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  • When do you tag your software project?

    - by WilhelmTell of Purple-Magenta
    I realize there are various kinds of software projects: commercial (for John Doe) industrial (for Mr. Montgomery Burns) successful open-source (with audience larger than, say, 10 people) personal projects (with audience size in the vicinity of 1). each of which release a new version of their product on difference conditions. I'm particularly interested in the case of personal projects and open-source projects. When, or under what conditions, do you make a new release of any kind? Do you subscribe to a fixed recurring deadline such as every two weeks? Do you commit to a release of at least 10 minor fixes, or one major fix? Do you combine the two conditions such as at least one condition must hold, or both must hold? I reckon this is a subjective question. I ask this question in light of searching for tricks to keep my projects alive and kicking. Sometimes my projects are active but look as if they aren't because I don't have the confidence to make a release or a tag of any sort for a long time -- in the order of months.

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  • Why did this work with Visual C++, but not with gcc?

    - by Carlos Nunez
    I've been working on a senior project for the last several months now, and a major sticking point in our team's development process has been dealing wtih rifts between Visual-C++ and gcc. (Yes, I know we all should have had the same development environment.) Things are about finished up at this point, but I ran into a moderate bug just today that had me wondering whether Visual-C++ is easier on newbies (like me) by design. In one of my headers, there is a function that relies on strtok to chop up a string, do some comparisons and return a string with a similar format. It works a little something like the following: int main() { string a, b, c; //Do stuff with a and b. c = get_string(a,b); } string get_string(string a, string b) { const char * a_ch, b_ch; a_ch = strtok(a.c_str(),","); b_ch = strtok(b.c_str(),","); } strtok is infamous for being great at tokenizing, but equally great at destroying the original string to be tokenized. Thus, when I compiled this with gcc and tried to do anything with a or b, I got unexpected behavior, since the separator used was completely removed in the string. Here's an example in case I'm unclear; if I set a = "Jim,Bob,Mary" and b="Grace,Soo,Hyun", they would be defined as a="JimBobMary" and b="GraceSooHyun" instead of staying the same like I wanted. However, when I compiled this under Visual C++, I got back the original strings and the program executed fine. I tried dynamically allocating memory to the strings and copying them the "standard" way, but the only way that worked was using malloc() and free(), which I hear is discouraged in C++. While I'm curious about that, the real question I have is this: Why did the program work when compiled in VC++, but not with gcc? (This is one of many conflicts that I experienced while trying to make the code cross-platform.) Thanks in advance! -Carlos Nunez

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  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

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  • How to float a <div> echoed in the footer over a <div> located elsewhere (PHP/jQuery/HTML/CSS)

    - by PlasmaFlux
    Hello All! I'm embarking on a major project, but am stuck on a tiny issue at the very start. I'll try to be as concise as possible. I have a PHP script that will be echoing into the footer of the page (the last stuff before a bunch of s containing visible buttons and s containing hidden dialog boxes. The plan is to have the buttons float in the upper-right corner of corresponding s in the main content area of the page. i.e. - button-1 echoed into the footer will float in the corner of content-box-1, and will be tied to the hidden 'dialog-1'. I'll be using jQuery and jQuery UI Dialog throughout the page(s). I'm not sure if that's particularly relevant to this question, but thought it worth mentioning just in case. So my question, put simply, is how do I echo a Button 1 into the footer with PHP, but have it float in the upper-right corner (with maybe 5px margin) of Content 1 is full of content? A picture says a thousand words: As shown above, I want the little blue gear button things in the corner of content pieces, locked and loaded with hidden s containing dialog boxes. Again, the catch is that all buttons and hidden divs will be the very last items echoed into the page footer. I've found plenty of info on how to float divs on top of divs, but all the examples I saw showed the s in close proximity to each other in the page source; not with a hundred lines of source code between the two s I'm not sure if the solution is pure CSS, pure jQuery/jQueryUI or a combination of the two. Any advice will be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Java: attributes order in .jsp getting inversed

