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  • Create a new app pool and assign it to a site subfolder on a remote host, using C# and IIS7

    - by Soeren
    I have a web site running on IIS7 on a remote server. I would like to do the following: Create a new subfolder under the root virtual directory. Create a new app pool. Add this new app pool to the new subfolder Normally, I would do this manually in IIS by first creating the app pool, and then right-clicking the sub folder an choose "add application", but I need to do this programmatically in C#. I've managed to make the above points 1 and 2 work, but I can't find the way to adding the application to the sub folder. This is the code I have used so far for 1 and 2: ServerManager mgr = new ServerManager(); ApplicationPool myAppPool = mgr.ApplicationPools.Add("MyAppPool"); myAppPool.AutoStart = true; myAppPool.Cpu.Action = ProcessorAction.KillW3wp; myAppPool.ManagedPipelineMode = ManagedPipelineMode.Integrated; myAppPool.ManagedRuntimeVersion = "V4.0"; myAppPool.ProcessModel.IdentityType = ProcessModelIdentityType.NetworkService; mgr.CommitChanges(); if (!Directory.Exists(@"D:\webroot\TestSite\NytSite")) { Directory.CreateDirectory(@"D:\webroot\TestSite\NytSite"); } So, I need to add "MyAppPool" to the "NytSite" folder... Is this even the correct way to do this? Any experiences out there? Thnx

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  • Reading a .dat file as "rb" read binary

    - by donpal
    I have a web-accessible php script that accesses a folder above the webroot (not web accessible) called \folder\. This is done via setting the path to \folder\ in .htaccess the usual way so that \folder\ becomes part of the project. \folder\ contains a .php script (communicates with the web-accessible script inside the webroot) some .inc files (used by the .php in the same folder, above the webroot) a dat file (used by the .inc in the same folder, above the webroot) All files are accessible to each other as needed: the web-accessible php inside the webroot can communicate with the php above the webroot the php above the webroot can communicate with the inc in the same folder But the inc above the webroot can't communicate with the dat in the same folder, and I have no idea why that's the case The inc myinc.inc is supposed to open the dat mydat.dat in the same folder like this fopen('mydat.dat', "rb"); but I get an error that no file called mydat.dat exists inside \folder\myinc.inc. Of course it does not, the .dat is sibling to .inc and is not supposed to be inside it. Why is php expecting to find the .dat file inside the .inc. The stranger thing is that if I move the .dat in the web-accessible folder, it becomes readable now. Any ideas why php is trying to find the .dat inside the .inc?

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  • How do I test database-related code with NUnit?

    - by Michael Haren
    I want to write unit tests with NUnit that hit the database. I'd like to have the database in a consistent state for each test. I thought transactions would allow me to "undo" each test so I searched around and found several articles from 2004-05 on the topic: http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/07/12/180189.aspx http://weblogs.asp.net/rosherove/archive/2004/10/05/238201.aspx http://davidhayden.com/blog/dave/archive/2004/07/12/365.aspx http://haacked.com/archive/2005/12/28/11377.aspx These seem to resolve around implementing a custom attribute for NUnit which builds in the ability to rollback DB operations after each test executes. That's great but... Does this functionality exists somewhere in NUnit natively? Has this technique been improved upon in the last 4 years? Is this still the best way to test database-related code? Edit: it's not that I want to test my DAL specifically, it's more that I want to test pieces of my code that interact with the database. For these tests to be "no-touch" and repeatable, it'd be awesome if I could reset the database after each one. Further, I want to ease this into an existing project that has no testing place at the moment. For that reason, I can't practically script up a database and data from scratch for each test.

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  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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  • Is there the equivalent of cloud computing for modems?

