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  • Binding Data into a Resource

    - by Jordan
    How do you bind data from the view model into an object in the resources of the user control? Here is a very abstract example: <UserControl ... xmlns:local="clr-namespace:My.Local.Namespace" Name="userControl"> <UserControl.Resources> <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ???}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer1" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> <local:GroupingConsumer Name="groupingConsumer2" Provider={StaticResource groupingProvider"} /> </Grid> </UserControl> How do I bind GroupValue to a property in the view model behind this view. I've tried the following: <local:GroupingProvider x:Key="groupingProvider" GroupValue="{Binding ElementName=userControl, Path=DataContext.Property}"/> But this doesn't work. Edit: GroupProvider extends DependencyObject and GroupValue is the name of a DependencyProperty. I'm getting an debugging message telling me that the property to which I am binding doesn't exist.

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  • form:select items problem in spring mvc portlet

    - by dhaval
    I have a set of drop-down control which I want to render with my custom tag library. The following is the code of the tag lib: <spring:bind path="${path}"> <c:choose> <c:when test="${readOnly}"> <span class="readOnly">${status.value}</span> </c:when> <c:otherwise> <form:select path="${path }" itemLabel="${label }" itemValue="${value }" items="${itemList}"> </form:select> </c:otherwise> </c:choose> And this is the code I have written in the JSP file: <tag:conditionalListControl path="model.selectedCountry" readOnly="false" label="name" value="id" listItems="model.countryList" className="simple" /> Upon execution the paring returns the following error: [jsp:165] javax.servlet.jsp.JspException: Type [java.lang.String] is not valid for option items But if i change the items="${itemList}" to items="${model.countryList}" which is the list I want to display, it works fine without any problem and also bind to required variables on form submit. But i don't want to hard code any variables in the tag lib. Any suggestions???

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  • In Emacs, how can I use imenu more sensibly with C#?

    - by Cheeso
    I've used emacs for a long time, but I haven't been keeping up with a bunch of features. One of these is speedbar, which I just briefly investigated now. Another is imenu. Both of these were mentioned in in-emacs-how-can-i-jump-between-functions-in-the-current-file? Using imenu, I can jump to particular methods in the module I'm working in. But there is a parse hierarchy that I have to negotiate before I get the option to choose (with autocomplete) the method name. It goes like this. I type M-x imenu and then I get to choose Using or Types. The Using choice allows me to jump to any of the using statements at the top level of the C# file (something like imports statements in a Java module, for those of you who don't know C#). Not super helpful. I choose Types. Then I have to choose a namespace and a class, even though there is just one of each in the source module. At that point I can choose between variables, types, and methods. If I choose methods I finally get the list of methods to choose from. The hierarchy I traverse looks like this; Using Types Namespace Class Types Variables Methods method names Only after I get to the 5th level do I get to select the thing I really want to jump to: a particular method. Imenu seems intelligent about the source module, but kind of hard to use. Am I doing it wrong?

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  • How do I get 2-way data binding to work for nested asp.net Repeater controls

    - by jimblanchard
    I have the following (trimmed) markup: <asp:Repeater ID="CostCategoryRepeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="costCategory"> <asp:Repeater ID="CostRepeater" runat="server" DataSource='<%# Eval("Costs")%>'> <ItemTemplate> <tr class="oddCostRows"> <td class="costItemTextRight"><span><%# Eval("Variance", "{0:c0}")%></span></td> <td class="costItemTextRight"><input id="SupplementAmount" class="costEntryRight" type="text" value='<%# Bind("SupplementAmount")%>' runat="server" /></td> </tr> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> The outer repeater's DataSource is set in the code-beside. I've snipped them, but there are Eval statements that wire up to the properties in the outer Repeater. Anyway, one of the fields in the inner Repeater needs to be a Bind instead of an Eval, as I want to get the values that the user types in. The SupplementAmount input element correctly receives it's value when the page loads, but on the other side, when I inspect the contents of the Costs List when the form posts back, the changes the user made aren't present. Thanks.

