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.NET substitute dependent assemblies without recompiling?

- by RK

I have a question about how the .NET framework (2.0) resolves dependent assemblies. We're currently involved in a bit of a rewrite of a large ASP.NET application and various satellite executables. There are also some nagging problems with our foundation classes that we developed a new API to solve. So far this is a normal, albeit wide-reaching, update. Our heirarchy is: ASP.NET (aspx) business logic (DLLs) foundation classes (DLLs) So ASP.NET doesn't throw a fit, some of the DLLs (specifically the foundation classes) have a redirection layer that contains the old namespaces/functions and forwards them to the new API. When we replaced the DLLs, ASP.NET picked them up fine (probably because it triggered a recompile). Precompiled applications don't though, even though the same namespaces and classes are in both sets of DLLs. Even when the file is renamed, it complains about the assemblyname attribute being different (which it has to be by necessity). I know you can redirect to differnet versions of the same assembly, but is there any way to direct to a completely different assembly? The alternatives are to recompile the applications (don't really want to because the applications themselves haven't changed) or recompile the old foundation DLL with stubs refering to the new foundation DLL (the new dummy DLL is file system clutter).

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Nginx not responding to remote IP

- by bucabay

I just installed Nginx listening on 8083 I can get a HTTP response when sending a HTTP request from the local machine. eg: curl -i localhost:8083 However, when I do the same from a remote machine, it just hangs until the ssh times out, or when the browser times out if accessed from the browser. I pretty much have the default config: user apache apache; worker_processes 1; error_log logs/error.log; #error_log logs/error.log notice; #error_log logs/error.log info; pid logs/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; log_format main '$remote_addr - $remote_user [$time_local] "$request" ' '$status $body_bytes_sent "$http_referer" ' '"$http_user_agent" "$http_x_forwarded_for"'; access_log logs/access.log main; sendfile on; tcp_nopush on; #keepalive_timeout 0; keepalive_timeout 65; #gzip on; server { listen 8083; server_name _; charset utf-8; #access_log logs/host.access.log main; location / { root html; index index.html index.php; } #error_page 404 /404.html; # redirect server error pages to the static page /50x.html # error_page 500 502 503 504 /50x.html; location = /50x.html { root html; } location ~ /\.ht { deny all; } } } any ideas?

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how to close popup using javascript with xml formatting

- by Michael Robinson

I bought this program that created a pretty nice imageuploader flash script however I can't get the Javascript function close window to close the popup and redirect the original page. here is the XML piece that defines the url's: <urls urlToUpload="upload.php?" urlOnUploadSuccess="http://www.home.com/purchase.html" urlOnUploadFail="http://www.home.com/tryagain.html" urlUpdateFlashPlayer="http://www.home.com/flashalternative.html" jsFunctionNameOnUpload=""/> This last line calls a javascript function on upload. The problem is I don't know what to call and where to put it. Here is the HTML file that is the popup: <HEAD> <title>Baublet Uploader</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="swfobject.js"></script> </HEAD> <BODY>  <div id="QImageUploader"> Flash Player stuff here </div> <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var so = new SWFObject("q_image_uploader.swf", "imageuploader", "650", "430", "9", "#FFFFFF"); so.addParam("scale", "noscale"); so.addParam("salign", "TL"); so.addVariable("AdditionalStringVariable","pass additional data here"); so.write("QImageUploader"); // ]]> </script> I found this Closing script I thought might work: <script language="javascript"> function close_window(page) { window.opener.location.href=page setTimeout(function(){window.close()},10); } </script> Does this go into the Popup HTML page above or would it be a separate close.js file in the root? Thanks, I'm really confused.

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PHP header redirection does nor reload <iframe> in IE

- by Marco Demaio

When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you migt have exeperienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advises about this. Thanks!

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Use localeURL middleware with apache prefix

- by Olivier R.