    - by NoozNooz42
    Every single time I've read about the meta tags, the attribute where in this order for the description: <meta name="description" content="..." /> First name, then content. It's also like that in the Google Webmaster documentation. Basically, it's like that everywhere. Now in a .jsp (in XML notation) I've got the following: <meta name="description" content="${metadesc}"/> So it's name first, then content. Yet on the generated webpage, I get this: <meta content="...(200 chars or so here making it a very long line)..." name="description"/> Somehow the attributes have been inversed. Because the content follows the official W3C and Google recommendations, the content is a bit less than 200 characters long, which makes it a major pain to "visually verify" that the name attribute is correctly there (I've got to scroll). Anyway... Why are these attribute not appearing in the order defined in the .jsp? Can I force them to appear in the same order as I wrote them in my .jsp? I realize the resulting tag may be valid... But I can also imagine a lot of very creative ways to have valid tags which users would be very upset about. Does this make any sense to inverse these attributes? EDIT wow, just wow... If I invert the attributes in my .jsp (that is, writing them in the "wrong" order), then they appear as I want them to appear in the generated web page. (Tomcat 6.0.26 btw)

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  • What's the best way to read a UDT from a database with Java?

    - by Lukas Eder
    I thought I knew everything about UDTs and JDBC until someone on SO pointed out some details of the Javadoc of java.sql.SQLInput and java.sql.SQLData JavaDoc to me. The essence of that hint was (from SQLInput): An input stream that contains a stream of values representing an instance of an SQL structured type or an SQL distinct type. This interface, used only for custom mapping, is used by the driver behind the scenes, and a programmer never directly invokes SQLInput methods. This is quite the opposite of what I am used to do (which is also used and stable in productive systems, when used with the Oracle JDBC driver): Implement SQLData and provide this implementation in a custom mapping to ResultSet.getObject(int index, Map mapping) The JDBC driver will then call-back on my custom type using the SQLData.readSQL(SQLInput stream, String typeName) method. I implement this method and read each field from the SQLInput stream. In the end, getObject() will return a correctly initialised instance of my SQLData implementation holding all data from the UDT. To me, this seems like the perfect way to implement such a custom mapping. Good reasons for going this way: I can use the standard API, instead of using vendor-specific classes such as oracle.sql.STRUCT, etc. I can generate source code from my UDTs, with appropriate getters/setters and other properties My questions: What do you think about my approach, implementing SQLData? Is it viable, even if the Javadoc states otherwise? What other ways of reading UDT's in Java do you know of? E.g. what does Spring do? what does Hibernate do? What does JPA do? What do you do? Addendum: UDT support and integration with stored procedures is one of the major features of jOOQ. jOOQ aims at hiding the more complex "JDBC facts" from client code, without hiding the underlying database architecture. If you have similar questions like the above, jOOQ might provide an answer to you.

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  • export and import utf8 data in mysql: best practices

    - by ChrisRamakers
    We're often faced with the need to send a data file to one of our clients with data from the database he/she needs to translate. Most of the time this export is CSV or XLS. Most of the time we create a csv dump with phpmyadmin and get an xls file in return with the translated data. The problem is that most of the time the data is UTF8 and when the file is returned as xls each and every time we load the data into mysql again we end up with utf8 problems, characters not being displayed properly, etc ... We've already doublechecked everything in mysql from my.conf to column charactersets and everything is set correctly to UTF8. My question is not how to fix the encoding issue since that's been solved but how we would best proceed in the future handling this situation? What export format should we hand over? How should we import (just mysql load data infile or our own processing scripts). What is the general consensus on how to handle this situation? We would like to continue using excel if possible since that's the format almost everybody expects including our clients' translation agencies. Our clients' ease of use is the most important factor here, without overloading us with major issues each time. The best of both worlds :)

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  • Find & Replace - using a Regex for this?

    - by Jack W-H
    Hey folks. Regexs make me cry, so, I came here for help. I'm looking for some tips on Find & Replace in Panic's Coda. I know the F&R is pretty advance but I'm just looking for the best way to do this. I'm trying to rewrite a 'template engine' (very basic) I have going on with a webapp I'm coding in PHP (CodeIgniter). Currently I'm calling my template like so: $this->load->view('subviews/template/headerview'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/menuview'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/sidebar'); $this->load->view('The-View-I-Want-To-Load'); // This is the important line $this->load->view('subviews/template/footerview'); However it's inefficient using five lines of code every time I want to load up a different page, in every different controller. So I rewrote it like this: $data['view'] = 'The-View-I-Want-To-Load'; $this->load->view('template',$data); That way if I need to make any major changes to the design it can easily be done from the template.php view file (which contains the header, menu, sidebar views etc. etc.). However I use the previous 5-lines all over the place in many different controllers and functions. So, my question is --- How can I find and replace the old template engine (5 lines of code) for the new one - substituting in the name of the view in the important, unique line for the one in $data['view]? Does that make any sense?! If not I'll try and rephrase! I mean, is there a way of doing this via a Regex or something? Or am I on completely the wrong lines here? Thanks for your help Jack

