internal HttpRequest calls on the server fail, just like attempts to browse that server's url from within a remote session. Why would a to "http"://xxx.yyy.com on server xxx.yyy.com fail authentication?

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  • Iverter, inverter cable, or a display cable?

    - by krebshack
    I was recently hired at a small repair shop. I work indoors while my boss does on site calls for small businesses. I have to troubleshoot and fix laptop screens a few times a week and this is why I'm posting this question. I'm having trouble figuring out how to stream line the troubleshooting process. For example, how do I determine whether the inverter is broken while also determining that the inverter cable is not. How can I quickly decide that the inverter cable is broken while knowing that the inverter is most likely not broke. Or how do I know that it's just the display cable? It seems like this is a good way to approach things: "It could be the inverter, backlight, or the LCD panel itself. Backlight failure is usually hinted at by a pink hue to everything. Inverter failure usually results in the dimming of images on the screen to the point where the backlight is not even on (the inverter provides power to the backlight)" Source. While remembering that things "like flickering, screen freeze in dark image and [a] corner starts to get brighter" point to a "failure in the LCD panel itself, though it could just as easily be a loose data cable connected to the back of the LCD." Source. In short, I'm soliciting advice that anyone might have on how to quickly make the best decision about what's causing problems with laptops display. Thank you.

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  • Embed album art in OGG through command line in linux

    - by teratomata
    I want to convert my music from flac to ogg, and currently oggenc does that perfectly except for album art. Metaflac can output album art, however there seems to be no command line tool to embed album art into ogg. MP3Tag and EasyTag are able to do it, and there is a specification for it here which calls for the image to be base64 encoded. However so far I have been unsuccessful in being able to take an image file, converting it to base64 and embedding it into an ogg file. If I take a base64 encoded image from an ogg file that already has the image embedded, I can easily embed it into another image using vorbiscomment: vorbiscomment -l withimage.ogg > textfile vorbiscomment -c textfile noimage.ogg My problem is taking something like a jpeg and converting it to base64. Currently I have: base64 --wrap=0 ./image.jpg Which gives me the image file converted to base64, using vorbiscomment and following the tagging rules, I can embed that into an ogg file like so: echo "METADATA_BLOCK_PICTURE=$(base64 --wrap=0 ./image.jpg)" > ./folder.txt vorbiscomment -c textfile noimage.ogg However this gives me an ogg whose image does not work properly. I noticed when comparing the base64 strings that all properly embedding pictures have a header line but all the base64 strings I generate are lacking this header. Further analysis of the header: od -c header.txt 0000000 \0 \0 \0 003 \0 \0 \0 \n i m a g e / j p 0000020 e g \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 0000040 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 \0 035 332 0000052 Which follows the spec given above. Notice 003 corresponds to front cover and image/jpeg is the mime type. So finally, my question is, how can I base64 encode a file and generate this header along with it for embedding into an ogg file?

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  • error 20014 with mod_proxy

    - by punkish
    I have strange situation. I need to call a program in cgi-bin from within a perl script. When I try to do that with exec($program), I get (20014)Internal error: proxy: error reading status line from remote server proxy: Error reading from remote server returned by ... The long story... I am calling mapserv (http://mapserver.org) as a cgi program from OpenLayers (http://openlayers.org). Ordinarily, my web site is served by Perl Dancer, but the mapserver calls are made directly to http://server/cgi-bin/mapserv from JavaScript. The Dancer web site is served by Starman behind an Apache2 proxy front-end. This is how it looks [browser] -> http://server/app -> [apache2] -> proxy port 5000 -> Starman | | +-> http://server/cgi-bin/mapserv -> [apache2] -> cgi-bin -> mapserv This is what I am trying to accomplish [browser] -> http://server/app -> [apache2] -> proxy port 5000 -> Starman | | mapserv <-- cgi-bin <-- [apache2] <--+ I saw this question re: 20014 error, but that suggested solution didn't help. Any other hints?

