Search Results

Search found 28280 results on 1132 pages for 'having clause'.

Page 186/1132 | < Previous Page | 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193  | Next Page >

  • MD5CryptoServiceProvider ComputeHash Issues between VS 2003 and VS 2008

    - by owensoroke
    I have a database application that generates a MD5 hash and compares the hash value to a value in our DB (SQL 2K). The original application was written in Visual Studio 2003 and a deployed version has been working for years. Recently, some new machines on the .NET framework 3.5 have been having unrelated issues with our runtime. This has forced us to port our code path from Visual Studio 2003 to Visual Studio 2008. Since that time the hash produced by the code is different than the values in the database. The original call to the function posted in code is: RemoveInvalidPasswordCharactersFromHashedPassword(Text_Scrub(GenerateMD5Hash(strPSW))) I am looking for expert guidance as to whether or not the MD5 methods have changed since VS 2K3 (causing this point of failure), or where other possible problems may be originating from. I realize this may not be the best method to hash, but utimately any changes to the MD5 code would force us to change some 300 values in our DB table and would cost us a lot of time. In addition, I am trying to avoid having to redeploy all of the functioning versions of this application. I am more than happy to post other code including the RemoveInvalidPasswordCharactersFromHashedPassword function, or our Text_Scrub if it is necessary to recieve appropriate feedback. Thank you in advance for your input. Public Function GenerateMD5Hash(ByVal strInput As String) As String Dim md5Provider As MD5 ' generate bytes for the input string Dim inputData() As Byte = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(strInput) ' compute MD5 hash md5Provider = New MD5CryptoServiceProvider Dim hashResult() As Byte = md5Provider.ComputeHash(inputData) Return ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(hashResult) End Function

    Read the article

  • Making a button click and process using javascript with Asp.Net

    - by user944919
    I'm having two buttons and one button is hidden. Now when I click the visible button I need to do two things 1.Open Iframe. 2.Automatically make the 2nd Button(Hidden)to be clicked. When the second button is clicked I need to display the message on top of the IFrame which I have mentioned as function showStickySuccessToast() Now I am able to open IFrame but I'm unable to make the Hidden button clicked automatically. This is what I'm having: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#<%=Button1.ClientID%>").click(function(event){ $('#<%=TextBox1.ClientID%>').change(function () { $('#various3').attr('href', $(this).val()); }); }); function showStickySuccessToast() { $().toastmessage('showToast', { text: 'Finished Processing!', sticky: false, position: 'middle-center', type: 'success', closeText: '', close: function () { } }); } }) </script> Here are my two buttons how I'm working with: <a id="various3" href="#"><asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" OnClientClick="Button2_Click"/></a> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button" Visible="False" OnClick="Button2_Click"/> And in the button2_Click event: Protected Sub Button2_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button2.Click System.Web.UI.ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, GetType(Page), "Script", "showStickySuccessToast();", True) End Sub

    Read the article

  • Jquery Mobile app focus-based navigation stops working after switching between pages

    - by nawar
    As much as I would like to expand on the details here, I am not able to find relevant information about the root cause of this problem. I am having this issue with my blackberry Webapp which I built using JQM. After few times of navigation from page to page, the application becomes unresponsive on the destination page and I am not able to scroll up/down using the touchpad. If someone had this problem or some clue to the resolution, then that would be helpful. Edit: after doing some research I was able to narrow down the cause of the issue. I am having an issue with focus-based navigation. As I lose focus on the page elements (buttons, input fields, etc) after few transitions among the pages. Edit I had to switch back to the cursor based navigation as it is much faster and do not have the issue faced by focus-based navigation. I removed the entry: <rim:navigation mode=”focus”/> from the config.xml file I found this entry on the blackberry fourms but it haven't solved my problem despite the fact I upgraded my WebWorks SDK to 2.0 from 1.5 http://supportforums.blackberry.com/t5/Web-and-WebWorks-Development/Focus-based-navigation-hangs-device/td-p/455600 Thanks

