Search Results

Search found 6001 results on 241 pages for 'requires'.

Page 186/241 | < Previous Page | 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193  | Next Page >

  • Web page database query optimization

    - by morpheous
    I am putting together a web page which is quite 'expensive' in terms of database hits. I don't want to start optimizing at this stage - though with me trying to hit a deadline, I may end up not optimizing at all. Currently the page requires 18 (that's right eighteen) hits to the db. I am already using joins, and some of the queries are UNIONed to minimize the trips to the db. My local dev machine can handle this (page is not slow) however, I feel if I release this into the wild, the number of queries will quickly overwhelm my database (MySQL). I could always use memcache or something similar, but I would much rather continue with my other dev work that needs to be completed before the deadline - at least retrieving the page works - its simply a matter of optimization now (if required). My question therefore is - is 18 db queries for a single page retrieval completely outrageous - (i.e. I should put everything on hold and optimize the hell of the retrieval logic), or shall I continue as normal, meet the deadline and release on schedule and see what happens? [Edit] Just to clarify, I have already done the 'obvious' things like using (single and composite) indexes for fields used in the queries. What I haven't yet done is to run a query analyzer to see if my indexes etc are optimal.

    Read the article

  • Simplest way to automatically alter "const" value in Java during compile time

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is a question corresponds to my uni assignment so I am very sorry to say I cannot adopt any one of the following best practices in a short time -- you know -- assignment is due tomorrow :( link to Best way to alter const in Java on StackOverflow Basically the only task (I hope so) left for me is the performance tuning. I've got a bunch of predefined "const" values in my single-class agent source code like this: //static final values private static final long FT_THRESHOLD = 400; private static final long FT_THRESHOLD_MARGIN = 50; private static final long FT_SMOOTH_PRICE_IDICATOR = 20; private static final long FT_BUY_PRICE_MODIFIER = 0; private static final long FT_LAST_ROUNDS_STARTTIME = 90; private static final long FT_AMOUNT_ADJUST_MODIFIER = 5; private static final long FT_HISTORY_PIRCES_LENGTH = 10; private static final long FT_TRACK_DURATION = 5; private static final int MAX_BED_BID_NUM_PER_AUC = 12; I can definitely alter the values manually and then compile the code to give it another go around. But the execution time for a thorough "statistic analysis" usually requires over 2000 times of execution, which will typically lasts more than half an hour on my own laptop... So I hope there is a way to alter values using other ways than dig into the source code to change the "const" values there, so I can automatically distributed compiled code to other people's PC and let them run the statistic analysis instead. One other reason for a automatically value adjustment is that I can try using my own agent to defeat itself by choosing different "const" values. Although my values are derived from previous history and statistical results, they are far from the most optimized values. I hope there is a easy way so I can quickly adopt that so to have a good sleep tonight while the computer does everything for me... :) Any hints on this sort of stuff? Any suggestion is welcomed and much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • tipfy for Google App Engine: Is it stable? Can auth/session components of tipfy be used with webapp?

    - by cv12
    I am building a web application on Google App Engine that requires users to register with the application and subsequently authenticate with it and maintain sessions. I don't want to force users to have Google accounts. Also, the target audience for the application is the average non-geek, so I'm not very keen on using OpenID or OAuth. I need something simple like: User registers with an e-mail and password, and then can log back in with those credentials. I understand that this approach does not provide the security benefits of Google or OpenID authentication, but I am prepared to trade foolproof security for end-user convenience and hassle-free experience. I explored Django, but decided that consecutive deprecations from appengine-helper to app-engine-patch to django-nonrel may signal that path may be a bit risky in the long-term. I'd like to use a code base that is likely to be maintained consistently. I also explored standalone session/auth packages like gaeutilities and suas. GAEUtilities looked a bit immature (e.g., the code wasn't pythonic in places, in my opinion) and SUAS did not give me a lot of comfort with the cookie-only sessions. I could be wrong with my assessment of these two, so I would appreciate input on those (or others that may serve my objective). Finally, I recently came across tipfy. It appears to be based on Werkzeug and Alex Martelli spoke highly of it here on stackoverflow. I have two primary questions related to tipfy: As a framework, is it as mature as webapp? Is it stable and likely to be maintained for some time? Since my primary interest is the auth/session components, can those components of the tipfy framework be used with webapp, independent of the broader tipfy framework? If yes, I would appreciate a few pointers to how I could go about doing that.