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  • How to generate a monotone MART ROC in R?

    - by user1521587
    I am using R and applying MART (Alg. for multiple additive regression trees) on a training set to build prediction models. When I look at the ROC curve, it is not monotone. I would be grateful if someone can help me with how I should fix this. I am guessing the issue is that initially, MART generates n trees and if these trees are not the same for all the models I am building, the results will not be comparable. Here are the steps I take: 1) Fix the false-negative cost, c_fn. Let cost = c(0, 1, c_fn, 0). 2) use the following line to build the mart model: mart(x, y, lx, martmode='class', niter=2000, cost.mtx=cost) where x is the matrix of training set variables, y is the observation matrix, lx is the matrix which specifies which of the variables in x is numerical, which one categorical. 3) I predict the test set observations using the mart model found in step 2 using this line: y_pred = martpred(x_test, probs=T) 4) I compute the false-positive and false-negative errors as follows: t = 1/(1+c_fn) %threshold based on Bayes optimal rule where c_fp=1 and c_fn. p_0 = length(which(y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_01 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==0))/dim(y_test)[1] p_11 = sum(1*(y_pred[,2]t & y_test==1))/dim(y_test)[1] p_fp = p_01/(1-p_0) p_tp = p_11/p_0 5) repeat step 1-4 for a new false-negative cost.

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  • image onclick event not working

    - by heart_throbber
    im tryin to make a onclick event for my image, but its not workin..the alert is not showing up.. $(document).ready(function(){ $('img.closeAttrIcon').click(function(){ alert("ww"); }); }); even if i try like this with ..bind.. no hope... $(document).ready(function(){ $('img.closeAttrIcon').bind('click',function(){ alert("ww"); }); }); the html will be created during this event: $('a#btnAddStdntAttr').click(function(){ var newAttr = '<div class="attrParent"><br class="clear"><label></label><input type="text" id="stdntAttributeKey1" maxlength="250" style="width: 13%;" name="stdntAttributeKey1"/>'; newAttr+= '<input type="text" id="stdntAttributeValue1" maxlength="250" style="width: 13%;" name="stdntAttributeValue1"/>'; newAttr+= '<img src="<c:url value="/static/images/closeIcon.png"/>" onclick="removeStdntAttr();" class="closeAttrIcon" alt="Close" title="Close" /></div>'; $(this).after(newAttr); }); what am i doing wrong here..please help..

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  • My treeview Data is Not changing.

    - by Vibin Jith
    Hai , I am trying to display the user permission in a treeview.For each user permissions are stored in the database as xml file. In the page, a Combo box used to list the users and a treeView used to bind the Permission xml. When the user get selected in the combo box , i took the xml from the database and connect with xmlDatasource and bind with the treeView. What happening is , First time the TreeView fill with the xml nodes and another time it will not work. For the first selection it's ok. Anothers selections are not effected by the treeview. The code is debugging. No problem. Can you just tell ,why the treeview datasource is not updating. I used this code .. Dim permissionRoot = From permissionNode In MyUser.UserPermissionXml.Root.Elements("menuNode") XmlTreeViewSource.Data = permissionRoot(0).ToString trvPermission.DataSource = XmlTreeViewSource trvPermission.DataBind() SetPermission(trvPermission.Nodes(0)) The markups <asp:TreeView ID="trvPermission" runat="server" ExpandDepth="2" ShowCheckBoxes="All" ShowLines="True" ForeColor="#005782" > <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="menuNode" TextField="title" ValueField="value" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView>

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  • Sharing same properties of ViewController for iPhone Stroryboard and iPad Story Board