    Read the article

  • HTML email image inverts on link click Outlook 07/10/13

    - by Matt Maclennan
    I'm having an issue on a HTML email in Word rendered Outlooks (2007, 2010, 2013) where I click an image link, and when the mouse is clicked, the image inverts... Here is the code below... <td align="left" width="360" valign="top" style="mso-table-lspace: 0pt; mso-table-rspace: 0pt; border-collapse: collapse;" class="hide"> <a href="#" target="_blank"> <img src="test.jpg" width="360" height="528" alt="alt tag" style="display:block;" class="img_mob centertable" border="0" align="left"> </a> </td> Here is a comparison on the image clicked/not clicked... I have tried putting a text-decoration: none on the link. All the links are styled inline as well. This is the only image that it is having this issue on the email, so tried re-saving the image with no luck. The image is saved as a JPEG and SRGB from a Photoshop PSD. Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Handling Denormalized Schema with Eclipselink

    - by iamrohitbanga
    Hello All I have a denormalized table containing employee information. The fields are employee id, name and department name. The primary key is a composite one consisting of all three fields. An employee can belong to multiple departments. I want to read/write the objects in the table using the Eclipselink Dynamic Persistence API (which is infact a wrapper on top of JPA descriptors etc.). Example Data: 1 e1 dep1 2 e1 dep2 3 e2 dep1 4 e2 dep3 5 e3 dep1 5 e3 dep2 5 e3 dep3 A normal ReadAllQuery (select query) on the table returns a DynamicEntity corresponding to each row in the table. However I want to club all entities based on the emp id and return all the departments he belongs to as a list. I can merge the entities after retrieving them but if I can use some Eclipselink feature out of the box then it would be better. One way to do the read is the following: I create two dynamic types corresponding to employee: Having id,name as the primary key Having id, department as the primary key, I create a OneToManyMapping from the first type to the second one. Then when I query the first type it does return the departments to which employee belongs as a list of DynamicEntity of the second type. This satisfies the read scenario. Is there a better way of doing this? Is this inherently supported by Eclipselink or JPA? I cannot get the same dynamic type configuration working for the write scenario. This is because when I write the changes using the writeObject method of UnitOfWork, it generates insert queries which enter the following entries in the table id name department 102 emp_102 102 st 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 instead of: id name department 102 emp_102 st 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 Is there any way I can get write to work with this schema using eclipselink? I want to avoid doing the heavy lifting of merging the rows for such a denormalized schema or generating each row before doing a write. Is there no clean way of doing this using Eclipselink or JPA? Thanks in Advance.

    Read the article

  • Linq - reuse expression on child property

    - by user175528
    Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

    Read the article

  • java oracle syntax error?

    - by murali
    hi, i am using the following code for the uploading keywords & count to the excel file. i am having the keyword_id as primary key for that one i had written sentence...i am having the twocolumns in the excel file..1.keyword 2.count my code is: while (rs.next()) { System.out.println("inside "); String keyword = rs.getString(1); int count = rs.getInt(2); System.out.println("insert into SEARCHABLE_KEYWORDS values ('"+ keyword+"','"+count+"')"); stmtdb.execute("insert into SEARCHABLE_KEYWORDS (keyword_id,keyword,count) values ('"+ "select Searchable_Keywords_sequence.nextval from dual"+ "','"+keyword+"','"+count+"')"); System.out.println(keyword + " " + keyword+" count "+count); } but I am getting the following error: java.sql.SQLException: [Microsoft][ODBC Excel Driver] Too few parameters. Expected 1. at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.createSQLException(JdbcOdbc.java:6998) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.standardError(JdbcOdbc.java:7155) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbc.SQLExecDirect(JdbcOdbc.java:3151) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcStatement.execute(JdbcOdbcStatement.java:378) at sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcStatement.executeQuery(JdbcOdbcStatement.java:284) at keywordsreader.main(keywordsreader.java:42) please help to slove this problem...

