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  • Jquery tabs with cookie support restore wrong tab position after page refresh.

    - by zenonych
    Hello, all. I have tricky problem which I can't completely understand... It's jquery tabs with cookie support. I've following code: $(document).ready(function() { var $tabs = $("#tabs").tabs(); $tabs.tabs('select', $.cookie("tabNumber")); $('#tabs ul li a').click(function() { $.cookie("tabNumber", $tabs.tabs('option', 'selected')); }); $('#btnSelect').click(function() { //alert($.cookie("tabNumber")); //$tabs.tabs('select', 2); $tabs.tabs('select', $.cookie("tabNumber")); }); }); So, I've 3 tabs (with positions 0,1,2) inside div named "tabs". When user selects one tab, then tab position stores in cookie. After that if user refresh page, active tab position must be restored. But each time I refresh page I get active tab in previous position (if I select 2nd tab, then after refresh I got active tab in position 1, etc.). I add some test in code (button btnSelect with onclick handler which duplicates load position functionality). So, if I uncomment and use $tabs.tabs('select', 2); Then after I click btnSelect I've got right position. Ok, that's right. Then I comment that line and uncomment next one: alert($.cookie("tabNumber")); So, I select tab, click button, get dialog message "2", and after that tab in position 1 became active. Why?? In both cases I call 'select' method with parameter 2... I know I can use aliases for tabs, but I want to understate why my code doesn't work properly.

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  • Just for fun (C# and C++)...time yourself [closed]

    - by Ted
    Possible Duplicate: What is your solution to the FizzBuzz problem? OK guys this is just for fun, no flamming allowed ! I was reading the following http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2007/02/why-cant-programmers-program.html and couldn't believe the following sentence... " I've also seen self-proclaimed senior programmers take more than 10-15 minutes to write a solution." For those that can't be bothered to read the article, the background is this: ....I set out to develop questions that can identify this kind of developer and came up with a class of questions I call "FizzBuzz Questions" named after a game children often play (or are made to play) in schools in the UK. An example of a Fizz-Buzz question is the following: Write a program that prints the numbers from 1 to 100. But for multiples of three print "Fizz" instead of the number and for the multiples of five print "Buzz". For numbers which are multiples of both three and five print "FizzBuzz". SO I decided to test myself. I took 5 minutes in C++ and 3mins in c#! So just for fun try it and post your timings + language used! P.S NO UNIT TESTS REQUIRED, NO OUTSOURCING ALLOWED, SWITCH OFF RESHARPER! :-) P.S. If you'd like to post your source then feel free

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  • Magento layout related basic Questions ?

    - by user197992
    Here is what I think about Magento (plz correct me if I am wrong ) 1)Each module has its own layout.xml stored in /interface/theme/layouts/ folder. 2)Magento loads all these layouts for current theme and creates a big xml file. Now what I am confused at . a)If magento loads /default/default/ (interface & theme) then why all the templates & layouts are inside base/default/ ?? b)what if I create my module name “page” inside my namespace “Jason” i.e Jason_Page , now what will happen to blocks in layout files which are named c)Since all the layouts are loaded and merged into one big xml file , then what happen to all those reference blocks which have same name attribute and are inside “Default” handle tag ? e.g d)what is Local.xml layout for and its use ?? e)wats the relation ship between a module name foo , and its layout name foo.xml ? What will happen to layout.xml if two modules with same name exist in diff namespace ? Thanks in advance .

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  • Why is this Javascript that writes out a Google Ad not displaying properly on the iPhone?