    - by morpheous
    I asked this question on SF, and someone recommended that I ask it here - (I don't think I have enough points to move a question from SF to SO - and in any case, I don't know how to do it - so here is the question again): I am interested in the concept of PAAS (platform as a service). However, all talk about SAAS/PAAS seems to focus on only the computer itself - not its peripherals. Is it possible to 'outsource' modems as a resource - so that an app running remotely can pump data to a modem in the cloud? As a bit of background to the question, a group of us are thinking of starting a company that offers similar services to companies like twilio etc - but I want to 'outsource' both the computing hardware (thats PAAS - the easy bit) and the modems (thats what I cant seem to find any info on). Does anyone know if modems can be bundled as part of a PAAS service? - alternatively, is there a way that an application running on one computer can communicate (i.e. pump data) to a remote modem residing on another machine?. I assume I can come up with some protocol over UDP or TCP - but there is no point reinventing the wheel - if such a protocol like that already exists (or if it some open source software allows one to do this). Any suggestions on how to solve this problem?

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  • Configure Windows firewall to prevent an application from listening on a specific port [closed]

    - by U-D13
    The issue: there are many applications struggling to listen on port 80 (Skype, Teamviewer et al.), and to many of them that even is not essential (in the sense that you can have a httpd running and blocking the http port, and the other application won't even squeak about being unable to open the port). What makes things worse, some of the apps are... Well, I suppose, that it's okay that the mentally impaired are being integrated in the society by giving them a job to do, but... Programming requires some intellectual effort, in my humble opinion... What I mean is that there is no way to configure the app not to use specific ports (that's what you get for using proprietary software) - you can either add it to windows firewall exceptions (and succumb to undesired port opening behavior) or not (and risk losing most - if not all - of the functionality). Technically, it is not impossible for the firewall to deny an application opening an incoming port even if the application is in the exception list. And if this functionality is built into the Windows firewall somewhere, there should be a way to activate it. So, what I want to know is: whether there exists such an option, and if it does how to activate it.

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  • Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

    - by seaneshbaugh
    Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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  • stopping backspace on multiple browsers using jQuery

    - by jboyd
    I am attempting to stop a backspace keydown event from being handled by browsers, I'm using the jquery library, so I need to get the original event, but on some browsers (firefox at least) I get an error when trying to set the original events keyCode = 0, it gives and error saying that only a getter exists for that property. function blockBackspace(event) { var altKey = event.originalEvent.altKey; var srcElementType = event.originalEvent.srcElement; if( (altKey) || ((event.keyCode == 8) && (srcElementType != "text" && srcElementType != "textarea" && srcElementType != "password")) || ((event.ctrlKey) && ((event.keyCode == 78) || (event.keyCode == 82)) ) || (event.keyCode == 116) ) { event.keyCode = 0; event.returnValue = false; event.originalEvent.keyCode = 0; event.originalEvent.returnValue = false; //sets process backspaceFlag to keep multiple handlers from removing text processBackspace = true; } } so I'm not exactly sure what to do next, every solution I find yields more problems. There must be ways around this problem or else other text areas (that's kind of what I'm building) would not work

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  • Flex 3 Close UrlLoader throws exception

    - by gmoniey
    I am trying to simulate a 'HEAD' method using UrlLoader; essentially, I just want to check for the presence of a file without downloading the entire thing. I figured I would just use HttpStatusEvent, but the following code throws an exception (one that I can't wrap in a try/catch block) when you run in debug mode. <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" initialize="init()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ private static const BIG_FILE:String = "http://www.archive.org/download/gspmovvideotestIMG0021mov/IMG_0021.mov"; private var _loader:URLLoader; private function init():void { _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.addEventListener(HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, statusHandler); _loader.addEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, errorHandler); _loader.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, errorHandler); _loader.load(new URLRequest(BIG_FILE)); } public function unload():void { try { _loader.close(); _loader.removeEventListener(HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, statusHandler); _loader.removeEventListener(IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR, errorHandler); _loader.removeEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, errorHandler); } catch(error:Error) { status.text = error.message; } } private function errorHandler(event:Event):void { status.text = "error"; unload(); } private function statusHandler(event:HTTPStatusEvent):void { if(event.status.toString().match(/^2/)) { status.text = "success"; unload(); } else { errorHandler(event); } } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Label id="status" /> I tried using ProgressEvents instead, but it seems that some 404 pages return content, so the status event will correctly identify if the page exists. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • OdbcCommand on Stored Procedure - "Parameter not supplied" error on Output parameter