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  • HTML to 'pretty' text conversion for printing on text only printer (dot matrix)

    - by Gala101
    Hi, I have a web-site that generates some simple tabular data as html tables, many of my users print the web-page on a laser/inkjet printer; however some like to print on legacy Dot Matrix printers (text only) and there-in lies the problem. When giving Print from web-browser onto dot-matrix printer, the printer actually perceives data as 'graphic'/image and proceeds to print it dot-by-dot. i.e If printing a character 'C', printer slices it horizontally and prints in 3-4 passes. Same printer prints a text from an ASCII file (say from notepad) as complete characters in single pass, thereby being 5 times faster and much quieter than when printing a web-page. (Even tried 'generic text-only driver' but Mozilla Firefox has a know bug that it does not print anything over this particular driver since 2.0+) So is there some clean way of formatting an already generated HTML (say method takes the entire html table as string) and generates a corresponding text file with properly aligned columns? I have tried stripping the html tags, but the major issue there is performing good 'wrapping' of a cell's data and maintaining integrity of other cells' data (from same row). eg: ( '|' and '_' not really required) Col1 | Col2 | Colum_Name3 | Col4 | _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ 1 | this cell | this column | smaller | | is in three| spans 2 rows | | | rows | | | - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - 2 | smaller now| this also | but this| | | | cell's | | | | data is | | | | now | | | | bigger | _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ Could you please suggest preferred approach? I've thought of using xslt and somehow outputting text (instead of more prevalent pdf), but Apache FOP's text renderer is really broken and perhaps forgotten in development path. Commercial one's are way too costly.

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  • C# compiler error CS0006: metadata file is not found

    - by Rob
    I've built a c# compiler using the tutorial on MSDN and a few other resources including here, and I've gotten it to work until I add additional reference assemblies. My errors stem from adding "System.dll" and "System.Windows.Forms.dll" to the ReferenceAssemblies list. here's my code: private void SetUpCompilingParameters() { string ver = string.Format("{0}.{1}.{2}", Environment.Version.Major, Environment.Version.MajorRevision, Environment.Version.Build); string libDir = string.Format(@"{0}", Environment.CurrentDirectory); string raDir = @"C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework\.NETFramework\v4.0"; string exWpfDir = string.Format(@"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v{0}\WPF", ver); string exDir = string.Format(@"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v{0}", ver); MyCompiler = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilingParam = new CompilerParameters(); CompilingParam.GenerateExecutable = false; CompilingParam.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilingParam.IncludeDebugInformation = false; CompilingParam.TreatWarningsAsErrors = false; CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", libDir); CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", raDir); CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", exDir); //CompilingParam.CompilerOptions = string.Format("/lib:{0}", exWpfDir); CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.dll"); CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add("System.Windows.Forms.dll"); } As you can see, I've explicitly referenced directories in CompilerOptions but its not helping. I'd like to test the solution on here on stackoverflow that utilizes: CompilingParam.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(typeof(System.Xml.Linq.Extensions).Assembly.Location); but I'm having trouble using it for the general System.dll etc...

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  • Android ANR keyDispatchingTimedOut Error while continuous tapping on screen.

    - by user519846
    Hi All, I am getting Application Not Responding (ANR) dialog while continuous tapping on the screen. There is no view on the screen where i am tapping. Frequency of this issue is less but still i am not able to remove it completely. Here i am attaching the log what i caught during this error. ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): ANR in com.test.mj.and.ui (com.test.mj.and.ui/.TermsAndCondActivity) ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): Reason: keyDispatchingTimedOut ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): Parent: com.test.mj.and.ui/.SplashActivity ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): Load: 6.59 / 6.37 / 5.21 ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): CPU usage from 11430ms to 2196ms ago: ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): rtal.mj.and.ui: 9% = 7% user + 1% kernel / faults: 649 minor ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): system_server: 4% = 2% user + 2% kernel / faults: 10 minor ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): logcat: 3% = 1% user + 1% kernel / faults: 675 minor 1 major ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): synaptics_wq: 1% = 0% user + 1% kernel ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): ami304d: 1% = 0% user + 0% kernel ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): .process.lghome: 1% = 0% user + 0% kernel / faults: 47 minor ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): sync_supers: 0% = 0% user + 0% kernel ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): droid.DunServer: 0% = 0% user + 0% kernel / faults: 6 minor ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): events/0: 0% = 0% user + 0% kernel ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): oid.inputmethod: 0% = 0% user + 0% kernel / faults: 2 minor ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): m.android.phone: 0% = 0% user + 0% kernel / faults: 2 minor ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): ndroid.settings: 0% = 0% user + 0% kernel ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): sh: 0% = 0% user + 0% kernel / faults: 110 minor ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): -flush-179:0: 0% = 0% user + 0% kernel ERROR/ActivityManager(1322): TOTAL: 19% = 13% user + 6% kernel WARN/WindowManager(1322): Continuing to wait for key to be dispatched WARN/WindowManager(1322): No window to dispatch pointer action 1 Can anyone please help me to solve this issue? Thanks in advance.

