cocoa matters - Page 184

C# getpixels() gets the correct value on xp and vista but is slightly off when used on windows 7

- by user352288

I have a C# program that works correctly on xp and vista but it needs to be used on windows 7, I have not been able to come up with a solution, it appears that getpixels just doesn't work right on windows 7. I am getting one of the RGB values because I am dealing with tiff grayscale images. System.Drawing.Bitmap image;// this is in a separate class image = new Bitmap(destination);// this is in the constructor Color t = image.GetPixel(j, i); // this is in a separate function int s = t.R when I print s, for example, image(0,0), it is supposed to be 220, it will be 221 I am doing edge detection on an image and I have to go through the image pixel by pixel, I have run the exact same program on XP,Vista,windows7 and windows 7 got different values. It wouldn't let me post images at all and only one link. The first image is the original image, the second is the correct image, also the one I get with XP and Vista, the final image is the image when running the same program in Windows 7. There is not much of a visible difference but it matters for what I am doing. Thanks for the help, it seems that I am having a hard time explaining my problem.

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RetinaJS and LESS : Background image doesn't show on iOS

- by jidma

I am trying to make a background image into a retina image using LESS CSS and RetinaJs: in my index.html file : <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=0, minimum-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" content="yes"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-status-bar-style" content="black"> [...] <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet/less" href="resources/css/retina.less"> <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/less-1.3.0.minjs" ></script> [...] </head> <body> [...] <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/retina.js"></script> </body> </html> in my retina.less file: .at2x(@path, @w: auto, @h: auto) { background-image: url("@{path}"); @at2x_path: ~`"@{path}".split('.').slice(0, "@{path}".split('.').length - 1).join(".") + "@2x" + "." + "@{path}".split('.')["@{path}".split('.').length - 1]`; @media all and (-webkit-min-device-pixel-ratio : 1.5) { background-image: url("@{at2x_path}"); background-size: @w @h; } } .topMenu { .at2x('../../resources/img/topMenuTitle.png'); } I have both topMenuTitle.png (320px x 40px) and [email protected] (640px x 80px) in the same folder. When test this code: In Firefox i have the normal Background In the XCode iPhone simulator I also have the normal Background In the iPhone device, I don't have any background at all. I'm using GWT if that matters. Any suggestions ? Thanks.

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Moving to an arbitrary position in a file in Python

- by B Rivera

Let's say that I routinely have to work with files with an unknown, but large, number of lines. Each line contains a set of integers (space, comma, semicolon, or some non-numeric character is the delimiter) in the closed interval [0, R], where R can be arbitrarily large. The number of integers on each line can be variable. Often times I get the same number of integers on each line, but occasionally I have lines with unequal sets of numbers. Suppose I want to go to Nth line in the file and retrieve the Kth number on that line (and assume that the inputs N and K are valid --- that is, I am not worried about bad inputs). How do I go about doing this efficiently in Python 3.1.2 for Windows? I do not want to traverse the file line by line. I tried using mmap, but while poking around here on SO, I learned that that's probably not the best solution on a 32-bit build because of the 4GB limit. And in truth, I couldn't really figure out how to simply move N lines away from my current position. If I can at least just "jump" to the Nth line then I can use .split() and grab the Kth integer that way. The nuance here is that I don't just need to grab one line from the file. I will need to grab several lines: they are not necessarily all near each other, the order in which I get them matters, and the order is not always based on some deterministic function. Any ideas? I hope this is enough information. Thanks!

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Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

- by Daniel Magliola

I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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C++: Efficiently adding integers to strings

- by Shinka

I know how to add integers to strings, but I'm not sure I'm doing it in an efficient matters. I have a class where I often have to return a string plus an integer (a different integer each time), in Java I would do something like public class MyClass { final static String S = "MYSTRING"; private int id = 0; public String getString() { return S + (id++); } } But in C++ I have to do; class MyClass { private: std::string S; // For some reason I can't do const std::string S = "MYSTRING"; int id; public: MyClass() { S = "MYSTRING"; id = 0; } std::string getString() { std::ostringstream oss; oss << S << id++; return oss.str(); } } An additional constraint: I don't want (in fact, in can't) use Boost or any other librairies, I'll have to work with the standard library. So the thing is; the code works, but in C++ I have to create a bunch of ostringstream objects, so it seems inefficient. To be fair, perhaps Java do the same and I just don't notice it, I say it's inefficient mostly because I know very little about strings. Is there a more efficient way to do this ?