    - by Aaron
    I'm trying to execute a stored procedure (against SQL Server 2005 through the ODBC driver) and I recieve the following error: Procedure or Function 'GetNodeID' expects parameter '@ID', which was not supplied. @ID is the OUTPUT parameter for my procedure, there is an input @machine which is specified and is set to null in the stored procedure: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetNodeID] @machine nvarchar(32) = null, @ID int OUTPUT AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) BEGIN SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END ELSE BEGIN INSERT INTO Nodes (NodeName) VALUES (@machine) SELECT @ID = (SELECT NodeID FROM Nodes WHERE NodeName=@machine) END END The following is the code I'm using to set the parameters and call the procedure: OdbcCommand Cmd = new OdbcCommand("GetNodeID", _Connection); Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Cmd.Parameters.Add("@machine", OdbcType.NVarChar); Cmd.Parameters["@machine"].Value = Environment.MachineName.ToLower(); Cmd.Parameters.Add("@ID", OdbcType.Int); Cmd.Parameters["@ID"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; Cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); _NodeID = (int)Cmd.Parameters["@Count"].Value; I've also tried using Cmd.ExecuteScalar with no success. If I break before I execute the command, I can see that @machine has a value. If I execute the procedure directly from Management Studio, it works correctly. Any thoughts? Thanks

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  • Finding the last focused element

    - by Joshua Cody
    I'm looking to determine which element had the last focus in a series of inputs, that are added dynamically by the user. This code can only get the inputs that are available on page load: $('input.item').focus(function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); And this code sees all elements that have ever had focus: $('input.item').live('focus', function(){ $(this).siblings('ul').slideDown(); }); The HTML structure is this: <ul> <li><input class="item" name="goals[]"> <ul> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> <li>long list here</li> </ul></li> </ul> <a href="#" id="add">Add another</a> On page load, a single input loads. Then with each add another, a new copy of the top unordered list's contents are made and appended, and the new input gets focus. When each gets focus, I'd like to show the list beneath it. But I don't seem to be able to "watch for the most recently focused element, which exists now or in the future." To clarify: I'm not looking for the last occurrence of an element in the DOM tree. I'm looking to find the element that currently has focus, even if said element is not present upon original page load. So in the above image, if I were to focus on the second element, the list of words should appear under the second element. My focus is currently on the last element, so the words are displayed there. Do I have some sort of fundamental assumption wrong?

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  • How to rename an existing Grails application

    - by Johan Pelgrim
    Hi there, Does anybody know how to (easily) "rename" an existing grails application? I'm running into this because my PaaS provider does not allow me to delete a subscription... So I want to deploy my application under a different name. Of course, I can do this manually, but I think it might be a useful 'top-level' script (i.e. "grails rename-app newappname") Manual hints: When I do a "grails create-app myappname" I can see the myappname exists in the following files (and filenames)... Of course this is done by the create-app script, which replaces @...@ tokens in the template. I guess once they are replaced, it's not trivial to do a rename. ./.project: <name>myappname</name> ./application.properties:app.name=myappname ./build.xml:<project xmlns:ivy="antlib:org.apache.ivy.ant" name="myappname" default="test"> ./ivy.xml: <info organisation="org.example" module="myappname"/> ./myappname-test.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="/myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry containerPath="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.JRE_CONTAINER" javaProject="myappname" path="1" type="4"/> "/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.VM_ARGUMENTS" value="-Dbase.dir="${project_loc:myappname}" -Dserver.port=8080 -Dgrails.env=development"/> ./myappname.tmproj: <string>myappname.launch</string> And of course... the top-level directory name is "myappname" Any hints, or information about ongoing initiatives in this area are welcome Greetz, Johan