    - by Dave M G
    I have this Javacsript code that checks to see if there is a DIV named "google-ad", and if there is, it writes in a the necessary code to display the Google Ad. This works great in browsers like Firefox, Chrome, Safari on Mac, and Android. However, when I bundle this code with Adobe's Phonegap Build, and deploy it to iPhones, it behaves strangely. It launches a browser window displaying just the Google Ad alone. In order to keep using my app, every time I change a page and a new Google Ad is loaded, I have to close the browser window to get back to the app. Why is this code launching browser windows outside of my Phonegap app on iPhone? if(document.getElementById("google-ad") && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== null && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== "undefined") { if(userStatus.status == 0) { document.getElementById("centre").style.padding = "137px 0 12px 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.margin = "-138px 0 0 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.height = "132px"; document.getElementById("header-username").style.top = "52px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.height = "50px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.width = "320px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.backgroundColor = "#f0ebff"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.display = "block"; window["google_ad_client"] = 'ca-pub-0000000000000000'; window["google_ad_slot"] = "00000000"; window["google_ad_width"] = 320; window["google_ad_height"] = 50; window.adcontainer = document.getElementById('google-ad'); window.adhtml = ''; function mywrite(html) { adhtml += html; adcontainer.innerHTML = adhtml; }; document.write_ = document.write; document.write = mywrite; script = document.createElement('script'); script.src='http://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/show_ads.js'; script.type='text/javascript'; document.body.appendChild(script); }

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  • C# "Rename" Property in Derived Class

    - by Eric
    When you read this you'll be awfully tempted to give advice like "this is a bad idea for the following reason..." Bear with me. I know there are other ways to approach this. This question should be considered trivia. Lets say you have a class "Transaction" that has properties common to all transactions such as Invoice, Purchase Order, and Sales Receipt. Let's take the simple example of Transaction "Amount", which is the most important monetary amount for a given transaction. public class Transaction { public double Amount { get; set; } public TxnTypeEnum TransactionType { get; set; } } This Amount may have a more specific name in a derived type... at least in the real world. For example, the following values are all actually the same thing: Transaction - Amount Invoice - Subtotal PurchaseOrder - Total Sales Receipt - Amount So now I want a derived class "Invoice" that has a Subtotal rather than the generically-named Amount. Ideally both of the following would be true: In an instance of Transaction, the Amount property would be visible. In an instance of Invoice, the Amount property would be hidden, but the Subtotal property would refer to it internally. Invoice looks like this: public class Invoice : Transaction { new private double? Amount { get { return base.Amount; } set { base.Amount = value; } } // This property should hide the generic property "Amount" on Transaction public double? SubTotal { get { return Amount; } set { Amount = value; } } public double RemainingBalance { get; set; } } But of course Transaction.Amount is still visible on any instance of Invoice. Thanks for taking a look!

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  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

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  • FluentNHibernate: Not.Nullable() doesn't affect output schema

    - by alex
    Hello I'm using fluent nhibernate v. 1.0.0.595. There is a class: public class Weight { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual double Value { get; set; } } I want to map it on the following table: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Weight DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) Here is the map: public class WeightMap : ClassMap<Weight> { public WeightMap() { Table("[Weight]"); Id(x => x.Id, "WeightId"); Map(x => x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable(); } } The problem is that this mapping produces table with nullable Weight column: Weight DOUBLE null Not-nullable column is generated only with default convention for column name (i.e. Map(x = x.Value).Not.Nullable() instead of Map(x = x.Value, "Weight").Not.Nullable()), but in this case there will be Value column instead of Weight: create table [Weight] ( WeightId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL, Value DOUBLE not null, primary key (WeightId) ) I found similiar problem here: http://code.google.com/p/fluent-nhibernate/issues/detail?id=121, but seems like mentioned workaround with SetAttributeOnColumnElement("not-null", "true") is outdated. Does anybody encountered with this problem? Is there a way to specify named column as not-nullable?

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  • Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

    - by Kenny Wyland
    I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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  • How to check at runtime if a class implements certain interface?