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Bizarre Bug with our Rails app in IE

- by Callmeed

We're experiencing a really bizarre bug in our Rails 2.3.4 app. This bug only happens in Internet Explorer (7 and 8). Here's what happens: A new customer creates an account at https://domain.com/signup/free (notice no subdomain) Their account is identified by a subdomain like "example.domain.com" After signing up, they get a welcome screen with a link to their account's home page They follow the link, then click the "log in" button and attempt to login Even though they provide valid credentials, the app redirects back to their account's root url ... they can never reach their admin area The only way they can login (on IE) is by quitting and re-opening IE ... then it works fine ... Something with their initial session is preventing them from logging in. If it matters, we are using restful_authentication and the ssl_requirement plugin ... I'm not sure if one or both of those has a problem with IE but we are stumped here. Also, I've read IE has an issue with subdomains that contain underscores ... this isn't what's going on.

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Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

- by David

I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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Multiple use of a form before it is submitted

- by OregonTrail

I'm new to JavaScript, and trying to figure out the canonical way to do the following. I have a form with some checkboxes and a selector. Let's say the checkboxes are styles of music and the selector is for people's names. I'd like the user to be able to select the styles of music for each of the people's names and then submit the form with all of the data. For example, the user might first check off Classical, Jazz, Rock, and Pop and choose "Joe", then select Jazz, Pop, Country, and Electronica and choose "Jane". So there would have to be two different buttons for "submit person" and "submit form". I would like to: Have a list of the names and their chosen styles populate below the form, for feedback Allow the user to use the form as much as they want, and then submit all the data at the end I get the feeling that using jquery and JSON is perfect for this, but I'm not sure what search terminology to use to figure out how to do this. If it matters, the form will be processed by a Django view in Python.

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Is there a max recommended size on bundling js/css files due to chunking or packet loss?

- by George Mauer

So we all have heard that its good to bundle your javascript. Of course it is, but it seems to me that the story is too simple. See if my logic makes sense here. Obviously fewer HTTP requests is fewer round trips and hence better. However - and I don't know much about bare http - aren't http responses sent in chunks? And if a file is larger than one of those chunks doesn't it have to be downloaded as multiple (possibly synchronous?) round trips? As opposed to this, several requests for files just under the chunking size would arrive much quicker since modern web browsers download resources like javascripts in parallel. Even if chunking is not an issue, it seems like there would be some max recommended size just due to likelyhood of packet loss alone since a bundled file must wait till it is entirely downloaded to execute, versus the more lenient native rule that scripts must execute in order. Obviously there's also matters of browser caching and code volatility to consider but can someone confirm this or explain why I'm off base? Does anyone have any numbers to put to it?

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LINQ - Querying a list filtered via a Many-to-Many reltionship

- by user118190

Please excuse the context of my question for I did not know how to exactly word it. To not complicate things further, here's my business requirement: "bring me back all the Employees where they belong in Department "X". So when I view this, it will display all of the Employees that belong to this Department. Here's my environment: Silverlight 3 with Entity Framework 1.0 and WCF Data Services 1.0. I am able to load and bind all kinds of lists (simple), no problem. I don't feel that my environment matters and that's why I feel it is a LINQ question more than the technologies. My question is for scenarios where I have 3 tables linked, i.e. entities (collections). For example, I have this in my EDM: Employee--EmployeeProject--Project. Here's the table design from the Database: Employee (table1) ------------- EmployeeID (PK) FirstName other Attributes ... EmployeeProject (table2) ------------- EmployeeProjectID (PK) EmployeeID (FK) ProjectID (FK) AssignedDate other Attributes ... Project (table3) ------------- ProjectID (PK) Name other Attributes ... Here's the EDM design from Entity Framework: ------------------------ Employee (entity1) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- EmployeeID (PK) FirstName other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjects ------------------------ EmployeeProject (entity2) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjectID (PK) AssignedDate other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- Employee Project ------------------------ Project (entity3) ------------------------ (Scalar Properties) ------------------- ProjectID (PK) Name other Attributes ... ------------------- (Navigation Properties) ------------------- EmployeeProjects So far, I have only been able to do: var filteredList = Context.Employees .Where(e => e.EmployeeProjects.Where(ep => ep.Project.Name == "ProjectX")) NOTE: I have updated the syntax of the query after John's post. As you can see, I can only query, the related entity (EmployeeProjects). All I want is being able to filter to Project from the Employee entity. Thanks for any advice.