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  • How can I print a web page on a server?

    - by Gavin Schultz
    Suppose I develop a web page using the cool Google visualization API, and it does everything the user wants. They can the parameters, look at the graphs, and print the page to get a reasonable-looking report. All good. Now suppose I want to do the same thing server-side. For example, say we need a set of report generated at a specific time of day, printed to a PDF and emailed to a manager. It's not a user-initiated action, so we don't have a user's browser or their printer. We have a URL that would render the report if we had a browser, and that's it. Is there a good way to do this server-side? Is this just foolish? Has anyone done anything like that before? Do any of the major browsers have APIs that might provide such functionality? Keep in mind too that it's not just static HTML; probably javascript will be running first to shift the DOM around. I know we could implement a whole different reporting engine on the server side to do this, but that will (a) generate reports that look a bit different, and (b) require me to build/maintain two sets of functionality. Instead, I'd be happy if I could just render the page / pages I want in an invisible server-side browser and print it to a PDF (let's mostly ignore that step - I know any number of PDF printer drivers that could do this). I don't really want to do it ugly either - i.e. by starting a browser process and then sending keystrokes directly to the window either - that's just bound to fall apart with a slight nudge. The only related question I found had an answer like that. Any advice appreciated!

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  • Detecting what changed in an HTML Textfield

    - by teehoo
    For a major school project I am implementing a real-time collaborative editor. For a little background, basically what this means is that two(or more) users can type into a document at the same time, and their changes are automatically propagated to one another (similar to Etherpad). Now my problem is as follows: I want to be able to detect what changes a user carried out onto an HTML textfield. They could: Insert a character Delete a character Paste a string of characters Cut a string of characters I want to be able to detect which of these changes happened and then notify other clients similar to "insert character 'c' at position 2" etc. Anyway I was hoping to get some advice on how I would go about implementing the detection of these changes? My first attempt was to consider the carot position before and after a change occurred, but this failed miserably. For my second attempt I was thinking about doing a diff on the entire contents of the textfields old and new value. Am I missing anything obvious with this solution? Is there something simpler?

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  • Libtool versioning of a library that depends on other libraries.

    - by Artyom
    Hello, I have a framework that uses Boost and CgiCC in the core application and in its interface. How should I version the library binary interface (a.k.a. libtool -version-info)? I have no problems tracking the changes in library itself when I make various changes. As it is clear for me how should I version. But... Both Boost and CgiCC libraries do not provide any backward compatible API/ABI and my library may be linked with quite arbitrary versions Boost and CgiCC so I can't provide any promise about the interfaces, so I can't really specify -version-info because even the same library compiled against different versions of Boost and CgiCC would not be compatible. So... What should I do? How should I version library? I know that I should not depend on Boost and CgiCC interfaces in first place, but this is what I get so far for existing stable version. This issue is addressed in next major release but I still have and want to maintain current release as it is very valuable.