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  • Setting up Apache 2.2 + FastCGI + SuExec + PHP-FPM on Centos 6

    - by mr1031011
    I'm trying to follow this very detailed instruction here, I simply changed from www-data user to apache user, and is using /var/www/hosts/sitename/public_html instead of /home/user/public_html However, I spent the whole day trying to figure out why the php file content is displayed without being parsed correctly. I just cant's seem to figure this out. Below is my current config: /etc/httpd/conf.d/fastcgi.conf User apache Group apache LoadModule fastcgi_module modules/mod_fastcgi.so # dir for IPC socket files FastCgiIpcDir /var/run/mod_fastcgi # wrap all fastcgi script calls in suexec FastCgiWrapper On # global FastCgiConfig can be overridden by FastCgiServer options in vhost config FastCgiConfig -idle-timeout 20 -maxClassProcesses 1 # sample PHP config # see /usr/share/doc/mod_fastcgi-2.4.6 for php-wrapper script # don't forget to disable mod_php in /etc/httpd/conf.d/php.conf! # # to enable privilege separation, add a "SuexecUserGroup" directive # and chown the php-wrapper script and parent directory accordingly # see also http://www.brandonturner.net/blog/2009/07/fastcgi_with_php_opcode_cache/ # FastCgiServer /var/www/www-data/php5-fcgi #AddType application/x-httpd-php .php AddHandler php-fcgi .php Action php-fcgi /fcgi-bin/php5-fcgi Alias /fcgi-bin/ /var/www/www-data/ #FastCgiExternalServer /usr/lib/cgi-bin/php5-fcgi -socket /tmp/php5-fpm.sock -pass-header Authorization #DirectoryIndex index.php # <Location /fcgi-bin/> # Order Deny,Allow # Deny from All # Allow from env=REDIRECT_STATUS SetHandler fcgid-script Options +ExecCGI </Location> /etc/httpd/conf.d/vhost.conf <VirtualHost> DirectoryIndex index.php index.html index.shtml index.cgi SuexecUserGroup www.mysite.com mygroup Alias /fcgi-bin/ /var/www/www-data/www.mysite.com/ DocumentRoot /var/www/hosts/mysite.com/w/w/w/www/ <Directory /var/www/hosts/mysite.com/w/w/w/www/> Options -Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> PS: 1. Also, with PHP5.5, do I even need FPM or is it already included? 2. I'm using mod_fastcgi, not sure if this is the problem and it I should switch to mod_fcgid? There seems to be conflicting records on the internet considering which one is better. I have many virtual hosts running on the machine and hope to be able to provide each user with their own opcache

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  • Multiple public IPs through DD-WRT without 1-to-1 NAT

    - by Stephen Touset
    I've done a search here and wasn't able to find anything relevant to my situation. I apologize in advance if I've missed an existing post on the topic. Our ISP has provided us with 6 static IP addresses. We are currently using two of them (plus one for the Comcast-provided router). One of the static addresses routes to our internal network, and the other goes to our VOIP phone system. Unfortunately, the Comcast machine doesn't support QoS, so our VOIP calls have been choppy. We plan to put the Comcast-provided router into bridge mode and replace it with an ASUS RT-N16 running DD-WRT. However, I'm unsure how to set up DD-WRT to function similarly to our existing Comcast router. The Comcast router's WAN IP is the first of our static IP addresses. We did not need to provide an internal LAN IP address — simply connecting machines that use our other public addresses to the LAN ports on the Comcast router is enough for it to route between the connected machines and our internet connection. Is there a way to do a similar setup through the DD-WRT? Thanks in advance.