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Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

- by George Crawford

Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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How do I code and compile an Amiga application?

- by nbolton

I would like to program an application for the Amiga, just for fun! Please could someone post a step by step howto based on the following? Exactly what programming tools I should use, are there any already installed? Am I limited to plain text editors, or are there IDEs and debugging tools available? If no tools are already installed, how can this done? Are there free ones? I'd like to learn a traditional Amiga language, could you reccomend one? What should I use to compile the language you suggest? Please could you suggest tools I may use to debug the suggested language? Are there any libraries I should be aware of, such as GUI libraries? Some things to note... I'm running Workbench 3.1 from within the WinUAE emulator. From Workbench, I can access files from my Windows hard drive. I'd like to code and compile it from Workbench if possible. I'm running WinUAE in A1200 mode, not sure if that matters. There's an application already installed called MEmacs. I know C++ and C# very well, maybe there's a similar Amiga language. I'm aware that you can code with C and C++, but I want to learn a new language. Update: I have answered my own question, but please do contribute more answers as I intend on extending my answer. Thanks to all that have contributed so far, you've been very helpful!

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php class scope when calling a non-method function not accessing all class members

- by Aglystas

So I'm using a stand alone function from within a class that that uses the class it's being called from. Here's the function function catalogProductLink($product_id,$product_name,$categories=true) { //This is the class that the function is called from global $STATE; if ($categories) { //The $STATE->category_id is the property I want to access, which I can't if (is_array($STATE->category_id)) { foreach($STATE->category_id as $cat_id) { if ($cat_id == 0) continue; $str .= "c$cat_id/"; } } } $str .= catalogUrlKeywords($product_name).'-p'.$product_id.'.html'; return $str; } And here's the function call, which is being made from within the $STATE class. $redirect = catalogProductLink($this->product_id, $tempProd->product_name, true, false); The object that I need access to is the $STATE object that has been declared global. Prior to this function call there are lots of public properties populated, but when I look at the $STATE object within the function scope it loses all the properties but one, product_id. The property that matters for this function is the category_id property, which is an array of category id's. I'm wondering why I don't have access to all the public properties of the $STATE object and how I can get access to them.

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How many WCF connections can a single host handle?

- by mafutrct

I'll try to explain this with an example. I'm writing a chat application. There are users that can join chat rooms. A user has to log in before he can join any room. Currently, there is a single service. A user logs in using this service. Then, the user sends and receives messages for all joined rooms via this single service. channel.Login("Hans Moleman", "password"); channel.JoinRoom("name of room"); channel.SendChat("name of room", "hello"); I'm thinking about changing the design so there is a new WCF connection for each joined room. In the actual app, the number of connections is likely going to be in the range of 10-100, possibly more. Is this a good idea? Or are ~100 connections per client too much? The server should be able to handle many clients (range 100-1000, later up to 10k). In case it matters, I'm using NetTcpBinding.

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Single log file for multiple webapps

- by Ashish Aggarwal

In my tomcat there are multiple webapps deployed and they communicate with each other. Currently they all have their own log file. But when there is some issue comes from call I have to 1st check with the app to whom I made a call and check log file of respective apps involved in the call. So I want that, as all apps is deployed in same tomcat and sharing a common log4j, if a call made to any app then all logs should be in a single log file and no matters how my webapps are involved all error comes from any webapp during the call should be in a single log file. I have no idea how can I achieve this. So any help is appreciable. Edited: I think my question is not cleared so updated with use case: I have three webapps A, B, C having logs files as A.log, B.log and C.log. I made two calls. 1st one to A (that internally calls C) and 2nd to B (that internally calls C). Now logging of first call must be in A.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c) and second call must be in B.log (with the logs of every step performed inside the webapp c).

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What file format can I use to output a formatted text file straight from a program without having the markup be too complicated?