    Read the article

  • Changing type of object in a conditional

    - by David Doria
    I'm having a bit of trouble with dynamic_casting. I need to determine at runtime the type of an object. Here is a demo: include include class PersonClass { public: std::string Name; virtual void test(){}; //it is annoying that this has to be here... }; class LawyerClass : public PersonClass { public: void GoToCourt(){}; }; class DoctorClass : public PersonClass { public: void GoToSurgery(){}; }; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { PersonClass* person = new PersonClass; if(true) { person = dynamic_cast(person); } else { person = dynamic_cast(person); } person-GoToCourt(); return 0; } I would like to do the above. The only legal way I found to do it is to define all of the objects before hand: PersonClass* person = new PersonClass; LawyerClass* lawyer; DoctorClass* doctor; if(true) { lawyer = dynamic_cast(person); } else { doctor = dynamic_cast(person); } if(true) { lawyer-GoToCourt(); } The main problem with this (besides having to define a bunch of objects that won't be use) is that I have to change the name of the 'person' variable. Is there a better way? (I am not allowed to change any of the classes (Person, Lawyer, or Doctor) because they are part of a library that people who will use my code have and won't want to change). Thanks, Dave

    Read the article

  • Should I go to school and get my degree in computer science?

    - by ryan
    I'll try and keep this short and simple. I've always enjoyed programming and I've been doing it since high school. Right after I graduated from high school (2002), I opted to skip college because I was offered a software engineer position. I quit after a couple of years later to team up on various startup companies. However, most of them did not launch as well as expected. But it honestly did not matter to me because I've learned so much from that experience. So fast forwarding to today, now turned 25, I need a job due to this tough economic climate. Looking on Craigslist, a lot of the listings require computer science degrees. It's evident now that programming is what I want to do because I seem to never get enough of it. But just the thought of having to push 2 years without attending any real computer class for an Associates at age 25 is very, very discouraging. And the thought of having to learn from basic (Hello WOOOOORRLLLD) just does not seem exciting. I guess I have 3 questions to wrap this up: Should I just suck it up and go back to school while working at McDonalds at age 25? Is there a way where I can just skip all the boring stuff and just get tested with what I know? From your experience, how many jobs use computer science degrees as prerequisites? Or am I screwed and better pray that my next startup will be the next big thing?

    Read the article

  • Need help/suggestions for creating fantasy sports scoring databases and queries

    - by MGumbel
    I'm trying to create a website for my friends and I to keep track of fantasy sports scoring. So far, I've been doing the calculations and storage in Excel, which is very tedious. I'm trying to make it more simplified and automated through a SQL database that I can then wrap a web app around to enter daily stat updates. It's premised on our participation in another commercial site where we trade virtual shares of athletes, and thus acquire an "ownership percentage" in each athlete. For instance, if there are 100 shares of AROD, and I own 10 shares, then I own 10%. It then applies this to traditional baseball rotisserie scoring. So, for instance, if AROD has 1 HR today, then his adjusted HR stat would be 1.10. If he also has 2 RBI's, then his adjusted RBI stat today would be 2.20, based on (2 x 1.10)(1 to normalize the stat, and the .10 to represent the ownership percentage). All the stats for my team would then be summed each day and added to my stat history to come to an aggregated total. After that, points are allocated based on the ranking of each participant in each category at the end of the day. E.g. if there are 10 participants, and I have the highest total aggregate number of Adjusted HR's, then I get 10 pts. The points are then summed across the different stat categories to come up with a total point ranking for that day. An added difficulty is that ownership %'s can change on a daily basis. So far, in playing around with different schema, I don't know that having a separate table for each athlete's stats and each player's ownership %'s is the wisest choice. It seems to me that simply having two tables, one that contains the daily stat information for each athlete, and another that shows the ownership % of each player. My friend suggested using a start and end date for each ownership % to represent the potential daily changes in this category. I'm admittedly new to database development, so any suggestions on query code would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • Need a Java based interruptible timer thread

    - by LambeauLeap
    I have a Main Program which is running a script on the target device(smart phone) and in a while loop waiting for stdout messages. However in this particular case, some of the heartbeat messages on the stdout could be spaced almost 45secs to a 1minute apart. something like: stream = device.runProgram(RESTORE_LOGS, new String[] {}); stream.flush(); String line = stream.readLine(); while (line.compareTo("") != 0) { reporter.commentOnJob(jobId, line); line = stream.readLine(); } So, I want to be a able to start a new interruptible thread after reading line from stdout with a required a sleep window. Upon being able to read a new line, I want to be able to interrupt/stop(having trouble killing the process), handle the newline of stdout text and restart a process. And it the event I am not able to read a line within the timer window(say 45secs) I want to a way to get out of my while loop either. I already tried the thread.run, thread.interrupt approach. But having trouble killing and starting a new thread. Is this the best way out or am I missing something obvious?