    - by mare
    Let's say I have some content classes like Page, TabGroup, Tab, etc. Certain of those will be implementing my IWidgetContainer interface - it means they will geet an additional field named ContainedItems from the interface and some methods for manipulating this field. Now I need to reflect the fact that some class implements this interface by rendering out some special custom controls in my ASP.NET MVC Views (like jQuery Add/Remove/Move/Reorder buttons). For instance, TabGroup will implement IWidgetContainer because it will contain tabs but a tab will not implement it because it won't have the ability to contain anything. So I have to somehow check in my view, when I render my content objects (The problem is, I use my base class as strong type in my view not concrete classes), whether it implements IWidgetContainer. How is that possible or have I completely missed something? To rephrase the question, how do you reflect some special properties of a class (like interface implementation) in the UI in general (not necessarily ASP.NET MVC)? Here's my code so far: [DataContract] public class ContentClass { [DataMember] public string Slug; [DataMember] public string Title; [DataMember] protected ContentType Type; } [DataContract] public class Group : ContentClass, IWidgetContainer { public Group() { Type = ContentType.TabGroup; } public ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } public void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } [DataContract] public class GroupElement : ContentClass { public GroupElement() { Type = ContentType.Tab; } } Interface: interface IWidgetContainer { [DataMember] ContentList ContainedItems { get; set; } void AddContent(ContentListItem toAdd); void RemoveContent(ContentListItem toRemove); }

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  • What is the best practice for including jQuery ext functions?

    - by Metropolis
    Hey everyone, Currently I have a file that I named JQuery.ext.js which I am including in all of my pages. Inside this file I have numerous functions that do things like the following, (function($) { /** * Checks to see is the value inside ele is blank * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is blank * @return bool */ $.fn.isEmpty = function(message) { var b_IsEmpty = false; //Loop through all elements this.each(function() { //Check to see if an empty value is found if($(this).val().length <= 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsEmpty = true; return false; } return true; }); //Return false if the evaluation failed, otherwise return the jquery object so we can reuse it return (b_IsEmpty) ? true : false; }; /** * Checks to see if the value inside ele is numbers only * @param message string The message that needs to be displayed if the element is not numeric * @return bool */ $.fn.isNumeric = function(message) { var expression = /^[0-9]+$/; var b_IsNumeric = true; //Loop through elements checking each one this.each( function() { //Check to see if this value is not numeric if(!$(this).val().match(expression) && $(this).val().length > 0) { //If message is not blank if(message) { alert(message); $(this).focus().select(); } b_IsNumeric = false; } return b_IsNumeric; }); return b_IsNumeric; }; })(jQuery); Is there another way to do this? or is this the way most people do it? Thanks for any help, Metropolis

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  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

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  • Logback: Logging with two loggers

    - by gammay
    I would like to use slf4j+logback for two purposes in my application - log and audit. For logging, I log the normal way: static final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Main.class); logger.debug("-> main()"); For Audit, I create a special named logger and log to it: static final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger("AUDIT_LOGGER"); Object[] params = { new Integer(1) /* TenantID */, new Integer(10) /* UserID */, msg}; logger.info("{}|{}|{}", params); logback configuration: <logger name="AUDIT_LOGGER" level="info"> <appender name="STDOUT" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <encoder> <pattern>%d{HH:mm:ss.SSS}|%msg%n </pattern> </encoder> </appender> </logger> <root level="all"> <appender name="STDOUT" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <encoder> <pattern>%d{HH:mm:ss.SSS} [%thread] %-5level %logger{36} - %msg%n </pattern> </encoder> </appender> </root> Problem: Messages logged through audit logger appear twice - once under the AUDIT_LOGGER and once under the root logger. 14:41:57.975 [main] DEBUG com.gammay.example.Main - - main() 14:41:57.978|1|10|welcome to main 14:41:57.978 [main] INFO AUDIT_LOGGER - 1|10|welcome to main How can I make sure audit messages appear only once under the audit logger?

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  • Two "Calendar" entries listed on iPad - can't write to calendar using EventKit

    - by Neal
    My iOS app integrates with the device's calendar. On my iPad when I view the calendar app and tap the Calendars button on the top left to choose which calendars to show I see one entry named "Calendar". In my app when I loop through available calendars per the code below "Calendar" is listed twice. One is CalDAV for the type, the other is Local. I'm unable to create calendar entries in one of them, I believe the "Local" one, not sure why. Why do I see "Calendar" listed twice when I do NOT see it listed twice in the iCal app? public static List<string> Calendars { get { var calendars = new List<string>(); var ekCalendars = EventStore.Calendars; if (ekCalendars != null && ekCalendars.Length > 0) { foreach (EKCalendar cal in ekCalendars) { if (cal.AllowsContentModifications) calendars.Add(cal.Title); } calendars.Sort(); } return calendars; } }

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  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

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  • EF in a UserControl can't see the app.config?