    Read the article

  • Best way to randomly select columns from random rows of SQL results.

    - by LesterDove
    A search of SO yields many results describing how to select random rows of data from a database table. My requirement is a bit different, though, in that I'd like to select individual columns from across random rows in the most efficient/random/interesting way possible. To better illustrate: I have a large Customers table, and from that I'd like to generate a bunch of fictitious demo Customer records that aren't real people. I'm thinking of just querying randomly from the Customers table, and then randomly pairing FirstNames with LastNames, Address, City, State, etc. So if this is my real Customer data (simplified): FirstName LastName State ========================== Sally Simpson SD Will Warren WI Mike Malone MN Kelly Kline KS Then I'd generate several records that look like this: FirstName LastName State ========================== Sally Warren MN Kelly Malone SD Etc. My initial approach works, but it lacks the elegance that I'm hoping the final answer will provide. (I'm particularly unhappy with the repetitiveness of the subqueries, and the fact that this solution requires a known/fixed number of fields and therefore isn't reusable.) SELECT FirstName = (SELECT TOP 1 FirstName FROM Customer ORDER BY newid()), LastName= (SELECT TOP 1 LastNameFROM Customer ORDER BY newid()), State = (SELECT TOP 1 State FROM Customer ORDER BY newid()) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • MVC.NET custom validator is not working

    - by IvanMushketyk
    I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

    - by Dan
    I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Applet Not Loading In Java 1.6.0_16

    - by Wayne Hartman
    I am running a Java applet compiled in 1.5 and am experiencing odd behavior when running it on computers running 1.6.0_07 and 1.6.0_16. On the *_07 version, the applet initializes and loads in the browser perfectly fine. However, computers with the *_16 are not loading at all. Even more strange, there is nothing in the Java Console to indicate any problems will loading the applet in the browser. If I run the applet from as a standalone app on said machines, it loads up just fine. The compatibility mode in the JNLP is set to 1.5+. Firefox reports no errors attempting to load the applet. Even with full tracing and logging set to all, nothing is reported in the console window. Quick facts: The JAR is signed Compiled in 1.5 Works flawlessly in browsers (FF & IE) running *_07 Does not work in browsers (FF & IE) running *_16 Works running as stand alone app in *_16 JNLP set to 1.5+ Clients are mixed *_07, *_16, and other version of 1.6 Things I have tried: Forcing the JVM to use version 1.6.0_07. This requires the user to download *_07. In my situation this is not an option, unfortunately. Ran the app on *_16 as a standalone app. This works fine, but this needs to run as an applet. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Updating MS Access Database from Datagridview

    - by Peter Roche
    I am trying to update an ms access database from a datagridview. The datagridview is populated on a button click and the database is updated when any cell is modified. The code example I have been using populates on form load and uses the cellendedit event. private OleDbConnection connection = null; private OleDbDataAdapter dataadapter = null; private DataSet ds = null; private void Form2_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { string connetionString = "Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source='C:\\Users\\Peter\\Documents\\Visual Studio 2010\\Projects\\StockIT\\StockIT\\bin\\Debug\\StockManagement.accdb';Persist Security Info=True;Jet OLEDB:Database Password="; string sql = "SELECT * FROM StockCount"; connection = new OleDbConnection(connetionString); dataadapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(sql, connection); ds = new DataSet(); connection.Open(); dataadapter.Fill(ds, "Stock"); connection.Close(); dataGridView1.DataSource = ds; dataGridView1.DataMember = "Stock"; } private void addUpadateButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { } private void dataGridView1_CellEndEdit(object sender, DataGridViewCellEventArgs e) { try { dataadapter.Update(ds,"Stock"); } catch (Exception exceptionObj) { MessageBox.Show(exceptionObj.Message.ToString()); } } The error I receive is Update requires a valid UpdateCommand when passed DataRow collection with modified rows. I'm not sure where this command needs to go and how to reference the cell to update the value in the database.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC WAP, SharePoint Designer and SVN