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  • Getting Started with Ruby & Ruby on Rails

    - by JakeTheSnake
    Some background: I'm a jack-of-all traits, one of which is programming. I learned VB6 through Excel and PHP for creating websites and so far it's worked out just fine for me. I'm not CS major or even mathematically inclined - logic is what interests me. Current status: I'm willing to learn new and more powerful languages; my first foray into such a route is learning Ruby. I went to the main Ruby website and did the interactive intro. (by the way, I'm currently getting redirected to google.com when I try the link...it's happening to other websites as well...is my computer infected?) I liked what I learned and wanted to get started using Ruby to create websites. I downloaded InstantRails and installed it; everything so far has been fine - the program starts up just fine, and I can test some Ruby code in the console. However my troubles begin when I try and view a web page with Ruby code present. Lastly, my problem: As in PHP, I can browse to the .php file directly and through using PHP tags and some simple 'echo' statements I can be on my way in making dynamic web pages. However with the InstantRails app working, accessing a .rb or .rhtml page doesn't produce similar results. I made a simple text file named 'test.rb' and put basic HTML tags in there (html, head, body) and the Ruby tags <%= and % with some ruby code inside. The web page actually shows the tags and the code - as if it's all just plain HTML. I take it Ruby isn't parsing the page before it is displayed to the user, but this is where my lack of understanding of the Ruby environment stops me short. Where do I go from here?

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  • SQL Server 2005, wide indexes, computed columns, and sargable queries

    - by luksan
    In my database, assume we have a table defined as follows: CREATE TABLE [Chemical]( [ChemicalId] int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, [Name] nvarchar(max) NOT NULL, [Description] nvarchar(max) NULL ) The value for Name can be very large, so we must use nvarchar(max). Unfortunately, we want to create an index on this column, but nvarchar(max) is not supported inside an index. So we create the following computed column and associated index based upon it: ALTER TABLE [Chemical] ADD [Name_Indexable] AS LEFT([Name], 20) CREATE INDEX [IX_Name] ON [Chemical]([Name_Indexable]) INCLUDE([Name]) The index will not be unique but we can enforce uniqueness via a trigger. If we perform the following query, the execution plan results in a index scan, which is not what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' However, if we modify the query to make it "sargable," then the execution plan results in an index seek, which is what we want: SELECT [ChemicalId], [Name], [Description] FROM [Chemical] WHERE [Indexable_Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-' AND [Name]='[1,1''-Bicyclohexyl]-2-carboxylic acid, 4'',5-dihydroxy-2'',3-dimethyl-5'',6-bis[(1-oxo-2-propen-1-yl)oxy]-, methyl ester' Is this a good solution if we control the format of all queries executed against the database via our middle tier? Is there a better way? Is this a major kludge? Should we be using full-text indexing?

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  • Renaming TurboGears 2's Repoze Fields with TGAdmin

    - by William Chambers
    I've been working on renaming TurboGears 2's Repoze 'groups' field to 'roles' to free the namespace and db tables for other purposes. Also roles makes much more sense to me then groups because I have a strong Drupal background. Now I have found some of the docs to do this such as these: http://www.turbogears.org/2.1/docs/main/Auth/Customization.html#customizing-the-model-structure-assumed-by-the-quickstart http://code.gustavonarea.net/repoze.what-quickstart/#customizing-the-model-definition However these only go part of the way. I have made (I'm pretty sure at least, I've double checked a few times.) all the changes required as you can see in this diff. This seems to work fine however I've ran into a rather major issue with the TurboGears Admin system. I've tried http://turbogears.org/2.0/docs/main/Extensions/Admin/index.html and it didn't seem to make any difference, however I'm not 100% sure I did it correctly. The problem occurs when I attempt to go to localhost/admin/permissions/. It causes a Internal Server Error and outputs the following error. http://pastebin.com/YWMH3SiU This error does not happen on the Roles/Users pages and the permissions /edit/1 also works. I'm running kubuntu 10.04 with TG 2.1b2. (I'm running the beta mostly for easier mako support which is really important.) Any help would be very appreciated.

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  • WHMCS - Mapping of a Manually Created Invoice with its Corresponding Domain

    - by Knowledge Craving
    I am using WHMCS version 4.2.1 for maintaining domain registration & website hosting services, in one of my websites. Currently, the automatic domain registration process is working great for both the existing & new clients. The main way to register domains automatically is to mark the respective invoices as paid, and automatically the domains get registered through my selected registrar. Recently, I am facing a major problem in domain renewals, where the domain has been already registered by us in the past. The problem is that some of the corresponding invoices are not already generated for the domains & so I have to manually create invoice for each of those domain renewals. However, I am unable to map that invoice with the corresponding domain. This is required because unless the domain knows that for its renewal, an invoice has been created, the marking of the invoice as paid will not instantiate the automatic renewal process through my registrar. Can anybody please tell me the probable way of mapping the invoice with its corresponding domain? I've tried to explain the problem as it is occurring in the best way possible. Still, if any more information regarding this is required, please ask. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Linked List pop() function