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  • Java and .net interoperability

    - by dineshrekula
    I have a c# program through which i am opening cmd window as a a process. in this command window i am running a batch file. i am redirecting the output of that batch file commands to a Text File. When i run my application everything seems to be ok. But few times, Application is giving some error like "Can't access the file. it's being used by another application" at the same time cmd window is not getting closed. If we close the cmd process through the Task Manager, then it's writing the content to the file and getting closed. Even though i closed the cmd process, still file handle is not getting released. so that i am not able to run the application next time onwards.Always it's saying Can't access the file. Only after restarting the system, it's working. Here is my code: Process objProcess = new Process(); ProcessStartInfo objProInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(); objProInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Maximized; objProInfo.UseShellExecute = true; objProInfo.FileName = "Batch file path" objProInfo.Arguments = "Some Arguments"; if (Directory.Exists(strOutputPath) == false) { Directory.CreateDirectory(strOutputPath); } objProInfo.CreateNoWindow = false; objProcess.StartInfo = objProInfo; objProcess.Start(); objProcess.WaitForExit(); test.bat: java classname argument > output.txt Here is my question: I am not able to trace where the problem is.. How we can see the process which holding handle on ant file. Is there any suggestions for Java and .net interoperability

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  • Spring bean's DESTROY-METHOD attribute and web-application "prototype"d bean

    - by EugeneP
    Can get work the attribute "destroy-method". First, even if I type non-existing method name into "destroy-method" attribute, Spring initialization completes fine (already strange!). Next, when a bean has a "prototype" scope, then I suppose it must be destroyed before the application is closed. That not happens, it is simply never called in my case. Though, after extracting this bean I can call this method explicitly and it does its job. Could you explain why this method is never called in my Spring 2.5 case? p.s. The method exists, it is public and has no arguments. It seems to be a more difficult task then I thought. The problem is that this destroy method is called whenever the context is closed, and this is a rare case. My question is this: I have a web app. I have a "prototype"-scoped bean. What I need is when the current session is closed, this destroy method was automatically called by Spring. I can do it by hand, but is there any solution how to make Spring do this job? It destroys the bean after the session is destroyed, it might be possible for Spring to call a method on that bean before destroying it?

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  • .NET Remoting switching channels by itself.

    - by Casper
    Hi. We are having an odd problem with .NET Remoting. Basically, we have a server which registers two TcpChannels with ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(): one listens on port 50000, the other one listens on port 15000. We then have a client that registers a TcpChannel to be able to communicate with the server. We retrieve a an object from the server by calling Activator.GetObject() with the URI "tcp://serverip:50000/objectname" and this works fine, the client connects to the server on port 50000 and gets the object. However, when we start calling methods on that object, the connection to the channel on port 50000 is dropped, and a new connection is made to the channel on port 15000 automatically. This poses a real problem for us since we don't want traffic on port 15000 because that channel may not be bound to the same network adapter as the port 50000 channel on the server or that port may not be open in the firewall, which causes the remoting calls to fail naturally. This is very strange to us since the client has no knowledge in our code that there exists another channel on the server on port 15000 or what IP it listens on, yet it attempt to connect to it. Any help on this is greatly appreciated, /Casper c

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  • MySQL - NULL value check and Dynamic SQL inside stored procedure