    - by David Lively
    All, I'm starting a new ASP.NET MVC project which requires some content management capabilities. The people who will be managing the content prefer to use SharePoint Designer (successor to FrontPage) to modify content. I'd like to allow them to keep doing that. The issues are: Since I'd like this to be a WAP, not a website project, how can I allow them to see their changes in action without requiring them to have Visual Studio on their local machines? Can I specify a "default" action for a controller so that given a url like /products/new_view_here Can I let them save pages (views) and see them in the browser without having to go through the check-in/build/deploy process? I'd like their changes to be stored in SVN; SharePoint designer seems to only support Visual SourceSafe (ugh) directly. The ideas I've come up with so far are Write an HTTP handler that implements the FrontPage Server Extensions protocol. This sounds time consuming, but I haven't yet looked at the protocol spec. However, it would allow me to perform whatever operations I want on the server side, including checking files into SVN. Ditch the WAP in favor of a website project. I do not like having the source present on the server, however. Also, will MVC work in a website project? Surely someone has tackled this problem before?

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate, getting 1 column from another table

    - by puffpio
    We're using FluentNHibernate and we have run into a problem where our object model requires data from two tables like so: public class MyModel { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual int FooId { get; set; } public virtual string FooName { get; set; } } Where there is a MyModel table that has Id, Name, and FooId as a foreign key into the Foo table. The Foo tables contains Id and FooName. This problem is very similar to another post here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1896645/nhibernate-join-tables-and-get-single-column-from-other-table but I am trying to figure out how to do it with FluentNHibernate. I can make the Id, Name, and FooId very easily..but mapping FooName I am having trouble with. This is my class map: public class MyModelClassMap : ClassMap<MyModel> { public MyModelClassMap() { this.Id(a => a.Id).Column("AccountId").GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.Map(a => a.Name); this.Map(a => a.FooId); // my attempt to map FooName but it doesn't work this.Join("Foo", join => join.KeyColumn("FooId").Map(a => a.FooName)); } } with that mapping I get this error: The element 'class' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2' has invalid child element 'join' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. List of possible elements expected: 'joined-subclass, loader, sql-insert, sql-update, sql-delete, filter, resultset, query, sql-query' in namespace 'urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2'. any ideas?

    Read the article

  • How should I generate the partitions / pairs for the Chinese Postman problem?

    - by Simucal
    I'm working on a program for class that involves solving the Chinese Postman problem. Our assignment only requires us to write a program to solve it for a hard-coded graph but I'm attempting to solve it for the general case on my own. The part that is giving me trouble is generating the partitions of pairings for the odd vertices. For example, if I had the following labeled odd verticies in a graph: 1 2 3 4 5 6 I need to find all the possible pairings / partitions I can make with these vertices. I've figured out I'll have i paritions given: n = num of odd verticies k = n / 2 i = ((2k)(2k-1)(2k-2)...(k+1))/2 So, given the 6 odd verticies above, we will know that we need to generate i = 15 partitions. The 15 partions would look like: 1 2 3 4 5 6 1 2 3 5 4 6 1 2 3 6 4 5 ... 1 6 ... Then, for each partition, I take each pair and find the shortest distance between them and sum them for that partition. The partition with the total smallest distance between its pairs is selected, and I then double all the edges between the shortest path between the odd vertices (found in the selected partition). These represent the edges the postman will have to walk twice. At first I thought I had worked out an appropriate algorithm for generating these partitions / pairs but it is flawed. I found it wasn't a simple permutation/combination problem. Does anyone who has studied this problem before have any tips that can help point me in the right direction for generating these partitions?