    - by Ruhul Amin
    I'm developing a universal application. in the first view, I have the login screen for the user. In iPhone storyBoard, I have added 2 text field and one button( login check). I have added properties in ViewController.h file by dragging those objects(Ctrl key + Dragg) to .h file. I have added code for login check and it is working fine for iPhone. This is the code in ViewController.h @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *txtUserId; @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UITextField *txtUserPwd; @property (strong, nonatomic) IBOutlet UIButton *btnLogin; In the iPad storyBoard, I have added 2 text field( userid and password) and i button for login. So now, I want to bind those objects with the veriable which I declared already in ViewController.h file in case of iPhone. My questions: 1. What is the right way to bind properties for both storyboard? 2. Am I on the right direction or should I think in a different way to do it? I am new with iPhone development. Please help. Thanks. --Amin

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  • Problem inserting Pygames on a wxPython panel using Boa Constructor

    - by Kohwalter
    Hello, im new in Python so im hoping to to get some help to figure out what is going wrong. Im trying to run a Pygames from within wxPython panel (made on Boa Constructor). To do that i followed the instructions on the http://wiki.wxpython.org/IntegratingPyGame but still it isn't working. Here is the Panel code that was used to make the integration: class PG_panel(wx.Panel): def __init__(self, ID, name, parent, mypos, mysize): # pygame is imported in this class # make it globally available global pygame #self.Fit() wx.Panel.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=(16, 96), size=mysize) # pygame uses SDL, set the environment variables os.environ['SDL_WINDOWID'] = str(self.GetHandle()) os.environ['SDL_VIDEODRIVER'] = 'windib' # do the pygame stuff after setting the environment variables import pygame pygame.display.init() # create the pygame window/screen screen = pygame.display.set_mode(464, 464) #(424,450) # start the thread instance self.thread = PG_thread(screen) self.thread.start() def __del__(self): self.thread.stop() And im trying to use that panel on an interface from Boa Constructor, here is the code: class frmMain(wx.Frame): def _init_ctrls(self, prnt): # generated method, don't edit wx.Frame.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAIN, name='frmMain', parent=prnt, pos=wx.Point(660, 239), size=wx.Size(815, 661), style=wx.DEFAULT_FRAME_STYLE, title='Grupo 1 - Jogo de Damas') self._init_utils() self.SetClientSize(wx.Size(799, 623)) self.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(225, 225, 225)) self.SetMinSize(wx.Size(784, 650)) self.Center(wx.BOTH) self.SetMenuBar(self.menuBar1) #here begins my code mysize = (464, 464) mypos = (16, 96) self.panelTabuleiro = PG_panel(wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, 'panelTabuleiro', self, mypos, mysize) The original that was auto-made by the Boa Constructor is the following: self.panelTabuleiro = wx.Panel(id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=wx.Point(16, 96), size=wx.Size(464, 464), style=wx.TAB_TRAVERSAL) self.panelTabuleiro.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(232, 249, 240)) self.panelTabuleiro.SetThemeEnabled(True) self.panelTabuleiro.SetHelpText('Tabuleiro') The error that it gives is: Type error: in method 'new_Panel', expected argument 1 of type 'wxWindow*1 Exception AttributeError: "'PG_panel' object has no attribute 'thread' in ignored Any thoughts ? I appreciate any help. Thank you.

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  • PHP what is faster to use

    - by user1631500
    What is faster / better to use? To put html into variables and print them later, or to just html print / echo print the content based on condition? EXAMPLE 1:(html into variables) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = "<span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span>" } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = You are cool enough to view the content; } echo $var; EXAMPLE 2:(print based on condition) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = 1; } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = 0; } if ($var==1) { ?> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span <?php } else { ?> You are cool enough to view the content. <?php } ?>

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  • parsing urls from windows batch file