Good morning everyone, I Got a question about localeURL usage. Everything works great for me with url like this : www.mysite.com/ If I type www.mysite.com/ in adress bar, it turns correctly in www.mysite.com/en/ for example. If I use the view change_locale, it's also all right (ie change www.mysite.com/en/ in www.mysite.com/fr/). But my application use apache as server, and use a prefix for the site, that gives url like this : www.mysite.com/prefix/ If I type www.mysite.com/prefix/ in the adress bar, the adress turns into www.mysite.com/en/ without prefix (so 404) I change code of view to manage our settings.SERVER_PREFIX value : def change_locale(request) : """ Redirect to a given url while changing the locale in the path The url and the locale code need to be specified in the request parameters. O. Rochaix; Taken from localeURL view, and tuned to manage : - SERVER_PREFIX from settings.py """ next = request.REQUEST.get('next', None) if not next: next = request.META.get('HTTP_REFERER', None) if not next: next = settings.SERVER_PREFIX + '/' next = urlsplit(next).path prefix = False if settings.SERVER_PREFIX!="" and next.startswith(settings.SERVER_PREFIX) : prefix = True next = "/" + next.lstrip(settings.SERVER_PREFIX) _, path = utils.strip_path (next) if request.method == 'POST': locale = request.POST.get('locale', None) if locale and check_for_language(locale): path = utils.locale_path(path, locale) if prefix : path = settings.SERVER_PREFIX + path response = http.HttpResponseRedirect(path) return response with this customized view, i'm able to correctly change language, but i'm not sure that's the right way of doing stuff. Is there any option on localeURL to manage prefix of apache ?

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Should I have different models and views for no user data than for some user data?

- by Sam Holder

I'm just starting to learn asp.net mvc and I'm not sure what the right thing to do is. I have a user and a user has a collection of (0 or more) reminders. I have a controller for the user which gets the reminders for the currently logged in user from a reminder service. It populates a model which holds some information about the user and the collection of reminders. My question is should I have 2 different views, one for when there are no reminders and one for when there are some reminders? Or should I have 1 view which checks the number of reminders and displays different things? Having one view seems wrong as then I end up with code in my view which says if (Model.Reminders.Count==0){//do something} else {do something else}, and having logic in the view feels wrong. But if I want to have 2 different views then I'd like to have some code like this in my controller: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { var model = new EmptyReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName }; return View(model); } else { var model = new ReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName, Reminders = reminders }; return View(model); } but obviously this doesn't compile as the View can't take both different types. So if I'm going to do this should I return a specific named view from my controller, depending on the emptiness of the reminders, or should my Index() method redirect to other actions like so: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { return RedirectToAction("ShowEmptyReminders"); } else { return RedirectToAction("ShowReminders"); } } which seems nicer but then I need to re-query the reminders for the current user in the ShowReminders action. Or should I be doing something else entirely?

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How do I Unit Test Actions without Mocking that use UpdateModel?

- by Hellfire

I have been working my way through Scott Guthrie's excellent post on ASP.NET MVC Beta 1. In it he shows the improvements made to the UpdateModel method and how they improve unit testing. I have recreated a similar project however anytime I run a UnitTest that contains a call to UpdateModel I receive an ArgumentNullException naming the controllerContext parameter. Here's the relevant bits, starting with my model: public class Country { public Int32 ID { get; set; } public String Name { get; set; } public String Iso3166 { get; set; } } The controller action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Int32 id, FormCollection form) { using ( ModelBindingDataContext db = new ModelBindingDataContext() ) { Country country = db.Countries.Where(c => c.CountryID == id).SingleOrDefault(); try { UpdateModel(country, form); db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(country); } } } And finally my unit test that's failing: [TestMethod] public void Edit() { CountryController controller = new CountryController(); FormCollection form = new FormCollection(); form.Add("Name", "Canada"); form.Add("Iso3166", "CA"); var result = controller.Edit(2 /*Canada*/, form) as RedirectToRouteResult; Assert.IsNotNull(result, "Expected to be redirected on successful POST."); Assert.AreEqual("Show", result.RouteName, "Expected to redirect to the View action."); } ArgumentNullException is thrown by the call to UpdateModel with the message "Value cannot be null. Parameter name: controllerContext". I'm assuming that somewhere the UpdateModel requires the System.Web.Mvc.ControllerContext which isn't present during execution of the test. I'm also assuming that I'm doing something wrong somewhere and just need to pointed in the right direction. Help Please!