    - by Sven
    I just created a user control. This control also makes use of my static Entity Framework class to load two comboboxes. All is well and runs without a problem. Design and runtime are working. Then when I stop the application all the forms that contain my UserControl don't work any more in design time. I just see two errors: Error1: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. Error 2: The variable ccArtikelVelden is either undeclared or was never assigned. (ccArtikelVelde is my UserControl) Runtime everything is still working My static EF Repositoy class: public class BSManagerData { private static BSManagerEntities _entities; public static BSManagerEntities Entities { get { if (_entities == null) _entities = new BSManagerEntities(); return _entities; } set { _entities = value; } } } Some logic happening in my UserControl to load the data in the comboboxes: private void LaadCbx() { cbxCategorie.DataSource = (from c in BSManagerData.Entities.Categories select c).ToList(); cbxCategorie.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxCategorie.ValueMember = "Id"; } private void cbxCategorie_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { cbxFabrikant.DataSource = from f in BSManagerData.Entities.Fabrikants where f.Categorie.Id == ((Categorie)cbxCategorie.SelectedItem).Id select f; cbxFabrikant.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxFabrikant.ValueMember = "Id"; } The only way to make my forms work again, design time, is to comment out the EF part in the UserControl (see above) and rebuild. It's very strange, everything is in the same assembly, same namespace (for the sake of simplicity). Anyone an idea?

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  • Hibernate JPA Caching Problem, Please help!

    - by Sameer Malhotra
    Ok, Here is my problem. I have a table named Master_Info_tbl. Its a lookup table: Here is the code for the table: @Entity @Table(name="MASTER_INFO_T") public class CodeValue implements java.io.Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -3732397626260983394L; private Integer objectid; private String codetype; private String code; private String shortdesc; private String longdesc; private Integer dptid; private Integer sequen; private Timestamp begindate; private Timestamp enddate; private String username; private Timestamp rowlastchange; //getter Setter methods I have a service layer which calls the method       service.findbycodeType("Code1");   same way this table is queried for the other code types as well e.g. code2, code3 and so on till code10 which gets the result set from the same table and is shown into the drop down of the jsp pages since these drop downs are in 90% of the pages I am thinking to cache them globally. Any idea how to achieve this? FYI: I am using JPA and Hibernate with Struts2 and Spring. The database being used is DB2 UDB8.2 Please help!

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  • entity framework navigation property further filter without loading into memory

    - by cellik
    Hi, I've two entities with 1 to N relation in between. Let's say Books and Pages. Book has a navigation property as Pages. Book has BookId as an identifier and Page has an auto generated id and a scalar property named PageNo. LazyLoading is set to true. I've generated this using VS2010 & .net 4.0 and created a database from that. In the partial class of Book, I need a GetPage function like below public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { //checking whether it exist etc are not included for simplicity return Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber).First(); } This works. However, since Pages property in the Book is an EntityCollection it has to load all Pages of a book in memory in order to get the one page (this slows down the app when this function is hit for the first time for a given book). i.e. Framework does not merge the queries and run them at once. It loads the Pages in memory and then uses LINQ to objects to do the second part To overcome this I've changed the code as follows public Page GetPage(int PageNumber) { MyContainer container = new MyContainer(); return container.Pages.Where(p=>p.PageNo==PageNumber && p.Book.BookId==BookId).First(); } This works considerably faster however it doesn't take into account the pages that have not been serialized to the db. So, both options has its cons. Is there any trick in the framework to overcome this situation. This must be a common scenario where you don't want all of the objects of a Navigation property loaded in memory when you don't need them.

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  • Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

    - by ropstah
    I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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  • How can I get git to work with a remote server?