    - by modest
    I have a text file (myurls.txt) whose contents are a list of URLs as follow: Slides_1: http://linux.koolsolutions.com/svn/ProjectA/tags/REL-1.0 Exercise_1: http://linux.koolsolutions.com/svn/ProjectA/tags/REL-1.0 Slides_2: http://linux.koolsolutions.com/svn/oldproject/ProjectB/tags/REL-2.0 Exercise_2: http://linux.koolsolutions.com/svn/ProjectB/tags/REL-1.0 Exercise_3: http://linux.koolsolutions.com/svn/BlueBook/ProjectA/tags/REL-1.0 Now I want to parse this text file in a for loop such that after each iteration (for e.g. take the first url from the above file) I have the following information into different variables: %i% = REL-1.0 %j% = http://linux.koolsolutions.com/svn/ProjectA %k% = http://linux.koolsolutions.com/svn/ProjectA/tags/REL-1.0 After some experiment I have the following code but it only works (kind of) if the URLs have same number of slashes: @echo off set FILE=myurls.txt FOR /F "tokens=2-9 delims=/ " %%i in (%FILE%) do ( @REM <do something with variables i, j and k.> ) I am fine with other solutions like for e.g. using Windows Script Host/VBS script as long as it can run with a default Windows XP/7 installation. In other words, I know I can use awk, grep, sed, python, etc. for Windows and get the job done but I don't want the users to have to install anything besides a standard windows installation.

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  • Ninject: How do I inject into a class library ?

    - by DennyDotNet
    To start I'm using Ninject 1.5. I have two projects: Web project and a Class library. My DI configuration is within the Web project. Within my class library I have the following defined: public interface ICacheService<T> { string Identifier { get; } T Get(); void Set( T objectToCache, TimeSpan timeSpan ); bool Exists(); } And then a concrete class called CategoryCacheService. In my web project I bind the two: Bind( typeof( ICacheService<List<Category>> ) ).To( typeof(CategoryCacheService)).Using<SingletonBehavior>(); In my class library I have extension methods for the HtmlHelper class, for example: public static class Category { [Inject] public static ICacheService Categories { get; set; } public static string RenderCategories(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper) { var c = Categories.Get(); return string.Join(", ", c.Select(s = s.Name).ToArray()); } } I've been told that you cannot inject into static properties, instead I should use Kernel.Get<() - However... Since the code above is in a class library I don't have access to the Kernel. How can I get the Kernel from this point or is there a better way of doing this? Thanks!

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  • How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

    - by Milan Babuškov
    I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

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  • Black Magic in Grails Data Binding!?

    - by Tiago Alves
    As described in http://n4.nabble.com/Grails-Data-Binding-for-One-To-Many-Relationships-with-REST-tp1754571p1754571.html i'm trying to automatically bind my REST data. I understand now that for one-to-many associations the map that is required for the data binding must have a list of ids of the many side such as: [propName: propValue, manyAssoc: [1, 2]] However, I'm getting this exception Executing action [save] of controller [com.example.DomainName] caused exception: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateSystemException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id; nested exception is org.hibernate.PropertyAccessException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id However, even weirder is the update action that is generated for the controller. There we have the databinding like this: domainObjectInstance.properties = params['domainObject'] But, and this is the really weird thing, params['domainObject'] is null! It is null because all the domainObject fields are passed directly in the params map itself. If I change the above line to domainObjectInstance.properties = null the domainObject is still updated! Why is this happening and more important, how can I bind my incoming XML automatically if it comes in this format (the problem is the one-to-many associations): <product> <name>Table</name> <brand id="1" /> <categories> <category id="1" /> <category id="2" /> </categories> </product>

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  • Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

    - by user328543
    One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

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  • C++: inheritance problem

    - by Helltone
    It's quite hard to explain what I'm trying to do, I'll try: Imagine a base class A which contains some variables, and a set of classes deriving from A which all implement some method bool test() that operates on the variables inherited from A. class A { protected: int somevar; // ... }; class B : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar == 42); } }; class C : public A { public: bool test() { return (somevar > 23); } }; // ... more classes deriving from A Now I have an instance of class A and I have set the value of somevar. int main(int, char* []) { A a; a.somevar = 42; Now, I need some kind of container that allows me to iterate over the elements i of this container, calling i::test() in the context of a... that is: std::vector<...> vec; // push B and C into vec, this is pseudo-code vec.push_back(&B); vec.push_back(&C); bool ret = true; for(i = vec.begin(); i != vec.end(); ++i) { // call B::test(), C::test(), setting *this to a ret &= ( a .* (&(*i)::test) )(); } return ret; } How can I do this? I've tried two methods: forcing a cast from B::* to A::*, adapting a pointer to call a method of a type on an object of a different type (works, but seems to be bad); using std::bind + the solution above, ugly hack; changing the signature of bool test() so that it takes an argument of type const A& instead of inheriting from A, I don't really like this solution because somevar must be public.