- by Matt

Premise: I am parsing a file that is quite nearly XML, but not quite. From this file I would like to extract data and output in a file that a user could open up in some program and read. To make the data reasonable, I would almost certainly need to format the text. In case it matters, I will probably be using Java to write the program. Problem: I cannot find a file format that supports formatting without having terribly complex rules and encoding problems. Attempts: I looked into a basic .txt extension first, but it does not have enough formatting advantage. I then tried a .rtf extension, but the rules for outputting text seem to be terribly complicated. It was then suggested that I used XML, but I do not understand how this file would be viewed. This appears to be probably the best solution, but I don't understand much about it. Perhaps somebody could shed some light here. In Other Words: Could somebody suggest and easy to use file format and/or shed some light on how to use XML for text formatting and viewing?

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Remove this URL string when login fails and simply show div error

- by Anagio

My developer built our registration page to display a div when logins failed based on a string in the URL. When logins fail this is added to the URL /login?msg=invalid The PHP in my login.phtml which displays the error messages based on the msg= parameter is <?php $msg = ""; $msg = $_GET['msg']; if($msg==""){ $showMsg = ""; } elseif($msg=="invalid"){ $showMsg = ' <div class="alert alert-error"> <a class="close" data-dismiss="alert">×</a> <strong>Error!</strong> Login or password is incorrect! </div>'; } elseif($msg=="disabled"){ $showMsg = "Your account has been disabled."; } elseif($msg==2){ $showMsg = "Your account is not activated. Please check your email."; } ?> In the controller the redirect to that URL is else //email id does not exist in our database { //redirecting back with invalid email(invalid) msg=invalid. $this->_redirect($url."?msg=invalid"); } I know there are a few other validation types for disabled accounts etc. I'm in the process of redesigning the entire interface and would like to get rid of this kind of validation so that the div tags display when logins fail but not show the URL strings. If it matters the new div I want to display is <div class="alert alert-error alert-login"> Email or password incorrect </div> I'd like to replace the php my self in my login.phtml and controller but not a good programmer. What can I replace $this->_redirect($url."?msg=invalid"); with so that no strings are added to the URL and display the appropriate div tags? Thanks

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jQuery: bind generated elements

- by superUntitled

Hello, thank you for taking time to look at this. I am trying to code my very first jQuery plugin and have run into my first problem. The plugin is called like this <div id="kneel"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#kneel").zod(1, { }); </script> It takes the first option (integer), and returns html content that is dynamically generated by php. The content that is generated needs to be bound by a variety of functions (such as disabling form buttons and click events that return ajax data. The plugin looks like this (I have included the whole plugin in case that matters)... (function( $ ){ $.fn.zod = function(id, options ) { var settings = { 'next_button_text': 'Next', 'submit_button_text': 'Submit' }; return this.each(function() { if ( options ) { $.extend( settings, options ); } // variables var obj = $(this); /* these functions contain html elements that are generated by the get() function below */ // disable some buttons $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', true); // once an option is selected, enable the button $('input[type="radio"]').live('click', function(e) { $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', false); }) // when a button is clicked, return some data $('.button').bind('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $.getJSON('/returnSomeData.php, function(data) { $('.text').html('<p>Hello: ' + data + '</p>'); }); // generate content, this is the content that needs binding... $.get('http://example.com/script.php?id='+id, function(data) { $(obj).html(data); }); }); }; })( jQuery ); The problem I am having is that the functions created to run on generated content are not binding to the generated content. How do I bind the content created by the get() function?

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In Rails, a Sweeper isn't getting called in a Model-only setup