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

    - by Nathan
    Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Trouble tunneling my local Wordpress install to the mysql database on appfog

    - by alanmoo
    I've set up a wordpress install on appfog (using rackspace), and cloned the install to my local machine for development. I know the install works (using MAMP) because I created a local mysql database and changed wp-config.php to point to it. However, I want to develop without having to change wp-config.php every time I commit. After doing some research, it seems like the Appfog service Caldecott lets me tunnel into the mysql database on the server, using af tunnel. Unfortunately, I'm having issues with getting it working. Even if I change my MAMP mysql port to something like 8889, and tunnel mysql through port 3306, it looks like it's connected but I still get "Error establishing a database connection" when loading my localhost Wordpress. When I quit the mysql monitor (using ctrl+x, ctrl+c), I get a message stating "Error: 'mysql' execution failed; is it in your $PATH?'. Originally, no, it wasn't, but I've fixed my PATH variable on my local machine so that when I go to Terminal and just type mysql, it loads up. So I guess my question is 2 parts: 1.)Am I going with the right approach for Wordpress development on my local machine and 2.)If so, why is the tunnel not working?

    Read the article

  • HTML table manipulation using jQuery

    - by Daniel
    I'm building a site using CakePHP and am currently working on adding data to two separate tables at the same time.. not a problem. The problem I have is that I'm looking to dynamically alter the form that accepts the input values, allowing the click of a button/link to add an additional row of form fields. At the moment I have a table that looks something like this: <table> <thead> <tr> <th>Campus</th> <th>Code</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td> <select id="FulltimeCourseCampusCode0CampusId" name="data[FulltimeCourseCampusCode][0][campus_id]"> <option value=""></option> <option value="1">Evesham</option> <option value="2">Malvern</option> </select> </td> <td> <input type="text" id="FulltimeCourseCampusCode0CourseCode" name="data[FulltimeCourseCampusCode][0][course_code]"> </td> </tr> </tbody> What I need is for the row within the tbody tag to be replicated, with the minor change of having all the zeros (i.e. such as here FulltimeCourseCampusCode0CampusId and here data[FulltimeCourseCampusCode][0][campus_id]) incremented. I'm very new to jQuery, having done a few minor bits, but nothing this advanced (mostly just copy/paste stuff). Can anyone help? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Tools for managing code deployment/versioning for IIS / Windows enviroments

    - by RizwanK
    I've got a strong background in Linux and OSX, and just left a job where I was architecting systems based on those platforms. Now I've got a Windows Server running IIS that has a number of different websites that it hosts. Most of them are just a bunch of HTML, JS and Images, with some ASP for some customer tools. (Each website has a different set of customer tools, or they are the same tools, but with minor code changes between them.) I'm also adding a develop web server with the same code, but the 'bleeding edge' stuff. I need an effective way of managing changes and updates to the overall codebase (henceforth referring to both the images and the html and the asp, for all the sites). When a dev (or webmaster) checks in changes, I want it to show up automatically on the developer server, but should be manually pushed out to the live server. I'd be tempted to just make the websites SVN repositories, but I'd be concerned about the overhead of having the webdeveloper having to log into the server and trigger an SVN update via commandline/tortise (and heaven forbid, manage tags). Ideally I'd also manage IIS profile settings between the systems, but the major need is to be able to manage the process, and expose it to our ASP developer, and our webmaster, both of which are used to just FTPing up the files to the live site. So, any recommendations on tools (beyond some SVN hacking with BAT files + teaching the webmaster how to log into the server and do updates) or workflows that would help this out? I even considered an RPM type package (or some Windows equivalent, of course) to manage the live server, but that seems like a bit too much overhead. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C++ template type deduction problem