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  • Binding a value to one of two possibilities in Guice

    - by Kelvin Chung
    Suppose I have a value for which I have a default, which can be overridden if System.getProperty("foo") is set. I have one module for which I have bindConstant().annotatedWith(Names.named("Default foo")).to(defaultValue); I'm wondering what the best way of implementing a module for which I want to bind something annotated with "foo" to System.getProperty("foo"), or, if it does not exist, the "Default foo" binding. I've thought of a simple module like so: public class SimpleIfBlockModule extends AbstractModule { @Override public void configure() { requireBinding(Key.get(String.class, Names.named("Default foo"))); if (System.getProperties().containsKey("foo")) { bindConstant().annotatedWith(Names.named("foo")).to(System.getProperty("foo")); } else { bind(String.class).annotatedWith(Names.named("foo")).to(Key.get(String.class, Names.named("Default foo"))); } } } I've also considered creating a "system property module" like so: public class SystemPropertyModule extends PrivateModule { @Override public void configure() { Names.bindProperties(binder(), System.getProperties()); if (System.getProperties().contains("foo")) { expose(String.class).annotatedWith(Names.named("foo")); } } } And using SystemPropertyModule to create an injector that a third module, which does the binding of "foo". Both of these seem to have their downsides, so I'm wondering if there is anything I should be doing differently. I was hoping for something that's both injector-free and reasonably generalizable to multiple "foo" attributes. Any ideas?

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  • How do I use the Enum value from a class in another part of code?

    - by ChiggenWingz
    Coming from a C# background from a night course at a local college, I've sort of started my way in C++. Having a lot pain getting use to the syntax. I'm also still very green when it comes to coding techniques. From my WinMain function, I want to be able to access a variable which is using an enum I declared in another class. (inside core.h) class Core { public: enum GAME_MODE { INIT, MENUS, GAMEPLAY }; GAME_MODE gameMode; Core(); ~Core(); ...OtherFunctions(); }; (inside main.cpp) Core core; int WINAPI WinMain(...) { ... startup code here... core.gameMode = Core.GAME_MODE.INIT; ...etc... } Basically I want to set that gameMode to the enum value of Init or something like that from my WinMain function. I want to also be able to read it from other areas. I get the error... expected primary-expression before '.' token If I try to use core.gameMode = Core::GAME_MODE.INIT;, then I get the same error. I'm not fussed about best practices, as I'm just trying to get the basic understanding of passing around variables in C++ between files. I'll be making sure variables are protected and neatly tucked away later on once I am use to the flexibility of the syntax. If I remember correctly, C# allowed me to use Enums from other classes, and all I had to do was something like Core.ENUMNAME.ENUMVALUE. I hope what I'm wanting to do is clear :\ As I have no idea what a lot of the correct terminology is.

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  • powershell missing member methods in array