    - by Mithun P
    DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS HaveSomeFun; CREATE PROCEDURE HaveSomeFun(user_id CHAR(50),house_id CHAR(50),room_id CHAR(50),fun_text TEXT,video_url CHAR(100)) BEGIN DECLARE query_full TEXT; SET @fields_part = 'INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified'; SET @values_part = CONCAT(') VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin(\"', user_id, '\"), \"', fun_text, '\", NOW() '); IF (house_id) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', HouseKey'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', KeyToBin(\'', house_id, '\')'); END IF; IF (room_id) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', RoomKey'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', KeyToBin(\'', room_id, '\')'); END IF; IF (video_url IS NOT NULL) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', VideoURL'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', "', video_url, '"'); END IF; SET query_full = CONCAT(@fields_part, @values_part, ' );'); SET @query_full = query_full; PREPARE STMT FROM @query_full; EXECUTE STMT; SELECT query_full; END; And CALL HaveSomeFun('29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC', '', 'F82C47A8-64DE-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364', 'Jokes apart', ''); will construct the below string in the variable query_full INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified, VideoURL) VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin("29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC"), "Jokes apart", NOW() , "" ); But I need to get INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified, RoomKey, VideoURL) VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin("29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC"), "Jokes apart", NOW() , KeyToBin('F82C47A8-64DE-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364'), "" ); Something is missing in the check IF (room_id) THEN. But I cannot impose IF (room_id IS NOT NULL) THEN since it will create KeyToBin('') and RoomKey is foreign key , KeyToBin('') will produce an invalid RoomKey. Any Idea?

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  • Elegant Algorithm for Parsing Data Stream Into Record

    - by Matt Long
    I am interfacing with a hardware device that streams data to my app over Wifi. The data is streaming in just fine. The data contains a character header (DATA:) that indicates a new record has begun. The issues is that the data I receive doesn't necessarily fall on the header boundary, so I have to capture the data until what I've captured contains the header. Then, everything that precedes the header goes into the previous record and everything that comes after it goes into a new record. I have this working, but wondered if anyone has done this before and has a good computer-sciencey way to solve the problem. Here's what I do: Convert the NSData of the current read to an NSString Append the NSString to a placeholder string Check placeholder string for the header (DATA:). If the header is not there, just wait for the next read. If the header exists, append whatever precedes it to a previous record placeholder and hand that placeholder off to an array as a complete record that I can further parse into fields. Take whatever shows up after the header and place it in the record placeholder so that it can be appended to in the next read. Repeat steps 3 - 5. Let me know if you see any flaws with this or have a suggestion for a better way. Seems there should be some design pattern for this, but I can't think of one. Thanks.

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  • Violation of PRIMARY KEY constraint 'PK_

    - by abhi
    hi am trying to write a code in which i need to perform a update but on primary keys how do i achieve it i have written the following code: kindly look at it let me know where m wrong Protected Sub rgKMSLoc_UpdateCommand(ByVal source As Object, ByVal e As Telerik.Web.UI.GridCommandEventArgs) Handles rgKMSLoc.UpdateCommand Try KAYAReqConn.Open() If TypeOf e.Item Is GridEditableItem Then Dim strItemID As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("hdnID"), HiddenField).Value Dim strrcmbLocation As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("rcmbLocation"), RadComboBox).SelectedValue Dim strKubeLocation As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("txtKubeLocation"), TextBox).Text Dim strCSVCode As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("txtCSVCode"), TextBox).Text SQLCmd = New SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM MstKMSLocKubeLocMapping WHERE LocationID= '" & rcmbLocation.SelectedValue & "'", KAYAReqConn) Dim dr As SqlDataReader dr = SQLCmd.ExecuteReader If dr.HasRows Then lblMsgWarning.Text = "<font color=red>""User ID Already Exists" Exit Sub End If dr.Close() SQLCmd = New SqlCommand("UPDATE MstKMSLocKubeLocMapping SET LocationID=@Location,KubeLocation=@KubeLocation,CSVCode=@CSVCode WHERE LocationID = '" & strItemID & "'", KAYAReqConn) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Location", Replace(strrcmbLocation, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@KubeLocation", Replace(strKubeLocation, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CSVCode", Replace(strCSVCode, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Status", "A") SQLCmd.ExecuteNonQuery() lblMessageUpdate.Text = "<font color=blue>""Record Updated SuccessFully" SQLCmd.Dispose() rgKMSLoc.Rebind() End If Catch ex As Exception Response.Write(ex.ToString) Finally KAYAReqConn.Close() End Try End Sub this is my designer page' Location: ' / ' DataSourceID="dsrcmbLocation" DataTextField="Location" DataValueField="LocationID" Height="150px" Kube Location: ' Class="forTextBox" MaxLength="4" onkeypress="return filterInput(2,event);" CSV Code: ' Class="forTextBox" MaxLength="4" onkeypress="return filterInput(2,event);" <tr class="tableRow"> <td colspan="2" align="center" class="tableCell"> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnUpdate" runat="server" CommandName="Update" CausesValidation="true" ValidationGroup="Update" ImageUrl="~/Images/update.gif"></asp:ImageButton> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnCancel" runat="server" CausesValidation="false" CommandName="Cancel" ImageUrl="~/Images/No.gif"></asp:ImageButton> </td> </tr> </table> </FormTemplate> </EditFormSettings> Locationid is my primary key