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  • Lightweight Linux distro that includes developer tools? (or, the most BSD-like Linux)

    - by RevAaron
    I cut my teeth on Minix and Slackware 1.1, but I've been in the OS X Wilderness for the last few years. I'm trying to standardize on a Linux distribution for personal and work-related use on less powerful laptops and under virtualization. So far, NetBSD and OpenBSD are the best fit for my purposes- but after plenty of frustration I've come to the conclusion that I need to stick with Linux to get the hardware and software support that comes with it. What I like about NetBSD/OpenBSD that I'd like to keep: X, but no default KDE, GNOME or XFCE! A sensible /etc and dot file setup- startx calls xinit, xinit looks for ~/.xinitrc; nothing more complicated than that is needed. Command line tools and file-based configuration: I shouldn't need a GUI to connect to a WAP. Decent selection of binary packages; building from source is OK, but nothing source-only like Gentoo. pkg_add (BSD) and apt-get both have treated me well in the past. Modest RAM and HDD requirements: boot + X + awesome+ two xterms takes up 80 MB on OpenBSD and 240 MB on Debian 5 and Crunchbang In my experience, most "lightweight" and Live CDs focus on a nice desktop environment crammed into a CD or USB stick; once you add build-essentials you end up with something just about as bloated as Ubuntu or Debian full install. Crunchbang is a great example. Thanks in advance for all suggestions!

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  • Backing up VMs to a tape drive

    - by Aljoscha Vollmerhaus
    I've got myself one of these fancy tape drives, HP LTO2 with 200/400 GB cartridges. The st driver reports it like this: scsi 1:0:0:0: Sequential-Access HP Ultrium 2-SCSI T65D I can store and retrieve files like a charm using tar, both tar cf /dev/st0 somedirectory and tar xf /dev/st0 work flawless. However, what I really would like to backup are LVM LVs. They contain entire virtual machines with varying partition layouts, so using mount and tar is not an option. I've tried using something like dd if=/dev/VG/LV bs=64k of=/dev/st0 to achieve this, but there seem to be various problems associated with this approach. Firstly, I would like to be able to store more than 1 LV on a single tape. Now I guess I could seek to concatenate the data on the tape, but I think this would not work very well in an automated scenario with many different LVs of various sizes. Secondly, I would like to store a small XML file along with the raw data that contains some information about the VM contained in the LV. I could dump everything to a directory and tar it up - not very desirable, I would have to set aside huge amounts of scratch space. Is there an easier way to achieve this? Thirdly, from googling around it seems like it would be wise to use something like mbuffer when writing to the tape, to prevent what wikipedia calls "shoe-shining" the tape. However, I can't get anything useful done with mbuffer. The mbuffer man page suggests this for writing to a tape device: mbuffer -t -m 10M -p 80 -f -o $TAPE So I've tried this: dd if=/dev/VG/LV | mbuffer -t -m 10M -p 80 -f -d 64k -o /dev/st0 Note the added "-d 64k" to account for the 64k block size of the tape. However, reading data back from a tape written in this way never seems to yield any useful results - dd has been running for ages now, and managed to transfer only 361M of data from the tape. What's wrong here?

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  • Windows Scheduled Startup Task doesn't appear to be fully working but why?

    - by Devtron
    I originally tried to use Group Policy to enforce a startup script to run at startup. My startup script is a .CMD file, which calls 10 .exe files. Using Group Policy I could never get this to work....so I looked into using Scheduled Tasks. And here I am. I have tried two different versions of my script (for syntax purposes). I originally thought my syntax could be bad, so I tried a few approaches. Neither work. My #1 .CMD file approach commands look similar to this: start "this is my title" /D "C:\Somepathhere\myExecutable.exe" "..\..\published\wc_task.wfc" My #2 .CMD file approach commands look similar to this (it invokes a shortcut file): rundll32 shell32.dll,ShellExec_RunDLL "C:\Somepathhere\bin\Virtual Workflow.lnk" ^ Both of these scripts work fine if I manually run them, either by running the .CMD file, or even by manually forcing the Schedule Task MSC console to "Run" this script. Manual process seems to work fine, but automated it does not. My scheduled task is set for startup and uses "highest privileges" to execute as Admin. At the end of my .CMD script, I added a line to write to a text file, just to prove that the script was being run. That command looks like this: echo foo > C:\foo.txt When I reboot my server, and Schedule Tasks kicks in, I never get my ten .EXE files to run, but I do get the C:\foo.txt on my drive. What gives?