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Destroying nested resources in restful way

- by Alex

I'm looking for help destroying a nested resource in Merb. My current method seems near correct, but the controller raise an InternalServerError during the destruction of the nested object. Here comes all the details concerning the request, don't hesitate to ask for more :) Thanks, Alex I'm trying to destroy a nested resources using the following route in router.resources :events, Orga::Events do |event| event.resources :locations, Orga::Locations end Which gives in jQuery request (delete_ method is a implementation of $.ajax with "DELETE"): $.delete_("/events/123/locations/456"); In the Location controller side, I've got: def delete(id) @location = Location.get(id) raise NotFound unless @location if @location.destroy redirect url(:orga_locations) else raise InternalServerError end end And the log: merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Routed to: {"format"=>nil, "event_id"=>"123", "action"=>"destroy", "id"=>"456", "controller"=>"letsmotiv/locations"} merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Params: {"format"=>nil, "event_id"=>"123", "action"=>"destroy", "id"=>"456", "controller"=>"letsmotiv/locations"} ~ (0.000025) SELECT `id`, `class_type`, `name`, `prefix`, `type`, `capacity`, `handicap`, `export_name` FROM `entities` WHERE (`class_type` IN ('Location') AND `id` = 456) ORDER BY `id` LIMIT 1 ~ (0.000014) SELECT `id`, `streetname`, `phone`, `lat`, `lng`, `country_region_city_id`, `location_id`, `organisation_id` FROM `country_region_city_addresses` WHERE `location_id` = 456 ORDER BY `id` LIMIT 1 merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Merb::ControllerExceptions::InternalServerError - (Merb::ControllerExceptions::InternalServerError)

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Wildcard subdomain .htaccess and Codeigniter

- by Gautam

Hi All, I am trying to create the proper .htaccess that would allow me to map as such: http://domain.com/ --> http://domain.com/home http://domain.com/whatever --> http://domain.com/home/whatever http://user.domain.com/ --> http://domain.com/user http://user.domain.com/whatever --> http://domain.com/user/whatever/ Here, someone would type in the above URLs, however internally, it would be redirecting as if it were the URL on the right. Also the subdomain would be dynamic (that is, http://user.domain.com isn't an actual subdomain but would be a .htaccess rewrite) Also /home is my default controller so no subdomain would internally force it to /home controller and any paths following it (as shown in #2 example above) would be the (catch-all) function within that controller. Like wise if a subdomain is passed it would get passed as a (catch-all) controller along with any (catch-all) functions for it (as shown in #4 example above) Hopefully I'm not asking much here but I can't seem to figure out the proper .htaccess or routing rules (in Codeigniter) for this. httpd.conf and hosts are setup just fine. EDIT #1 Here's my .htaccess that is coming close but is messing up at some point: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([a-z0-9-]+).domain [NC] RewriteRule (.*) index.php/%1/$1 [QSA] RewriteCond $1 !^(index\.php|images|robots\.txt) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php/$1 [L,QSA] With the above, when I visit: http://test.domain/abc/123 this is what I notice in $_SERVER var (I've removed some of the fields): Array ( [REDIRECT_STATUS] => 200 [SERVER_NAME] => test.domain [REDIRECT_URL] => /abc/123 [QUERY_STRING] => [REQUEST_URI] => /abc/123 [SCRIPT_NAME] => /index.php [PATH_INFO] => /test/abc/123 [PATH_TRANSLATED] => redirect:\index.php\test\test\abc\123\abc\123 [PHP_SELF] => /index.php/test/abc/123 ) You can see the PATH_TRANSLATED is not properly being formed and I think that may be screwing things up?

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PHP Shopping Cart Script - When to empty cart?