    - by JKid314159
    Consider the following list: [LinkNode * head -- LinkNode * node1 -- LinkNode * node2] I'm creating a stack of FIFO. I Call pop() which I want to pop node1. LinkNode::LinkNode(int numIn) { this->numIn = numIn; next = null; } . . . int LinkNode::pop() { Link * temp = head->next; head = temp->next; int popped = head->nodeNum; delete temp; Return numOut; Question: 1) head should be a pointer or a LinkNode *? 2) Link * temp is created on the call stack and when pop finishes doesn't temp delete automatically? 3) My major confusion is on what is the value of temp-next? Does this point to node1.next which equals node2? Appreciate your help? My reference is C++ for Java Programmers by Weiss.

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  • PHP CodeIgniter Framework - Thoughts on developing with it?

    - by Sootah
    I've been reviewing different frameworks to use for my next couple of major web applications, and after days of research am almost set on using CodeIgniter. The reason I'm leaning towards CI is that so far it looks to be the best suited for me. It doesn't require constant command-line access (I am currently using shared hosting; the projects do not warrant a dedicate server yet), nothing special has to be installed on the server running it (you just upload the framework to the root of whatever your developing), and they appear to have some excellent documentation, videos, and tutorials on how to get started. Do any of you have experience with CodeIgniter? If so, what is your opinion of it and its features? What had you developed with it, and what types of applications is it best suited to create? I certainly don't want to get into a situation where I'm trying to bend a framework to do something that it isn't well-suited for. Both of my projects will be database-driven apps that will require user registration, the ability to manipulate data that is specific to their account (their posts, listings, user account details, etc), amongst other things. Also, if you have any other PHP framework suggestions, I am open to them. Thanks in advance for your help! -Sootah

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  • GitHub solution for personal repo

    - by Luke Maurer
    So I've got my private SVN repo on my home server, and it has maybe 30 different modules thrown together in it, ranging from abortive throw-away larks to a few endeavors that might actually go somewhere someday. But a recent filesystem failure (BTW, never ever EVER use XFS without a battery-backed hardware RAID) has me spooked and thinking of using a DVCS for all that. I've also just had quite the swig of the Git koolaid, and I've been working with GitHub of late, so that's where I'm looking right now. Of course, it would be silly to shell out major cash for a separate private Git repo for every little project, and I don't want to have to be selective about what I throw up there (I love all my children :-D ), so I'll have to be somewhat creative about this. I can happily use SSH to my home box to use Git the way I've been using SVN, and I'm thinking from there I could amalgamate everything into, say, a big project with 30 submodules, which I then push to GitHub. What'd be a sane way to set this up? Does using submodules sound feasible? How do I sync it all to my private GitHub repo? Cron job? Git hook? I'd love to hear it if anyone's done something similar. I'm not really married to Git or GitHub, so a sufficiently compelling feature of another solution might sway me. But if your answer does involve a different system (especially a different VCS), be advised it'll be a tougher sell :-)

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  • SQL Server 2000 intermittent connection exceptions on production server - specific environment probl

    - by StickyMcGinty
    We've been having intermittent problems causing users to be forcibly logged out of out application. Our set-up is ASP.Net/C# web application on Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition with SQL Server 2000 on the back end. We've recently performed a major product upgrade on our client's VMWare server (we have a guest instance dedicated to us) and whereas we had none of these issues with the previous release the added complexity that the new upgrade brings to the product has caused a lot of issues. We are also running SQL Server 2000 (build 8.00.2039, or SP4) and the IIS/ASP.NET (.Net v2.0.50727) application on the same box and connecting to each other via a TCP/IP connection. Primarily, the exceptions being thrown are: System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Cannot find table 0. System.ArgumentException: Column 'password' does not belong to table Table. [This exception occurs in the log in script, even though there is clearly a password column available] System.InvalidOperationException: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed first. [This one is occurring very regularly] System.InvalidOperationException: This SqlTransaction has completed; it is no longer usable. System.ApplicationException: ExecuteReader requires an open and available Connection. The connection's current state is connecting. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. And just today, for the first time: System.Web.UI.ViewStateException: Invalid viewstate. We have load tested the app using the same number of concurrent users as the production server and cannot reproduce these errors. They are very intermittent and occur even when there are only 8/9/10 user connections. My gut is telling me its ASP.NET - SQL Server 2000 connection issues.. We've pretty much ruled out code-level Data Access Layer errors at this stage (we've a development team of 15 experienced developers working on this) so we think its a specific production server environment issue.