    - by Andrew
    Hi Guys I have (yet another) powershell query. I have an array in powershell which i need to use the remove() and split commands on. Normally you set an array (or variable) and the above methods exist. On the below $csv2 array both methods are missing, i have checked using the get-member cmd. How can i go about using remove to get rid of lines with nan. Also how do i split the columns into two different variables. at the moment each element of the array displays one line, for each line i need to convert it into two variables, one for each column. timestamp Utilization --------- ----------- 1276505880 2.0763250000e+00 1276505890 1.7487730000e+00 1276505900 1.6906890000e+00 1276505910 1.7972880000e+00 1276505920 1.8141900000e+00 1276505930 nan 1276505940 nan 1276505950 0.0000000000e+00 $SystemStats = (Get-F5.iControl).SystemStatistics $report = "c:\snmp\data" + $gObj + ".csv" ### Allocate a new Query Object and add the inputs needed $Query = New-Object -TypeName iControl.SystemStatisticsPerformanceStatisticQuery $Query.object_name = $i $Query.start_time = $startTime $Query.end_time = 0 $Query.interval = $interval $Query.maximum_rows = 0 ### Make method call passing in an array of size one with the specified query $ReportData = $SystemStats.get_performance_graph_csv_statistics( (,$Query) ) ### Allocate a new encoder and turn the byte array into a string $ASCII = New-Object -TypeName System.Text.ASCIIEncoding $csvdata = $ASCII.GetString($ReportData[0].statistic_data) $csv2 = convertFrom-CSV $csvdata $csv2

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  • Disable specific dates in jquery

    - by rvdb86
    I am using the jquery date picker found here: http://www.kelvinluck.com/assets/jquery/datePicker/v2/demo/datePickerStartEnd.html that allows the user to pick a start and end date. However I want to be able to disable specific dates. I tried to implement the code found here: stackoverflow.com/questions/501943/can-the-jquery-ui-datepicker-be-made-to-disable-saturdays-and-sundays-and-holida that discusses disabling national holidays. Here is my complete code: $(function() { $('.date-pick').datePicker({ beforeShowDay: nationalDays}) // $(".selector").datepicker({ beforeShowDay: nationalDays}) var natDays = [ [1, 26, 'au'], [2, 6, 'nz'], [3, 17, 'ie'], [4, 27, 'za'], [5, 25, 'ar'], [6, 6, 'se'], [7, 4, 'us'], [8, 17, 'id'], [9, 7, 'br'], [10, 1, 'cn'], [11, 22, 'lb'], [12, 12, 'ke'] ]; function nationalDays(date) { for (i = 0; i < natDays.length; i++) { if (date.getMonth() == natDays[i][0] - 1 && date.getDate() == natDays[i][1]) { return [false, natDays[i][2] + '_day']; } } return [true, '']; } $('#start-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#end-date').dpSetStartDate(d.addDays(1).asString()); } } ); $('#end-date').bind( 'dpClosed', function(e, selectedDates) { var d = selectedDates[0]; if (d) { d = new Date(d); $('#start-date').dpSetEndDate(d.addDays(-1).asString()); } } ); }); But this does not seem to work. I would really appreciate any assistance with solving this!

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  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

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  • Why is my content being overwritten instead of replaced in jQuery/Ajax?

    - by Matt Nathanson
    I've got jquery being used in ajax to pass some contents into a database, my problem however has nothing to do with the db.. I have input fields in an id called #clientscontainer. When I click "save" in that container, it automatically refreshes the container correctly ... $('#clientscontainer').html(html); The problem is, a couple of those input fields (such as a description and title), have instances in another div that i want to refresh upon the save click. The other ID is: $('div#' + clientID') When I do $('div#' + clientID').html(html); it refreshes the content from clientscontainer in it instead of just the variables that I want to update. When I try to pass just the variable $(blurb).html(html); it updates the blurb but it ONLY displays that variable in the div# clientID div... whereas I just want to replace it. Here is the AJAX portion of the function ...//variables// dataToLoad = 'clientID=' + clientID + '&changeClient=yes' + '&project=' + descriptionSubTitle + '&campaign=' + descriptionTitle + '&label=' + descriptionLabel + '&descriptionedit=' + description + '&blurbedit=' + blurb; $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: ('/clients/controller.php'), datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, success: function(html){ dataToLoad = 'clientID=' + clientID + '&loadclient=yes&isCMS=' + editCMS; $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '/clients/controller.php', datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, async: false, success: function(html){ //$('#clientscontainer').focus(function() {reInitialize()}); //$('#clientscontainer').ajaxComplete(function(){reInitialize()}); $('#clientscontainer').html(html); $('div#' + clientID).each(function(){ $('#editbutton').click(function() {EditEverything()}); } , error: function() { alert('An error occured! 222'); } });}, error: function() { alert('An error occured! 394'); } }); any suggestions?