- by charliepark

I'm working on a Rails app, where I'm using page caching to store static html output. The caching works fine. I'm having trouble expiring the caches, though. I believe my problem is, in part, because I'm not expiring the cache from my controller. All of the actions necessary for this are being handled within the model. This seems like it should be doable, but all of the references to Model-based cache expiration that I'm finding seem to be out of date, or are otherwise not working. In my environment.rb file, I'm calling config.load_paths += %W( #{RAILS_ROOT}/app/sweepers ) And I have, in the /sweepers folder, a LinkSweeper file: class LinkSweeper < ActionController::Caching::Sweeper observe Link def after_update(link) clear_links_cache(link) end def clear_links_cache(link) # expire_page :controller => 'links', :action => 'show', :md5 => link.md5 expire_page '/l/'+ link.md5 + '.html' end end So ... why isn't it deleting the cached page when I update the model? (Process: using script/console, I'm selecting items from the database and saving them, but their corresponding pages aren't deleting from the cache), and I'm also calling the specific method in the Link model that would normally invoke the sweeper. Neither works. If it matters, the cached file is an md5 hash off a key value in the Links table. The cached page is getting stored as something like /l/45ed4aade64d427...99919cba2bd90f.html. Essentially, it seems as though the Sweeper isn't actually observing the Link. I also read (here) that it might be possible to simply add the sweeper to config.active_record.observers in environment.rb, but that didn't seem to do it (and I wasn't sure if the load_path of app/sweepers in environment.rb obviated that).

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Why do Scala maps have poor performance relative to Java?

- by Mike Hanafey

I am working on a Scala app that consumes large amounts of CPU time, so performance matters. The prototype of the system was written in Python, and performance was unacceptable. The application does a lot with inserting and manipulating data in maps. Rex Kerr's Thyme was used to look at the performance of updating and retrieving data from maps. Basically "n" random Ints were stored in maps, and retrieved from the maps, with the time relative to java.util.HashMap used as a reference. The full results for a range of "n" are here. Sample (n=100,000) performance relative to java, smaller is worse: Update Read Mutable 16.06% 76.51% Immutable 31.30% 20.68% I do not understand why the scala immutable map beats the scala mutable map in update performance. Using the sizeHint on the mutable map does not help (it appears to be ignored in the tested implementation, 2.10.3). Even more surprisingly the immutable read performance is worse than the mutable read performance, more significantly so with larger maps. The update performance of the scala mutable map is surprisingly bad, relative to both scala immutable and plain Java. What is the explanation?

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How To Call Javascript In Ajax Response? IE: Close a form div upon success...

- by B.Gordon

I have a form that when you submit it, it sends the data for validation to another php script via ajax. Validation errors are echo'd back in a div in my form. A success message also is returned if validation passes. The problem is that the form is still displayed after submit and successful validation. I want to hid the div after success. So, I wrote this simple CSS method which works fine when called from the page the form is displayed on. The problem is that I cannot seem to call the hide script via returned code. I can return html like echo "<p>Thanks, your form passed validation and is being sent</p>"; So I assumed I could simply echo another line after that echo "window.onload=displayDiv()"; inside script tags (which I cannot get to display here)... and that it would hide the form div. It does not work. I am assuming that the problem is that the javascript is being returned incorrectly and not being interpreted by the browser... How can I invoke my 'hide' script on the page via returned data from my validation script? I can echo back text but the script call is ineffective. Thanks! This is the script on the page with the form... I can call it to show/hide with something like onclick="displayDiv()" while on the form but I don't want the user to invoke this... it has be called as the result of a successful validation when I write the results back to the div... function displayDiv() { var divstyle = new String(); divstyle = document.getElementById("myForm").style.display; if(divstyle.toLowerCase()=="block" || divstyle == "") { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "none"; } else { document.getElementById("myForm").style.display = "block"; } } PS: I am using the mootools.js library for the form validation if this matters for the syntax..

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Why is UseCompatibleTextRendering needed here?

- by HotOil

Hi, I think I'm missing something fundamental. Please tell me what it is, if you can. I have developed a little C++ WinForms app using VS2008. So it is built using .NET 3.5 SP1. My development box is Win7, if that matters. The default value of UseCompatibleTextRendering property in WinForms controls is false in this version of VStudio. And this should not matter to me, I don't think. I don't have any custom-drawn text or controls. The app looks good running on my Win7 box. If I package it up (dragging along .NET 3.5) and install it on one of our WinXP desktops, the buttons and labels don't look good; the text is chopped off in them. If I set UseCompatibleTextRendering to true and then run it on the XP boxes, the text fits into the buttons and labels. My question is: Why? The installation puts .Net 3.5 on the XP boxes, so the app should be able to find and use the right version of WinForms, right? I should note that before I put my app + .NET 3.5 on these boxes, they have no .NET at all. They do not get automatic Microsoft updates; our IT guy gates the patches and upgrades. [ This sort of thing has happened before with apps I create.. they look/work great on the Engineering machines, because we maintain those and they mostly have up-to-date stuff. When they are run on the corporate boxes, they usually don't run and need the VCredist installed. ] Back to the question at hand: The text looks better with the UseCompatibleTextRendering set to false, so I'd rather keep it that way, if I can. I'd like to understand what might be missing on those XP boxes that is making the text not fit. Thanks S