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  • Running a GWT application (including Applets) inside an IFRAME from an ASP.NET 3.5 app?

    - by Jay Stevens
    We are looking at integrating a full-blown GWT (Google Web Toolkit 2.0) application with an existing ASP.NET 3.5 application. My first gut reaction is that this is a horrible frankenstein idea. However, the customer has insisted that we use this application developed by a third-party. I have almost NO CONTROL over the development of the GWT app. My first thought is to actually attempt to embed this in an iFrame. Because GWT is running under Tomcat/Jakarta, it is hosted on a different server from the .NET app so the iFrame src will be to a URL on the other machine. I need to utilize our own ASP.NET authorization scheme to restrict access to the embedded GWT application. The GWT app also uses embedded java applets, which don't seem to be working right now inside the iframe. The GWT app makes calls to a backend server (using GWT-RPC?). Any major problems with this approach that anyone can see? Will GWT work on an iframe while hosted on a different machine? NOTE: SIMPLY ADDING A DIV WITH THE SAME NAME DOES NOT WORK FOR THIS!

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  • HTTP: can GET and POST requests from a same machine come from different IPs?

    - by NoozNooz42
    I'm pretty sure I remember reading --but cannot find back the links anymore-- about this: on some ISP (including at least one big ISP in the U.S.) it is possible to have a user's GET and POST request appearing to come from different IPs. (note that this is totally programming related, and I'll give an example below) I'm not talking about having your IP adress dynamically change between two requests. I'm talking about this: IP 1: 123.45.67.89 IP 2: 101.22.33.44 The same user makes a GET, then a POST, then a GET again, then a POST again and the servers see this: - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 - GET from IP 1 - POST from IP 2 So altough it's the same user, the webserver sees different IPs for the GET and the POSTs. Surely seen that HTTP is a stateless protocol this is perfectly legit right? I'd like to find back the explanation as to how/why certain ISP have their networks configured such that this may happen. I'm asking because someone asked me to implement the following IP filter and I'm pretty sure it is fundamentally broken code (breaking havoc for at least one major american ISP users). Here's a Java servlet filter that is supposed to protect against some attacks. The reasoning is that: "For any session filter checks that IP address in the request is the same that was used when session was created. So in this case session ID could not be stolen for forming fake sessions." http://www.servletsuite.com/servlets/protectsessionsflt.htm However I'm pretty sure this is inherently broken because there are ISPs where you may see GET and POST coming from different IPs. Any info on this subject is very welcome.

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  • Have I taken a wrong path in programming by being excessively worried about code elegance and style?

    - by Ygam
    I am in a major stump right now. I am a BSIT graduate, but I only started actual programming less than a year ago. I observed that I have the following attitude in programming: I tend to be more of a purist, scorning unelegant approaches to solving problems using code I tend to look at anything in a large scale, planning everything before I start coding, either in simple flowcharts or complex UML charts I have a really strong impulse on refactoring my code, even if I miss deadlines or prolong development times I am obsessed with good directory structures, file naming conventions, class, method, and variable naming conventions I tend to always want to study something new, even, as I said, at the cost of missing deadlines I tend to see software development as something to engineer, to architect; that is, seeing how things relate to each other and how blocks of code can interact (I am a huge fan of loose coupling) i.e the OOP thinking I tend to combine OOP and procedural coding whenever I see fit I want my code to execute fast (thus the elegant approaches and refactoring) This bothers me because I see my colleagues doing much better the other way around (aside from the fact that they started programming since our first year in college). By the other way around I mean, they fire up coding, gets the job done much faster because they don't have to really look at how clean their codes are or how elegant their algorithms are, they don't bother with OOP however big their projects are, they mostly use web APIs, piece them together and voila! Working code! CLients are happy, they get paid fast, at the expense of a really unmaintainable or hard-to-read code that lacks structure and conventions, or slow executions of certain actions (which the common reasoning against would be that internet connections are much faster these days, hardware is more powerful). The excuse I often receive is clients don't care about how you write the code, but they do care about how long you deliver it. If it works then all is good. Now, did my "purist" approach to programming may have been the wrong way to start programming? Should I just dump these purist concepts and just code the hell up because I have seen it: clients don't really care how beautifully coded it is?

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