    Read the article

  • Common one-to-many table for multiple entities

    - by Ben V
    Suppose I have two tables, Customer and Vendor. I want to have a common address table for customer and vendor addresses. Customers and Vendors can both have one to many addresses. Option 1 Add columns for the AddressID to the Customer and Vendor tables. This just doesn't seem like a clean solution to me. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID AddressID1 AddressID1 Street AddressID2 AddressID2 City... Option 2 Move the foreign key to the Address table. For a Customer, Address.CustomerID will be populated. For a Vendor, Address.VendorID will be populated. I don't like this either - I shouldn't need to modify the address table every time I want to use it for another entity. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID CustomerID VendorID Option 3 I've also seen this - only 1 foreign key column on the Address table with another column to identify which foreign key table the address belongs to. I don't like this one because it requires all the foreign key tables to have the same type of ID. It also seems messy once you start coding against it. Customer Vendor Address -------- --------- --------- CustomerID VendorID AddressID FKTable FKID So, am I just too picky, or is there something I haven't thought of?

    Read the article

  • How to query AD to get name email from lan id

    - by Kumar
    I have some code in asp.net ( kindly given by someone else ) to query AD to get user name and email etc. using System.DirectoryServices; using System.DirectoryServices.ActiveDirectory; using ActiveDs; DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(new DirectoryEntry(), string.Format("(samaccountname={0})", id)); if (search == null) return id; if (search.FindOne() == null) return id; DirectoryEntry usr = search.FindOne().GetDirectoryEntry(); IADsUser oUsr = (IADsUser)usr.NativeObject; return string.Format("{0} {1}", usr.Properties["givenname"].Value, usr.Properties["sn"].Value); However this requires impersonation with an id that's required to be changed every 2 weeks and then updated in the web.config which is often forgotten Is there any non impersonation code to achieve the same result ? UPDATE - it's a config tool and it looks up name, email id etc. I like the service a/c idea Q - How is it possible to run ( impersonate ) just the AD code with a "service" a/c ? any samples/code ? how do you impersona

    Read the article

  • How to secure login and member area with SSL certificate?

    - by citronas
    Background: I have a asp.net webapplication project that should contain a public and a member area. Now I want to implement a SSL decription to secure communication between the client and the server. (In the university we have a unsecured wireless network and you can use a wlan sniffer to read username/password. I do not want to have this security problem for my application, so I thought of a ssl decription) The application is running on a IIS 7.5. It it possible to have one webapp that has unsecured pages (like the public area) and a secured area (like the member area, which requires a login)? If yes, how can I relealise the communication between these too areas? Example: My webapp is hosted on http://foo.abc. I have pages like http://foo.abc/default.aspx and http://foo.abc/foo.aspx. In the same project is page like /member/default.aspx which is protected by a login on the page http://foo.abc/login.aspx. So I would need to implement SSL for the page /login.aspx and all pages in /member/ How can I do that? I just found out how to create SSL certificates in IIS 7.5 and how to add such a binding to a webapp. How how can I tell my webapp which page should be called with https and not with http. What is the best practise there?

    Read the article

  • Generating easy-to-remember random identifiers

    - by Carl Seleborg
    Hi all, As all developers do, we constantly deal with some kind of identifiers as part of our daily work. Most of the time, it's about bugs or support tickets. Our software, upon detecting a bug, creates a package that has a name formatted from a timestamp and a version number, which is a cheap way of creating reasonably unique identifiers to avoid mixing packages up. Example: "Bug Report 20101214 174856 6.4b2". My brain just isn't that good at remembering numbers. What I would love to have is a simple way of generating alpha-numeric identifiers that are easy to remember. Examples would be "azil3", "ulmops", "fel2way", etc. I just made these up, but they are much easier to recognize when you see many of them at once. I know of algorithms that perform trigram analysis on text (say you feed them a whole book in German) and that can generate strings that look and feel like German words. This requires lots of data, though, and makes it slightly less suitable for embedding in an application just for this purpose. Do you know of anything else? Thanks! Carl

    Read the article

  • Should I define a single "DataContext" and pass references to it around or define muliple "DataConte