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Symbols (pdb) for native dll are not loaded due to post build step

- by sean e

I have a native release dll that is built with symbols. There is a post build step that modifies the dll. The post build step does some compression and probably appends some data. The pdb file is still valid however neither WinDbg nor Visual Studio 2008 will load the symbols for the dll after the post build step. What bits in either the pdb file or the dll do we need to modify to get either WinDbg or Visual Studio to load the symbols when it loads a dump in which our release dll is referenced? Is it filesize that matters? A checksum or hash? A timestamp? Modify the dump? or modify the pdb? modify the dll before it is shipped? (We know the pdb is valid because we are able to use it to manually get symbol names for addresses in dump callstacks that reference the released dll. It's just a total pain in the *ss do it by hand for every address in a callstack in all the threads.)

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Request for advice about class design, inheritance/aggregation

- by Lasse V. Karlsen

I have started writing my own WebDAV server class in .NET, and the first class I'm starting with is a WebDAVListener class, modelled after how the HttpListener class works. Since I don't want to reimplement the core http protocol handling, I will use HttpListener for all its worth, and thus I have a question. What would the suggested way be to handle this: Implement all the methods and properties found inside HttpListener, just changing the class types where it matters (ie. the GetContext + EndGetContext methods would return a different class for WebDAV contexts), and storing and using a HttpListener object internally Construct WebDAVListener by passing it a HttpListener class to use? Create a wrapper for HttpListener with an interface, and constrct WebDAVListener by passing it an object implementing this interface? If going the route of passing a HttpListener (disguised or otherwise) to the WebDAVListener, would you expose the underlying listener object through a property, or would you expect the program that used the class to keep a reference to the underlying HttpListener? Also, in this case, would you expose some of the methods of HttpListener through the WebDAVListener, like Start and Stop, or would you again expect the program that used it to keep the HttpListener reference around for all those things? My initial reaction tells me that I want a combination. For one thing, I would like my WebDAVListener class to look like a complete implementation, hiding the fact that there is a HttpListener object beneath it. On the other hand, I would like to build unit-tests without actually spinning up a networked server, so some kind of mocking ability would be nice to have as well, which suggests I would like the interface-wrapper way. One way I could solve this would be this: public WebDAVListener() : WebDAVListener(new HttpListenerWrapper()) { } public WebDAVListener(IHttpListenerWrapper listener) { } And then I would implement all the methods of HttpListener (at least all those that makes sense) in my own class, by mostly just chaining the call to the underlying HttpListener object. What do you think? Final question: If I go the way of the interface, assuming the interface maps 1-to-1 onto the HttpListener class, and written just to add support for mocking, is such an interface called a wrapper or an adapter?

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MVC2 Json request not actually hitting the controller

- by SlackerCoder

I have a JSON request, but it seems that it is not hitting the controller. Here's the jQuery code: $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").change(function() { globalLogSelection = $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").val(); alert(globalLogSelection); $.getJSON("/Administrative/AdminLogsChangeLogSelection", { NewSelection: globalLogSelection }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { globalCurrentPage = 1; } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do Something } }); }); The alert is there to show me if it actually fired the change event, which it does. Heres the method in the controller: public ActionResult AdminLogsChangeLogSelection(String NewSelection) { String sMessage = String.Empty; StringBuilder sbDataReturn = new StringBuilder(); try { if (NewSelection.Equals("Application Log")) { int i = 0; } else if (NewSelection.Equals("Email Log")) { int l = 0; } } catch (Exception e) { //Do Something sMessage = "Error"; } return Json(new { Message = sMessage, DataReturn = sbDataReturn.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } I have a bunch of Json requests in my application, and it seems to only happen in this area. This is a separate area (I have 6 "areas" in the app, 5 of which work fine with JSON requests). This controller is named "AdministrativeController", if that matters. Does anything jump out anyone as being incorrect or why the request would not pass to the server side?

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