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  • .NET Hashtable - "Same" key, different hashes

    - by Simon Lindgren
    Is it possible for two .net strings to have different hashes? I have a Hashtable with amongst others the key "path". When I loop through the elements in the table to print it, i can see that the key exists. When trying to looking it up however, there is no matching element. Debugging suggests that the string I'm looking for has a different hash than the one I'm supplying as the key. This code is in a Castle Monorail project, using brail as a view engine. The key I'm looking for is inserted by a brail line like this: UrlHelper.Link(node.CurrentPage.LinkText, {@params: {@path: "/Page1"}}) Then, in this method (in a custom IRoutingRule): public string CreateUrl(System.Collections.IDictionary parameters) { PrintDictionaryToLog(parameters); string url; if (parameters.Contains("path")) { url = (string)parameters["path"]; } else { return null; } } The key is printed to the log, but the function returns null. I didn't know this could even be a problem with .net strings, but I guess this is some kind of encoding issue? Oh, and this is running mono.

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  • Installing sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin to Symfony 1.4

    - by Christine Q.
    I have faced serious difficulties while installing sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin to Symfony 1.4 w/ Doctrine ORM. The installation directly from the server did not work out like with previous plugins that I have installed: C:\pathsymfony plugin:install sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin plugin installing plugin "sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin" No release available for plugin "sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin" This is why I needed to install the plugin by downloading the tgz-archive and install it manually like this: C:\pathsymfony plugin:install "C:\path\to\downloads\sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin-1.2.4.tgz" plugin installing plugin "C:\path\to\downloads\sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin-1.2.4.tgz" sfSymfonyPluginManager Installing web data for plugin I guess everything should be fine this far? After that I edited \apps\admin\config\settings.yml like instructed in the plugins readme file. all: .settings: enabled_modules: [default, sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManager] I also checked that the plugin was enabled in \config\ProjectConfiguration.class.php like this: $this->enablePlugins(array( // other plugins, 'sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin' )); I published assets and cleared cache: C:\pathsymfony plugin:publish-assets >> plugin Configuring plugin - sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin C:\pathsymfony cc Finally I added the required helper to the newly created apps\admin\modules\category\templates\indexSuccess.php <?php use_helper("sfJqueryTreeDoctrine"); echo get_nested_set_manager("Category", "name"); When loading the page I unfortunately get the following error: 500 | Internal Server Error | InvalidArgumentException Unable to load "sfJqueryTreeDoctrineHelper.php" helper in: SF_ROOT_DIR\apps\admin\modules/businessunitgroup/lib/helper, SF_ROOT_DIR\apps\admin\lib/helper, SF_ROOT_DIR\lib/helper, SF_SYMFONY_LIB_DIR/helper. The file sfJqueryTreeDoctrineHelper.php exists indeed but not in any previously mentioned folder. The file can only be found in the folder \plugins\sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManagerPlugin\lib\helper. I guess that Symfony doesn't look to that folder while finding helpers? I have tried to move the helper file to one of the previously mentioned folders. As expected, that changes the error. Now I get: 500 | Internal Server Error | sfConfigurationException The component does not exist: "sfJqueryTreeDoctrineManager", "manager". Unfortunately I can't figure out how should I be able to retrieve the "missing" component from the correct folder. I would be very grateful for any advice to help me forward. By the way, I am aware that there are other nested-set / tree plugins available for Symfony (like sfDoctrineTreePlugin and caPropelTreePlugin) but unluckily those are either uncompatible or too limited for my needs.