    - by hamishmcn
    motivation: I would like to create a utility class so that instead of having to write: if( someVal == val1 || someVal == val2 || someVal == val3 ) I could instead write: if( is(someVal).in(val1, val2, val3) ) which is much closer to the mathematical 'a is an element of (b,c,d)' and also would save on a lot of typing when the variable name 'someVal' is long. Here is the code I have so far (for 2 and 3 values): template<class T> class is { private: T t_; public: is(T t) : t_(t) { } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2; } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2, const T& v3) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2 || t_ == v3; } }; However it fails to compile if I write: is(1).in(3,4,5); instead I have to write is<int>(1).in(3,4,5); Which isn't too bad, but it would be better if somehow the compiler could figure out that the type is int with out me having to explicitly specify it. Is there anyway to do this or I am stuck with specifying it explicitly?

    Read the article

  • How do I find the highest level TR that contains a specific ID nested in a table

    - by Mykroft
    I have some HTML that looks like this (NOTE: I know this code isn't great but I didn't design it originally and some of it is auto generated): <table id="tab1"> <tr> <td><span>Some text</span></td> <td><span>more text</span></td> <td><input type="text" id="inp1" onclick="DoSomething(this);" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td><span>Some text</span></td> <td><span>more text</span></td> <td><table id="tab2"> <tr><td><input type="radio" id="inp2" onclick="DoSomething(this);" /><span>item</span></td></tr> </table></td> </tr> </table> All of that is embedded in a table which is also embedded in a table and so on. In the DoSomething(this) function I want to retrieve the TR underneath the table tab1. I'm having trouble figuring out the jquery necessary for this. Currently I'm doing something like this: function DoSomething(control) { var parentTab = '<%=tab1.ClientID %>'; var tr = $('#' + parentTab + ' > tbody > tr').has('#' + $(control).attr('id')).get(0); } This seems really messy but works. Is there a cleaner way to do this? If it helps the input inside the table will always be a radio button and a radio button will never appear outside of a sub table. Ideally I'd like to do this without having to know the id of tab1 but that seems impossible.

    Read the article

  • CakePHP - recursive on specific fields in model?

    - by Paul
    Hi, I'm pretty new to CakePHP but I think I'm starting to get the hang of it. I'm trying to pull related table information recursively, but I want to specify which related models to recurse on. Let me give you an example to demonstrate my goal: I have a model "Customer", which has info like Company name, website, etc. "Customer" hasMany "Addresses", which contain info for individual contacts like Contact Name, Street, City, State, Country, etc. "Customer" also belongsTo "CustomerType", which is just has descriptive category info - a name and description, like "Distributor" or "Manufacturer". When I do a find on "Customer" I want to get associated "CustomerType" and "Address" info as sub-arrays, and this works fine just by setting up the hasMany and belongsTo associations properly. But now, here's my issue: I want to get associated State/Country info. So, instead of each "Address" array row just having "state_id", I want it to have "state" = array("id" = 20, "name" = "New York",...) etc. If I set $recursive to a higher value (e.g., 2) in the Partner model, I get what I want for the State/Country info in each "Address". BUT it also recurses on "CustomerType", and that results in the "CustomerType" field of my "Partner" object having a huge array of all Customer objects that match that type, which could be thousands long. So the point is, I DON'T want to recurse on "CustomerType", only on "Address". Is there a way I can set this up? Sorry for the long-winded question, and thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • In maven2, how do I assemble bits and pieces of different modules to create final distributions?