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  • How often is CRL refreshed, and how to force it to be?

    - by lockstock
    I have a web service running under IIS 7 that requires an X509 client certificate. I know that the server that it rus on needs access to DigiCert.com in order to be able to get the CRL (Certificate Revocation List). There is a need to change our proxy so I am attempting to investigate the impact of doing so. I have removed the global proxy settings using the command netsh winhttp proxy refesh, and also deleted the CRL cache using the command certutil -URLcache CRL delete. However, after doing this, all calls to the web service still succeed. This suggests to me that I am missing something here. So; If the CRL cache is cleared and the server has no way of refreshing the CRL, why do web service requets not return http 403?. I have been unable to find adequate information from googling nor from my colleagues. The reason I want it to fail is that I will not be confident that the new proxy settings work until I can see it broken first, if that makes sense. I would also like to be able to force the CRL to be refeshed in order to ensure that the new proxy settings work

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  • Error applying iptables rules using iptables-restore

    - by John Franic
    Hi I'm using Ubuntu 9.04 on a VPS. I'm getting an error if I apply a iptables rule. Here is what I have done. 1.Saved the existing rules iptables-save /etc/iptables.up.rules Created iptables.test.rules and add some rules to it nano /etc/iptables.test.rulesnano /etc/iptables.test.rules This is the rules I added *filter # Allows all loopback (lo0) traffic and drop all traffic to 127/8 that doesn't use lo0 -A INPUT -i lo -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -i ! lo -d 127.0.0.0/8 -j REJECT # Accepts all established inbound connections -A INPUT -m state --state ESTABLISHED,RELATED -j ACCEPT # Allows all outbound traffic # You can modify this to only allow certain traffic -A OUTPUT -j ACCEPT # Allows HTTP and HTTPS connections from anywhere (the normal ports for websites) -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 443 -j ACCEPT # Allows SSH connections # # THE -dport NUMBER IS THE SAME ONE YOU SET UP IN THE SSHD_CONFIG FILE # -A INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW --dport 22- j ACCEPT # Allow ping -A INPUT -p icmp -m icmp --icmp-type 8 -j ACCEPT # log iptables denied calls -A INPUT -m limit --limit 5/min -j LOG --log-prefix "iptables denied: " --log-level 7 # Reject all other inbound - default deny unless explicitly allowed policy -A INPUT -j REJECT -A FORWARD -j REJECT COMMIT After editing when I try to apply the rules by iptables-restore < /etc/iptables.test.rules I get the following error iptables-restore: line 42 failed Line 42 is COMMIT and I comment that out I get iptables-restore: COMMIT expected at line 43 I'm not sure what is the problem, it is expecting COMMIT but if COMMIT is there it's giving error. Could it be due to the fact i'm usin a VPS?My provider using OpenVZ for virtualizaton.

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  • Odd IIS FTP Failure

    - by Monkey Boson
    We're running a script on our production box that zips up our database and FTPs it to a backup box every night. Our production box is running Redhat Enterprise 5. Our backup box is running Windows XP Pro / IIS 5.1. Both machines are on the same VLAN (not sure if this is imporatant). The backup file usually clocks in at around 3GB. Every now and again (~5% of the time), the backup script fails. The shell script on the "client side" - which looks at return codes - never identifies any problem since ftp always returns 0. On the "server side", IIS writes out a log that looks like this: #Software: Microsoft Internet Information Services 5.1 #Version: 1.0 #Date: 2009-08-08 07:04:25 #Fields: time c-ip cs-method cs-uri-stem sc-status sc-win32-status 07:04:25 192.168.111.235 [15]USER backup 331 0 07:04:25 192.168.111.235 [15]PASS - 230 0 07:05:54 192.168.111.235 [15]created backup_20090808.zip 426 10035 07:06:16 192.168.111.235 [15]QUIT - 426 0 Now, I know that 426 means "Connection closed, transfer aborted", which is sort-of a catch-all for "IIS was not happy". The real puzzler is the wincode: 10035 (WSAEWOULDBLOCK -- Resource temporarily unavailable). My understanding is that this code is normal when using non-blocking socket calls - which would almost certainly be used by any FTP Server implementation. My first guess that it might be a timeout issue doesn't make sense, since we're only talking about a few minutes here and the timeout was left at the default 900 s. Does anybody have any ideas about what is causing this problem, and how it may be fixed? Thanks!