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  • How to download .txt file from a url?

    - by Colin Roe
    I produced a text file and is saved to a location in the project folder. How do I redirect them to the url that contains that text file, so they can download the text file. CreateCSVFile creates the csv file to a file path based on a datatable. Calling: string pth = ("C:\\Work\\PG\\AI Handheld Website\\AI Handheld Website\\Reports\\Files\\report.txt"); CreateCSVFile(data, pth); And the function: public void CreateCSVFile(DataTable dt, string strFilePath) { StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(strFilePath, false); int iColCount = dt.Columns.Count; for (int i = 0; i < iColCount; i++) { sw.Write(dt.Columns[i]); if (i < iColCount - 1) { sw.Write(","); } } sw.Write(sw.NewLine); // Now write all the rows. foreach (DataRow dr in dt.Rows) { for (int i = 0; i < iColCount; i++) { if (!Convert.IsDBNull(dr[i])) { sw.Write(dr[i].ToString()); } if (i < iColCount - 1) { sw.Write(","); } } sw.Write(sw.NewLine); } sw.Close(); Response.WriteFile(strFilePath); FileInfo fileInfo = new FileInfo(strFilePath); if (fileInfo.Exists) { //Response.Clear(); //Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + fileInfo.Name); //Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", fileInfo.Length.ToString()); //Response.ContentType = "application/octet-stream"; //Response.Flush(); //Response.TransmitFile(fileInfo.FullName); } }

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  • Django aggregate query generating SQL error

    - by meepmeep
    I'm using Django 1.1.1 on a SQL Server 2005 db using the latest sqlserver_ado library. models.py includes: class Project(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=50) class Thing(models.Model): project = models.ForeignKey(Project) reference = models.CharField(max_length=50) class ThingMonth(models.Model): thing = models.ForeignKey(Thing) timestamp = models.DateTimeField() ThingMonthValue = models.FloatField() class Meta: db_table = u'ThingMonthSummary' In a view, I have retrieved a queryset called 'things' which contains 25 Things: things = Thing.objects.select_related().filter(project=1).order_by('reference') I then want to do an aggregate query to get the average ThingMonthValue for the first 20 of those Things for a certain period, and the same value for the last 5. For the first 20 I do: averageThingMonthValue = ThingMonth.objects.filter(turbine__in=things[:20],timestamp__range="2009-01-01 00:00","2010-03-00:00")).aggregate(Avg('ThingMonthValue'))['ThingMonthValue__avg'] This works fine, and returns the desired value. For the last 5 I do: averageThingMonthValue = ThingMonth.objects.filter(turbine__in=things[20:],timestamp__range="2009-01-01 00:00","2010-03-00:00")).aggregate(Avg('ThingMonthValue'))['ThingMonthValue__avg'] But for this I get an SQL error: 'Only one expression can be specified in the select list when the subquery is not introduced with EXISTS.' The SQL query being used by django reads: SELECT AVG([ThingMonthSummary].[ThingMonthValue]) AS [ThingMonthValue__avg] FROM [ThingMonthSummary] WHERE ([ThingMonthSummary].[thing_id] IN (SELECT _row_num, [id] FROM ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER ( ORDER BY [AAAA].[id] ASC) as _row_num, [AAAA].[id] FROM ( SELECT U0.[id] FROM [Thing] U0 WHERE U0.[project_id] = 1 ) AS [AAAA]) as QQQ where 20 < _row_num) AND [ThingMonthSummary].[timestamp] BETWEEN '01/01/09 00:00:00' and '03/01/10 00:00:00') Any idea why it works for one slice of the Things and not the second? I've checked and the two slices do contain the desired Things correctly.