    - by Carcassi
    I have four maven project: client api jar web service war ui jar web interface war The service war will need to be packaged to include the client api jar, together with javadocs (so that each version is distributed with a matching client and documentation). The web interface war will need the ui jar and all the dependencies (webstart/applet deployment). So I need a 5th project that does all the packaging. How to do this with ant or a script is perfectly clear to me, but not in maven. I tried the following: having the javadocs included as part of the war packaging: this requires the execution of the javadocs goal in project 1 before execution of package in project 2. Haven't found a way to bind plugins/goals across different projects. Using the assembly plugin in project2 had the same problem. create a fifth project and use the assembly plugin. Still the same problems as before, with the problem that since I need different pieces from each sub-project I do not understand how this can be done using the assembly. Is this too hard to do in maven, and should I just give up? Or I am looking at it wrong, in which case, how should I be looking at it? Thanks! Upon further reflection, here is a partial answer: Each project should build all its artifacts. This is done by having the plugins configured to run as per the prepare-resources and package phases. So, in my case, I prepare all that needs to be generated (jar, javadocs, xsd documentation, ...) as different artifacts so that a single "package" goal execution creates all. So, it's not "how project 2 forces project 1 to run different goals", but it's "make project 1 create all of its artifact as part as the normal lifecycle). This seems to simplify things.

    Read the article

  • CSS issue with multi-accordion

    - by Josh
    Alright, I got some help earlier with this, but it never truly got resolved. I'm pretty sure I'm having a CSS issue, but I just can't figure out how to correct it. Currently, I have these accordions working perfectly, they collapse, expand, expand again when told to etc. The problem I'm having is aligning the content within these accordion divs. Ideally, when everything is default (collapsed) all I want seen is the thumbnail image and the Headline. Then if the user wishes, they click on the headline and it expands and if they want to make a comment or view comments, they can click once again to expand that. Here's the thing, I have to make the height 62px so everything will fit in and just not float all over the place. This creates a problem with the "View Comments" to "Text Here" area, as you can tell it has outrageous space between the two. The other issue is, as I currently have it I'm forcefully indenting the article text so that it doesn't TEXT WRAP underneath the thumbnail image. Basically, I want it split into 2 columns so nothing ever goes beneath the image, but working with this accordion and divs inside the divs it's proving to be difficult for me. I've put up a demo here: http://www.notedls.com/demo

    Read the article

  • Instantiate a form, then find it later, without showing it initially

    - by awilson53
    I am having a problem that is strange to me but hopefully is not so strange to someone else. : ) Some background: I am working on a simple IM client that allows the user to broadcast messages to multiple recipients. The goal is to create a chat form for each of the recipients containing the text of the broadcast message, then show that form only if the recipient responds to the broadcast-er. However, when the application receives a response then attempts to locate the form for that particular chat session (using Application.OpenForms) it cannot find it UNLESS I .Show at the time it is created. I would like to avoid having to show this form when it is created because this means that the user will see a flash on the screen. The form doesn't seem to really be created until I show it, but it would seem there has to be a way to do this without showing first. Can anyone assist? I can provide code snippets if needed, I didn't in this post because this feels more like a conceptual misunderstanding on my part than a bug in the code. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • What rules govern cross-version compatibility for .NET applications and the C# language?

    - by John Feminella
    For some reason I've always had trouble remembering the backwards/forwards compatibility guarantees made by the framework, so I'd like to put that to bed forever. Suppose I have two assemblies, A and B. A is older and references .NET 2.0 assemblies; B references .NET 3.5 assemblies. I have the source for A and B, Ax and Bx, respectively; they are written in C# at the 2.0 and 3.0 language levels. (That is, Ax uses no features that were introduced later than C# 2.0; likewise Bx uses no features that were introduced later than 3.0.) I have two environments, C and D. C has the .NET 2.0 framework installed; D has the .NET 3.5 framework installed. Now, which of the following can/can't I do? Running: run A on C? run A on D? run B on C? run C on D? Compiling: compile Ax on C? compile Ax on D? compile Bx on C? compile Bx on D? Rewriting: rewrite Ax to use features from the C# 3 language level, and compile it on D, while having it still work on C? rewrite Bx to use features from the C# 4 language level on another environment E that has .NET 4, while having it still work on D?' Referencing from another assembly: reference B from A and have a client app on C use it? reference B from A and have a client app on D use it? reference A from B and have a client app on C use it? reference A from B and have a client app on D use it? More importantly, what rules govern the truth or falsity of these hypothetical scenarios?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193  | Next Page >