- by john

Im working on a shopping cart script in php and need some advice on how to handle the final process. Once the customer has entered items into the cart, chosen shipping option, and then clicked the checkout button, they are then redirected to a paypal button which is dynamically generated using BMCreateButton. My question is, when is the best time to empty the customers cart? I have set up the auto return feature on paypal, which i was goin to use to then empty the cart, but its not very good as customers have to click a link in order to redirect. So should i empty it when they click the checkout button just before the dynamic button? I can also use these setting in php to prevent cach back button issues // Date in the past header("Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Always modified header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate("D, d M Y H:i:s") . " GMT"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); header("Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0", false); // HTTP/1.0 header("Pragma: no-cache"); What would to guys recommend? cheers.

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How to form submit and show a different page in ASP.Net MVC?

- by melaos

hi guys i'm new to asp.net mvc.. so basically i just build up a two page app which takes the registration information of the user and post it to the database. i use a lot of jquery and ajax calls to retrieve data from the database using linq to sql stored proc object. and currently i'm stuck at one page where after the user submits the form it should redirect him to /Home/AddProduct. What i found was the error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. what used on my form are basically a combination of html controls, asp.net controls and some asp.net mvc type controls. i submit the form using action="/Home/ProductAdded" and after doing some googling i found i was supposed to add in the machine key but after doing so, the index page becomes unviewable. because it couldn't find the index file now. removing the action helps, but now it just doesn't go anywhere. so what am i missing here? i feel i'm missing a lot of fundamentals understanding about asp.net mvc and i don't even know how to submit a form and go to a different page here!!

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Where does Tomcat append / to directory paths?

- by Anonymouse

Suppose my Tomcat webapps directory looks like this: webapps/ webapps/fooapp/ webapps/fooapp/WEB-INF/ webapps/fooapp/WEB-INF/web.xml webapps/fooapp/bardir/ When I make a GET request for /fooapp/bardir, Tomcat sees that webapps/fooapp/bardir is a directory and sends back a 302 to /fooapp/bardir/ (with a slash at the end). Here is my question: Where in the Tomcat source code does this take place? (I'm looking at 6.0.x but a correct answer for any version would be a great starting point.) The only reference material I can find on this subject is in the Catalina Functional Specifications which states, regarding the Default Servlet: On each HTTP GET request processed by this servlet, the following processing shall be performed: [...] If the requested resource is a directory: If the request path does not end with "/", redirect to a corresponding path with "/" appended so that relative references in welcome files are resolved correctly. However, this functionality does not appear to be in org.apache.catalina.servlets.DefaultServlet; or at least, it's not there exclusively: if I replace the default servlet in web.xml with a servlet whose servlet-class does not exist, directory paths still come back 302 to add the slash, while every other request comes back with an error as expected.

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Putting CAPTCHAs on their own page?

- by mnemosyn

We need to put a captcha image on our ASP.NET MVC 2 based website. We chose reCaptcha and built it in using the way described by Derik Whittaker. The idea there is baiscally to build some abstractions and all you need to do is decorate your Controller with a [ValidateCaptcha] attribute. This works all fine. However, we have a lot of form-widgets in different pages and I don't want to have the captcha floating around everywhere. So I'd like to implement it the way StackOverflow does: Submit a Form -> Challenge Captcha -> Submit Captcha -> Perform Action on original form data. Now, how do I redirect the user to the captcha page while keeping the originally submitted information? I thought of some very ugly hacks (hidden fields w/ base64 encoded form data, etc.) but I think I'm missing something obvious. On the other hand, this sounds as if I wanted to do something in a stateful manner, and I shouldn't?

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What can be a cookie? How to set with OUTPUT? RETURNVALUE?