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  • Script to copy files on CD and not on hard disk to a new directory

    - by John22
    I need to copy files from a set of CDs that have a lot of duplicate content, with each other, and with what's already on my hard disk. The file names of identical files are not the same, and are in sub-directories of different names. I want to copy non-duplicate files from the CD into a new directory on the hard disk. I don't care about the sub-directories - I will sort it out later - I just want the unique files. I can't find software to do that - see my post at SuperUser http://superuser.com/questions/129944/software-to-copy-non-duplicate-files-from-cd-dvd Someone at SuperUser suggested I write a script using GNU's "find" and the Win32 version of some checksum tools. I glanced at that, and have not done anything like that before. I'm hoping something exists that I can modify. I found a good program to delete duplicates, Duplicate Cleaner (it compares checksums), but it won't help me here, as I'd have to copy all the CDs to disk, and each is probably about 80% duplicates, and I don't have room to do that - I'd have to cycle through a few at a time copying everything, then turning around and deleting 80% of it, working the hard drive a lot. Thanks for any help.

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  • How to modify/replace option set file when building from command line?

    - by Heinrich Ulbricht
    I build packages from a batch file using commands like: msbuild ..\lib\Package.dproj /target:Build /p:config=%1 The packages' settings are dependent on an option set: <Import Project="..\optionsets\COND_Defined.optset" Condition="'$(Base)'!='' And Exists('..\optionsets\COND_Defined.optset')"/> This option set defines a conditional symbol many of my packages depend on. The file looks like this: <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <DCC_Define>CONDITION;$(DCC_Define)</DCC_Define> </PropertyGroup> <ProjectExtensions> <Borland.Personality>Delphi.Personality.12</Borland.Personality> <Borland.ProjectType>OptionSet</Borland.ProjectType> <BorlandProject> <Delphi.Personality/> </BorlandProject> <ProjectFileVersion>12</ProjectFileVersion> </ProjectExtensions> </Project> Now I need two builds: one with the condition defined and one without. My attack vector would be the option set file. I have some ideas on what to do: write a program which modifies the option set file, run this before batch build fiddle with the project files and modify the option set path to contain an environment variable, then have different option sets in different locations But before starting to reinvent the wheel I'd like to ask how you would tackle this task? Maybe there are already means meant to support such a case (like certain command line switches, things I could configure in Delphi or batch file magic).

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  • Post method in Servlet is not being called again after being executed once

    - by SaurabhCsIITKgp
    I am implementing a database based web application using servlets. Now, when I input a parameter using a form in the jsp page, it redirects it to a servlet which subsequently adds the value to the database (the servlet creates a new table if the table doesn't already exist). The creation of the table and the addition of value works fine if the table doesn't already exists. Once it is created however and the parameter is inputted again in the form, the submit button no longer redirects it to the servlet. Nor is the value added to the database. Kindly advise me as to where I am going wrong. Following are the snippets of my code: From the JSP page (/showmanager is the urlpattern of the servlet): <form action="showmanager" method="post"> <h3>Enter name of the show: </h3> <input type="text" name="showname" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="task" value="addshow" /> <input type="button" value="Add Show"> </form> From the servlet (POST method): p rotected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if(request.getParameter("task").equals("addshow")){ this.addShow(request.getParameter("showname")); response.sendRedirect("showmanager.jsp"); } } Method to add in database: protected boolean addShow(String showname){ try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } } catch(Exception e) { try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("create table showdb10 (id int NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, date varchar(20),time varchar(20), b_total int, o_total int, b_avbl int, o_avbl int, b_price double(10,2), o_price double(10,2), seat_no varchar(20), transaction_id varchar(255), total_sales double(10,2), paymnt_artists double(10,2), paymnt_othr double(10,2), flag varchar(20), PRIMARY KEY(id))"); statement.executeUpdate(); statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } }catch(Exception e2){} } return false; }

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