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  • When is 'focus' called in 'autocomplete'

    - by user470184
    The 'focus' documentation from http://jqueryui.com/demos/autocomplete/ states : focusType:autocompletefocus Before focus is moved to an item (not selecting), ui.item refers to the focused item. The default action of focus is to replace the text field's value with the value of the focused item, though only if the focus event was triggered by a keyboard interaction. Canceling this event prevents the value from being updated, but does not prevent the menu item from being focused. Code examples Supply a callback function to handle the focus event as an init option. $( ".selector" ).autocomplete({ focus: function(event, ui) { ... } }); Bind to the focus event by type: autocompletefocus. $( ".selector" ).bind( "autocompletefocus", function(event, ui) { ... }); Using below code sets an attribute called 'mytag' with value 'tester' on all of the autocomplete elements even though I have not selected the elements. Why is the attribute 'focus' not added just when one of the drop downs is focused, instead of being added when page is loaded ? $("#myDiv").autocomplete({ source: availableTags, focus: function(event, ui) { $(".ui-autocomplete li").attr("mytag", "tester"); } });

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  • Can a T-SQL variable represent an entire row?

    - by elbillaf
    I'm coding for MS SQL Server 10. I have two databases that contain dozens of tables. Each table in one database contains a table with the same name in the other database. Tables with the same name have identical format (fields and data types). The contents of the two tables are similar but not identical. I need to update one based on changes made to the other, but only under certain circumstances. I think I want to use a cursor for this, but I can't find a good example to go by. So far, the MSDN examples are reading one field at a time into a variable. I do need to be able to read /modify two fields which are identical in each table, but I gotta believe there's something less tedious than declaring variables for every field of every table. I would like to be able to FETCH an entire row, check a couple of fields and then make a decision of whether I want to write the entire row to the other table after changing two fields - but do I have to declare variables for EVERY field I want to fetch / write? There's no way to just FETCH an entire row and write an entire row?

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  • Timing issues with playback of the HTML5 Audio API

    - by pat
    I'm using the following code to try to play a sound clip with the HTML5 Audio API: HTMLAudioElement.prototype.playClip = function(startTime, stopTime) { this.stopTime = stopTime; this.currentTime = startTime; this.play(); $(this).bind('timeupdate', function(){ if (this.ended || this.currentTime >= stopTime) { this.pause(); $(this).unbind('timeupdate'); } }); } I utilize this new playClip method as follows. First I have a link with some data attributes: <a href=# data-stop=1.051 data-start=0.000>And then I was thinking,</a> And finally this bit of jQuery which runs on $(document).ready to hook up a click on the link with the playback: $('a').click(function(ev){ $('a').click(function(ev){ var start = $(this).data('start'), stop = $(this).data('stop'), audio = $('audio').get(0), $audio = $(audio); ev.preventDefault(); audio.playClip(start,stop); }) This approach seems to work, but there's a frustrating bug: sometimes, the playback of a given clip plays beyond the correct data-stop time. I suspect it could have something to do with the timing of the timeupdate event, but I'm no JS guru and I don't know how to begin debugging the problem. Here are a few clues I've gathered: The same behavior appears to come up in both FF and Chrome. The playback of a given clip actually seems to vary a bit -- if I play the same clip a couple times in a row, it may over-play a different amount of time on each playing. Is the problem here the inherent accuracy of the Audio API? My app needs milliseconds. Is there a problem with the way I'm using jQuery to bind and unbind the timeupdate event? I tried using the jQuery-less approach with addEventListener but I couldn't get it to work. Thanks in advance, I would really love to know what's going wrong.

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