- by Ronnie Chester Lynwood

hello. i think i got some problems with setting a cookie data. for this code: Set cmdDB = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmdDB .ActiveConnection = ADOConM .CommandText = "usp_jaljava_member_select" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("RETURN_VALUE", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 0) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TLoginName", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,lcase(TLoginName)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPassword", adVarChar, adParamInput, 20,TPassword) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@retval", adVarChar, adParamOutput, 50) ' .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPinCode", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,TPinCode) .Execute,,adExecuteNoRecords RetVal = .Parameters("@retval") Ret = Trim(.Parameters("RETURN_VALUE")) 'Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With Set cmdDB = Nothing UTid = RetVal if Ret = 100 then deleteInvalidLogin(TLoginName) SetDomainCookie "UTid",UTid SetDomainCookie "Uid", TLoginName if redirect_domain <> "" then Response.Write "<form name=frm action=" & urlserver & " method=post><input type=hidden name=loginname value='" & TLoginName & "'><input type=hidden name=id value=""" & Request.Cookies("UTID") & """></form><script>frm.submit();</script>" Response.End else%> <% Response.Redirect ("kologin.asp?id=OK") Response.End end if RETURN_VALUE is returns as 100. But I don't know.. UTID! What is UTID have to be? If I set UTID same as UID will it work? thanks..

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Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

- by Bob

I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

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Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

- by Bob

I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue?

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CakePHP: email validate action doesn't work when clicking on the email link

- by bakerjr

Hi, We've created the email validation part of our site. We built the site using CakePHP BTW. The problem is that it doesn't work when we click on the link in the email. The email is sent as plain text. A weird thing is that when we paste the link on the address bar, it works. Also when clicking on the link using Gmail and desktop email clients, it works as well. Other email providers doesn't work. EDIT: Additional info: Example link for the validation: http://localhost/users/validate/validatecodeblah12c023 When it's working it should login the user and redirect to the user dashboard. It goes to the front page when it's not working (see description above). Additional info 2: I did compare the results using Live HTTP headers and I found out that the only time it doesn't push through (goes to the login page for some reason) is when there's a 'Referrer: h ttp://mail.yahooblahblah...' Gmail for some reason doesn't have a 'Referer' line in it's headers.

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SecurityNegotiationException in WCF Service Hosted on IIS

- by Ram

Hi, I have hosted a WCF service on IIS. The configuration file is as follows <?xml version="1.0"?>  <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="system.web.extensions" type="System.Web.Configuration.SystemWebExtensionsSectionGroup, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <sectionGroup name="scripting" type="System.Web.Configuration.ScriptingSectionGroup, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <section name="scriptResourceHandler" type="System.Web.Configuration.ScriptingScriptResourceHandlerSection, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" requirePermission="false" allowDefinition="MachineToApplication"/> <sectionGroup name="webServices" type="System.Web.Configuration.ScriptingWebServicesSectionGroup, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <section name="jsonSerialization" type="System.Web.Configuration.ScriptingJsonSerializationSection, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" requirePermission="false" allowDefinition="Everywhere" /> <section name="profileService" type="System.Web.Configuration.ScriptingProfileServiceSection, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" requirePermission="false" allowDefinition="MachineToApplication" /> <section name="authenticationService" type="System.Web.Configuration.ScriptingAuthenticationServiceSection, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" requirePermission="false" allowDefinition="MachineToApplication" /> <section name="roleService" type="System.Web.Configuration.ScriptingRoleServiceSection, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" requirePermission="false" allowDefinition="MachineToApplication" /> </sectionGroup> </sectionGroup> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <appSettings/> <connectionStrings/> <system.web>  <compilation debug="false"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Core, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089"/> <add assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </assemblies> </compilation>  <authentication mode="Windows" />  <pages> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> <httpHandlers> <remove verb="*" path="*.asmx"/> <add verb="*" path="*.asmx" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" validate="false"/> </httpHandlers> <httpModules> <add name="ScriptModule" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </httpModules> </system.web> <system.codedom> <compilers> <compiler language="c#;cs;csharp" extension=".cs" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> </compilers> </system.codedom> <system.web.extensions> <scripting> <webServices>    </webServices>  </scripting> </system.web.extensions>  <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <add name="ScriptModule" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </modules> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated"/> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add name="ScriptResource" preCondition="integratedMode" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </handlers> </system.webServer> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="IISTest2.Service1" behaviorConfiguration="IISTest2.Service1Behavior">  <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="IISTest2.IService1">  <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="IISTest2.Service1Behavior">  <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/>  <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> The client configuration file is as follows <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="WSHttpBinding_IService1" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" transactionFlow="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" useDefaultWebProxy="true" allowCookies="false"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:10:00" enabled="false" /> <security mode="Message"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" negotiateServiceCredential="true" algorithmSuite="Default" establishSecurityContext="true" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://yyy.zzz.xxx.net/IISTest2/Service1.svc" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IService1" contract="ServTest.IService1" name="WSHttpBinding_IService1"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> When I tried to access the service from client application, I got SecurityNegotiationException and details are Secure channel cannot be opened because security negotiation with the remote endpoint has failed. This may be due to absent or incorrectly specified EndpointIdentity in the EndpointAddress used to create the channel. Please verify the EndpointIdentity specified or implied by the EndpointAddress correctly identifies the remote endpoint. If I host the service on ASP .NET Dev server, it work well but if I host on IIS above mentioned error occurs. Thanks, Ram