    - by Adrienne
    I am the CM person for a small company that just started using Git. We have two Git repositories currently hosted on a Windows box that is our all-purpose Windows server. But, we just set up a dedicated server for our CM software on an Ubuntu Linux server named "Callisto". So I created a test Git repository on Callisto. I gave its directory all of the proper permissions recursively. I had the sysadmin create a login for me on Callisto, and I created a key to use for logging in via SSH. I set up my key to use a passphrase; I don't know if that could be contributing to my problems? Anyway, I know my SSH login works because I tested it through puTTY. But, even after hours of trials and head scratching, I can't get my Windows Git bash (mSysGit) to talk to Callisto for the purposes of pushing or pulling Callisto's git repository files. I keep getting "Fatal error. The remote end hung up unexpectedly." And I've even gotten the error that Git doesn't recognize the test repository on Callisto as a git repository. I read online that the "Fatal error...hung up unexpectedly" is usually a problem with the server connection or permissions. So what am I missing or overlooking here? And why doesn't a pull using the git:// protocol work, since that only uses read-only access? Group and public permissions for the git repository's directory on Callisto are set to read and execute, but not write. If anyone could help, I would be so grateful. Thank you.

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  • C# How to create various objects at runtime that can hold strongly typed data?

    - by JL
    Is it possible to create objects at runtime without having to have hard coded class definitions, then populate properties with primitives or even strongly typed data types? For example: Lets say I want to an XML config file that could hold configuration values for connecting to various systems in an SOA application. In C# I read in these values, but for each system the properties are different (e.g: SQL might have a connection string, while SharePoint might need a username + password + domain + url, while yet an smtp server would need username + password + port + url) So instead of creating static classes as follows public class SharePointConfiguration or public class SQLConfiguration, then have each class with custom properties (this is cumbersome) Is there not a more preferred way to achieve this, without using 1990's methods, in otherwords it would still be nice to have intellisense and code completion and named properties. Since this collection of properties (object) would be passed within the class and possible to other classes from function to function I am also wondering where this class definition would get defined if its all happening at run time. Any recommendations, and hope the question was clear enough. Would like to use language features, not hacks. Thank you.

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  • Is there any need for me to use wstring in the following case

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    Currently, I am developing an app for a China customer. China customer are mostly switch to GB2312 language in their OS encoding. I need to write a text file, which will be encoded using GB2312. I use std::ofstream file I compile my application under MBCS mode, not unicode. I use the following code, to convert CString to std::string, and write it to file using ofstream std::string Utils::ToString(CString& cString) { /* Will not work correctly, if we are compiled under unicode mode. */ return (LPCTSTR)cString; } To my surprise. It just works. I thought I need to at least make use of wstring. I try to do some investigation. Here is the MBCS.txt generated. I try to print a single character named ? (its value is 0xBDC5) When I use CString to carry this character, its length is 2. When I use Utils::ToString to perform conversion to std::string, the returned string length is 2. I write to file using std::ofstream My question is : When I exam MBCS.txt using a hex editor, the value is displayed as BD (LSB) and C5 (MSB). But I am using little endian machine. Isn't hex editor should show me C5 (LSB) and BD (MSB)? I check from wikipedia. GB2312 seems doesn't specific endianness. It seems that using std::string + CString just work fine for my case. May I know in what case, the above methodology will not work? and when I should start to use wstring?

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  • How to alter Postgres table data based on its contents?

    - by williamjones
    This is probably a super simple question, but I'm struggling to come up with the right keywords to find it on Google. I have a Postgres table that has among its contents a column of type text named content_type. That stores what type of entry is stored in that row. There are only about 5 different types, and I decided I want to change one of them to display as something else in my application (I had been directly displaying these). It struck me that it's funny that my view is being dictated by my database model, and I decided I would convert the types being stored in my database as strings into integers, and enumerate the possible types in my application with constants that convert them into their display names. That way, if I ever got the urge to change any category names again, I could just change it with one alteration of a constant. I also have the hunch that storing integers might be somewhat more efficient than storing text in the database. First, a quick threshold question of, is this a good idea? Any feedback or anything I missed? Second, and my main question, what's the Postgres command I could enter to make an alteration like this? I'm thinking I could start by renaming the old content_type column to old_content_type and then creating a new integer column content_type. However, what command would look at a row's old_content_type and fill in the new content_type column based off of that?