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a Silverlight application that consists of a MainWindow and several classes which update and draw images on the MainWindow. I'm now expanding this to keep track of everything in a database. Without going into specifics, lets say I have a structure like this: MainWindow Drawing-Surface Class1 -- Supports Drawing DataContext + DataServiceCollection<T> w/events Class2 -- Manages "transactions" (add/delete objects from drawing) Class3 Each "Class" is passed a reference to the Drawing Surface so they can interact with it independently. I'm starting to use WCF Data Services in Class1 and its working well; however, the other classes are also going to need access to the WCF Data Services. (Should I define my "DataContext" in MainWindow and pass a reference to each child class?) Class1 will need READ access to the "transactions" data, and Class2 will need READ access to some of the drawing data. So my question is, where does it make the most sense to define my DataContext? Does it make sense to: Define a "global" WCF Data Service "Context" object and pass references to that in all of my subsequent classes? Define an instance of the "Context" for each Class1, Class2, etc Have each method that requires access to data define its own instance of the "Context" and use closures handle the async load/complete events? Would a structure like this make more sense? Is there any danger in keeping an active "DataContext" open for an extended period of time? Typical usecase of this application could range from 1 minute to 40+ minutes. MainWindow Drawing-Surface DataContext Class1 -- Supports Drawing DataServiceCollection<DrawingType> w/events Class2 -- Manages "transactions" (add/delete objects from drawing) DataServiceCollection<TransactionType> w/events Class3 DataServiceCollection<T> w/events

    Read the article

  • Center a TextBox over the top of a ScrollViewer in WPF.

    - by Eric
    I have a MainView that contains a navigation bar which selects one of many XAML pages to be displayed in the page view pane. The MainView contains a ScrollViewer around the pages. This allows the pages to be whatever size they need to be and the MainView's ScrollViewer scrolls them. This all works great. On one of the pages, I need to (sometimes) center a TextBox in the middle of the page view pane (over the top of the page content). This was easily done by placing both the page content and the TextBox overlapping each other in a Grid (and I hide the TextBox as necessary). This all seems to work great. However, if the page content grows to be larger than the pane, the TextBox is centered not on the pane, but on the full page content. Thus, it moves from center screen down and/or to the right (and eventually off the screen). Bummer. Options: Remove the ScrollViewer from the MainView. This would require placing one on every page! Argh. Do option #1, and create a ScrolledPage base class. This is a lot of work, and I'm worried about tools issues (Blend issues). It also requires changing every page (to subclass this page). Somehow override the ScrollViewer on just this page. Then, place another ScrollViewer on the page content to Scroll it. Option 3 seems preferable, because it contains the issue to just modifying this page (instead of changing the rest of the pages). However, I can't figure out how to do it. Ideas? Thanks in advance! Eric

    Read the article

  • Finding specific words in a file (Python language)

    - by Caroline Yi
    I have to write a program in python where the user is given a menu with four different "word games". There is a file called dictionary.txt and one of the games requires the user to input a) the number of letters in a word and b) a letter to exclude from the words being searched in the dictionary (dictionary.txt has the whole dictionary). Then the program prints the words that follow the user's requirements. My question is how on earth do I open the file and search for words with a certain length in that file. I only have a basic code which only asks the user for inputs. I'm am very new at this please help :( this is what I have up to the first option. The others are fine and I know how to break the loop but this specific one is really giving me trouble. I have tried everything and I just keep getting errors. Honestly, I only took this class because someone said it would be fun. It is, but recently I've really been falling behind and I have no idea what to do now. This is an intro level course so please be nice I've never done this before until now :( print print "Choose Which Game You Want to Play" print "a) Find words with only one vowel and excluding a specific letter." print "b) Find words containing all but one of a set of letters." print "c) Find words containing a specific character string." print "d) Find words containing state abbreviations." print "e) Find US state capitals that start with months." print "q) Quit." print choice = raw_input("Enter a choice: ") choice = choice.lower() print choice while choice != "q": if choice == "a": #wordlen = word length user is looking for.s wordlen = raw_input("Please enter the word length you are looking for: ") wordlen = int(wordlen) print wordlen #letterex = letter user wishes to exclude. letterex = raw_input("Please enter the letter you'd like to exclude: ") letterex = letterex.lower() print letterex