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  • ubuntu: Installed php-mcrypt but it doesn't show up in phpinfo()

    - by jules
    A web app I'm trying to install on my ubuntu 10.04 LTS requires mcrypt, and is generating this error: Fatal error: Call to undefined function mcrypt_module_open(). I know this is the same question as this one: Installed php-mcrypt but it doesn't show up in phpinfo(), but I tried several things, none of which worked, and have additional questions. I would comment on the original thread but don't have enough reputation to do so; forgive me for the duplicate question. My versions of php and mcrypt are (both installed via apt-get): php: 5.3.2-1ubuntu4.10 mcrypt: 5.3.2-0ubuntu Doing a php -m shows that the mcrypt module is installed. I installed mcrypt and php5-mcrypt via apt-get. Also, I'm using nginx as my web server. I have tried reinstalling mcrypt and restarting nginx, but still can't get mcrypt to show up on phpinfo() and calls to mcrypt are still broken. Here is some more info: $ php -i | grep "mcrypt" /etc/php5/cli/conf.d/mcrypt.ini, mcrypt mcrypt support => enabled mcrypt.algorithms_dir => no value => no value mcrypt.modes_dir => no value => no value I also checked that mcrypt is on in /etc/php5/cli/conf.d/mcrypt.ini and /etc/php5/cgi/conf.d/mcrypt.ini. Lastly, I'm using fastCGI with nginx. I googled around and saw suggestions to restart php5-fpm. I couldn't find php5-fpm in apt-get, I'm not sure if I still need php5-fpm since I already have fastCGI. Is there anything else I'm missing?

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  • Router gets disconnected once I terminate my SIP application

    - by TacB0sS
    Hey, Here is an interesting one, I have a SIP VoIP application which is able to register to the PBX server, and I can invite and see the user call on the callee end receiving an Invite, and on the caller end I see the Ringing response... now here is interesting part, if I close my application with out any notification to the server my router disconnects and restart, after a short while (30 - 150 sec). I could fix that if I would complete the ACK BYE process, but I'm just wondering why does my router hangs up? any ideas? My Router is TNN-Siemens SL2-141, thought this might matter Update: this is what I found: SIP ALG allows two or more simultaneous VoIP phone calls made by VoIP clients through this router. which means that if I disable it I would not be able to do the testing I'm trying so badly to do, and since I don't have access to another router, I must handle it with the bug then... I can say that this never happened to me with one user connecting, but then again I didn't have anyone to invite then, I received from the SIP UAS 503 when I tried to invite an imaginary user. This bug only occur after I connected the second SIP UAC and invited it and closed the application. Adam.

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  • Mountain Lion overheating issue have to do with launchd/Python?

    - by Christopher Jones
    So, Ever since I installed ML, my MacBook Air has been running SUPER hot. Opened up activity monitor, and everything seemed to be pretty normal, until I had it refresh every .5 seconds... and then I started seeing some interesting things. A 'Python' process appears and is terminated several times a second, and uses TONS of CPU 70-110. It's parent process is 'launchd' - and when I sample the process, there is a lot going on with Python. http://db.tt/ovuX3hZM These appear and disappear too quickly to get one... this one only happened to be using 70 ish percent of CPU... but they consistently hit 100-110%. http://db.tt/ovuX3hZMg The parent process... launchd. lots of context switches and UNIX system calls... What is the deal here? (photo goes here when I earn the street cred) The sample of launchd. ANY help here could be of help to not only me, but possibly many others experiencing decreased battery life and warmer laps these days because of this Mountain Lion weirdness. PLEASE HELP! PS - I'd put the screen grabs inline, but i don't have enough street cred yet.

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