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  • Updating a Database from DataBound Controls

    - by Avatar_Squadron
    Hi. I'm currently creating a WinForm in VB.NET bound to an access database. Basically what i have are two forms: one is a search form used to search the database, and the other is a details form. You run a search on the searchForm and it returns a list of Primary Keys and a few other identifying values. You then double click on the entry you want to view, and it loads the details form. The Details form has a collection of databound controls to display the data: mostly text boxes and checkboxs. The way i've set it up is i used the UI to build the form and then set the DataBindings Property of each control to "TblPropertiesBindingSource - " where value name is one of the values in the table (such as PropertyID or HasWoodFloor). Then, when you double click an entry in the searchform, I handle the event by parsing the Primary Key (PropertyID) out of the selected row and then storing this to the details form: Note: Detail is the details form that is opened to display the info Private Sub propView_CellDoubleClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellEventArgs) Handles propView.CellDoubleClick Dim detail As frmPropertiesDetail = New frmPropertiesDetail detail.id = propView.Rows(e.RowIndex).Cells(0).Value detail.Show() End Sub Then, upon loading the details form, it set's the filter on the BindSource as such: TblPropertiesBindingSource.Filter() = "PropertyID=" & id This works great so far. All the controls on the details form will display the correct info. The problem is updating changes. Scenario: If i have the user load the details for say, property 10001, it will show a description in a textBox named descriptionBox which is identical to the value of the description value of for that entry in the database. I want the user to then be able to change the text of the text box (which they can currently do) and click the save button (saveBut) and have the form update all the values in the controls to the database. Theorectically, it should do this as the controls are DataBound, thus i can avoid writing code that tells each entry in the database row to take the value of the aligned control. I've tried calleding PropertiesTableAdapter.Update(PropertiesBindingSource.DataSource), but that doesnt seem to do it.

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  • VBA does not run Powerpoint

    - by user1557188
    This is very frustrating, first lines of programming Powerpoint VBA after a long while .... Please help this is killing me Writing a small sub connecting to an action using name test Sub test() MSGBOX "this is a test " end sub I placed this in a module I just created and it works I copy the same test in named as a module and it does not work any more .... I'm trying to make PPT connect to events to do things on a per slide basis ..... using google.... this worked a few times ... but now nothing works any more. The simple test above fails since I renamed the module. As I further change the second routine to test1() ipv test None of the macros can be executed any more (module1 NOT CHNANGED) Module NAME..... contains the same code, except test1() ipv test. ... now all macro processing stops the color of text changes (as is clicked on it) but nothing gets obviously executed. Are things that unstable recenty in VBA for powerpoint 2010 how did I run: connect to empty slide using 3 lines test 1 test 2 test 3 on each of the lines I defined an action for each in different modules run: Go into slide show and on the first slide just click.... color changes but nothing happens any more Saved all closed restarted .... simply refuses except on first created pptm

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  • Implementing Tagging System with PHP and mySQL. Caching help!!!

    - by Hamid Sarfraz
    With reference to this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2122546/how-to-implement-tag-counting I have implemented the suggested 3 table tagging system completely. To count the number of Articles per tag, i am using another column named tagArticleCount in the tag definition table. (other columns are tagId, tagText, tagUrl, tagArticleCount). If i implement realtime editing of this table, so that whenever user adds another tag to article or deletes an existing tag, the tag_definition_table is updated to update the counter of the added/removed tag. This will cost an extra query each time any modification is made. (at the same time, related link entry for tag and article is deleted from tagLinkTable). An alternative to this is not allowing any real time editing to the counter, instead use CRONs to update counter of each tag after a specified time period. Here comes the problem that i want to discuss. This can be seen as caching the article count in database. Can you please help me find a way to present the articles in a list when a tag is explored and when the article counter for that tag is not up to date. For example: 1. Counter shows 50 articles, but there are infact 55 entries in the tag link table (that links tags and articles). 2. Counter shows 50 articles, but there are infact 45 extries in the tag link table. How to handle these 2 scenerios given in example. I am going to use APC to keep cache of these counters. Consider it too in your solution. Also discuss performance in the realtime / CRONNED counter updates.

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