    Read the article

  • Change classes instantiated with loadNibNamed

    - by Nick H247
    I am trying to change the class of objects created with a nib with the iPhone SDK. The reason for this is; i dont know until runtime what the class is that i want the nib object to be (though they will have the same UIView based super class), and i dont want to create a different nib for every eventuality - as the .nib will be the same for each, apart from the class of one object. I have been successful, with a couple of methods, but either have some knock on effects or am unsure of how safe the methods I have used are: Method 1: Override alloc, on the super class and set a c variable to the class I require: + (id) alloc { if (theClassIWant) { id object = [theClassIWant allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; theClassIWant = nil; return object; } return [BaseClass allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; } this works well, and i assume is 'reasonably' safe, though if I alloc a subclass myself (without setting 'theClassIWant') - an object of the base class is created. I also dont really like the idea of overriding alloc... Method 2: use object_setClass(self,theClassIWant) in initWithCoder (before calling initWithCoder on the super class): - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (theClassIWant) { // the framework doesn't like this: //[self release]; //self = [theClassIWant alloc]; // whoa now! object_setClass(self,theClassIWant); theClassIWant = nil; return [self initWithCoder:aDecoder]; } if (self = [super initWithCoder:aDecoder]) { ... this also works well, but not all the subclasses are necessarily going to be the same size as the super class, so this could be very unsafe! To combat this i tried releasing and re-allocing to the correct type within initWithCoder, but i got the following error from the framework: "This coder requires that replaced objects be returned from initWithCoder:" dont quite get what this means! i am replacing an object in initWithCoder... Any comments on the validity of these methods, or suggestions of improvements or alternatives welcome!

    Read the article

  • Is a GWT app running on Google App Engine protected from CSRF

    - by gerdemb
    I'm developing a GWT app running on the Google App Engine and wondering if I need to worry about Cross-site request forgery or is that automatically taken care of for me? For every RPC request that requires authentication, I have the following code: public class BookServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements BookService { public void deleteInventory(Key<Inventory> inventoryKey) throws NotLoggedInException, InvalidStateException, NotFoundException { DAO dao = new DAO(); // This will throw NotLoggedInException if user is not logged in User user = dao.getCurrentUser(); // Do deletion here } } public final class DAO extends DAOBase { public User getCurrentUser() throws NotLoggedInException { currentUser = UserServiceFactory.getUserService().getCurrentUser(); if(currentUser == null) { throw new NotLoggedInException(); } return currentUser; } I couldn't find any documentation on how the UserService checks authentication. Is it enough to rely on the code above or do I need to to more? I'm a beginner at this, but from what I understand to avoid CSRF attacks some of the strategies are: adding an authentication token in the request payload instead of just checking a cookie checking the HTTP Referer header I can see that I have cookies set from Google with what look like SID values, but I can't tell from the serialized Java objects in the payloads if tokens are being passed or not. I also don't know if the Referer header is being used or not. So, am I worrying about a non-issue? If not, what is the best strategy here? This is a common enough problem, that there must be standard solutions out there...

    Read the article

  • How do I implement a listener pattern over RMI using Spring?

    - by predhme
    So here is a generalized version of our application desgin: @Controller public class MyController { @Autowired private MyServiceInterface myServiceInterface; @RequestMapping("/myURL") public @ResponseBody String doSomething() { MyListenerInterface listener = new MyListenerInterfaceImpl(); myServiceInterface.doThenCallListener(listener); // do post stuff } } public interface MyListenerInterface { public void callA(); public void callB(); } public class MyListenerInterfaceImpl implements MyListenerInterface { // ... omitted for clarity } public interface MyServiceInterface { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener); } public class MyServiceImpl { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener) { // do stuff listener.callA(); } } Basically I have a controller that is being called via AJAX in which I am looking to return a response as a string. However, I need to make a call to the backend (MyServiceInterface). That guy is exposed through RMI by using Spring (man that was easy). But the service method as described requires a listener to be registered for invokation completion purposes. So what I assume I need to achieve is transparently to the backend make it so that when the listener methods are called, really the call is going over RMI. I would have thought Spring would have a simple way to wrap a POJO (not a service singleton) with RMI calls. I looked through their documentation but they had nothing besides exposing services via RMI. Could someone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • A dropdownlist list in ASP.NET MVC although not [required] field shows up as required and Model Sta

    - by VJ
    I have the following code- View- <% Html.BeginForm(); %> <div> <%= Html.DropDownList("DropDownSelectList", new SelectList( Model.DropDownSelectList, "Value", "Text"))%> Controller- public ActionResult Admin(string apiKey, string userId) { ChallengesAdminViewModel vm = new ChallengesAdminViewModel(); vm.ApiKey = apiKey; vm.UserId = userId; vm.DropDownSelectList = new List<SelectListItem>(); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem1); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem2); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem3); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem4); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem5); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem6); vm.DropDownSelectList.Add(listItem7); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Admin(ChallengesAdminViewModel vm) { if (ModelState.IsValid)//Due to the null dropdownlist gives model state invalid { } } ViewModel- public class ChallengesAdminViewModel { [Required] public string ApiKey { get; set; } [Required] public string UserId { get; set; } public List<SelectListItem> DropDownSelectList { get; set; } } I dont know why it still requires the list although not required. I want to have only two attributes as required. So I wanted to know how do i declare or change that list to be not required and have my Model State Valid.

    Read the article

  • Closures and universal quantification

    - by Apocalisp
    I've been trying to work out how to implement Church-encoded data types in Scala. It seems that it requires rank-n types since you would need a first-class const function of type forAll a. a -> (forAll b. b -> b). However, I was able to encode pairs thusly: import scalaz._ trait Compose[F[_],G[_]] { type Apply = F[G[A]] } trait Closure[F[_],G[_]] { def apply[B](f: F[B]): G[B] } def pair[A,B](a: A, b: B) = new Closure[Compose[PartialApply1Of2[Function1,A]#Apply, PartialApply1Of2[Function1,B]#Apply]#Apply, Identity] { def apply[C](f: A => B => C) = f(a)(b) } For lists, I was able to get encode cons: def cons[A](x: A) = { type T[B] = B => (A => B => B) => B new Closure[T,T] { def apply[B](xs: T[B]) = (b: B) => (f: A => B => B) => f(x)(xs(b)(f)) } } However, the empty list is more problematic and I've not been able to get the Scala compiler to unify the types. Can you define nil, so that, given the definition above, the following compiles? cons(1)(cons(2)(cons(3)(nil)))

    Read the article

  • How to pass a Dictionary variable to another procedure

    - by salvationishere
    I am developing a C# VS2008/SQL Server website application. I've never used the Dictionary class before, but I am trying to replace my Hashtable with a Dictionary variable. Here is a portion of my aspx.cs code: ... Dictionary<string, string> openWith = new Dictionary<string, string>(); for (int col = 0; col < headers.Length; col++) { @temp = (col + 1); @tempS = @temp.ToString(); @tempT = "@col" + @temp.ToString(); ... openWith.Add(@tempT, headers[col]); } ... for (int r = 0; r < myInputFile.Rows.Count; r++) { resultLabel.Text = ADONET_methods.AppendDataCT(myInputFile, openWith); } But this is giving me a compiler error on this last line: Argument '2': cannot convert from 'System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary' to 'string' How do I pass the entire openWith variable to AppendDataCT? AppendDataCT is the method that calls my SQL stored proc. I want to pass in the whole row where each row has a unique set of values that I want to add to my database table. For example, if each row requires values for cells A, B, and C, then I want to pass these 3 values to AppendDataCT, where all of these values are strings. How do I do this with Dictionary?

    Read the article

  • Using CSS max-height on an outer div to force scroll on an inner-div.

    - by Jay Neely
    I have an outer div with a variable height (and max-height) that's set with a specific pixel amount by JavaScript, containing two divs within. The 1st div is intended to hold a variable amount of content, e.g. a list of links. It has no height set. The 2nd div is intended to hold a fixed amount of content, and has a specific height set. Right now, the max-height isn't working. The 1st div keeps growing, even with overflow: auto; set, and pushes the 2nd div below it outside the bounds of the outer div. How can I make it so that when the 1st div gets too large for the outer div to contain both it and the fixed-height 2nd div, the 1st div will start to scroll? Example page: http://thevastdesign.com/scrollTest.html Thanks for any help. I'd appreciate a CSS solution the most, even if it requires some hacks. It only has to work in Firefox 3+, IE8, and IE7. Ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193  | Next Page >