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Form Based Authentication problem?

- by programmerist

i have 2 pages : Login.aspx and Satis.aspx. i redirected from Login.aspx to Satis.aspx if authentication is correct . if i signout from satis i redirected to Login.aspx. But if i write satis.aspx' url on web scanner i entered satis.aspx. But i am not sign in Satis.aspx. i should't enter Satis.aspx directly. my web config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="Login.aspx" name=".ASPXFORMSAUTH" path="/" protection="All"> <credentials> <user name="a" password="a"></user> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="~/ContentPages/Satis/Satis.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> Login.aspx.cs: protected void lnkSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(FormsAuthentication.Authenticate(UserEmail.Value,UserPass.Value)) { FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage (UserEmail.Value, PersistForms.Checked); } else Msg.Text = "Invalid Credentials: Please try again"; } Satis.aspx protected void LogoutSystem_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { FormsAuthentication.SignOut(); Response.Redirect("~/Login/Login.aspx"); }

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How test that ASP.NET MVC route redirects to other site?

- by Matt Lacey

Due to a prinitng error in some promotional material I have a site that is receiving a lot of requests which should be for one site arriving at another. i.e. The valid sites are http://site1.com/abc & http://site2.com/def but people are being told to go to http://site1.com/def. I have control over site1 but not site2. site1 contains logic for checking that the first part of the route is valid in an actionfilter, like this: public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); if ((!filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey("id")) || (!manager.WhiteLabelExists(filterContext.ActionParameters["id"].ToString()))) { if (filterContext.ActionParameters["id"].ToString().ToLowerInvariant().Equals("def")) { filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Redirect("http://site2.com/def", true); } filterContext.Result = new ViewResult { ViewName = "NoWhiteLabel" }; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } I'm not sure how to test the redirection to the other site though. I already have tests for redirecting to "NoWhiteLabel" using the MvcContrib Test Helpers, but these aren't able to handle (as far as I can see) this situation. How do I test the redirection to antoher site?

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window.location.href not working in Safari when using onkeypress

- by insanepaul

I'm using an asp textbox and a search button. In Safari if I click the search button i get redirected to the search results page using javascript window.location.href. But strangely the same javascript will not redirect to the page if I press return in the textbox. Using the alert function I can see that window.location.href has the the correct url and the location bar at the top changes from the search page(default.aspx) to the search results url however when I click OK to the alert box the url at the top reverts back to the default.aspx page. It works on ie7/8/firefox/chrome but not safari. Here is my javascript,cs and aspx code: function submitSearchOnEnter(e) { var CodeForEnter = 13; var codeEnteredByUser; if (!e) var e = window.event; if (e.keyCode) codeEnteredByUser = e.keyCode; else if (e.which) codeEnteredByUser = e.which; if (codeEnteredByUser == CodeForEnter) RedirectToSearchPage(); } function RedirectToSearchPage() { var searchText = $get('<%=txtHeaderSearch.ClientID%>').value if (searchText.length) { window.location.href = "Search.aspx?searchString=" + searchText; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { txtHeaderSearch.Attributes.Add("onkeypress", "submitSearchOnEnter(event)"); } <asp:Panel ID="pnlSearch" runat="server" DefaultButton="lnkSearch"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtHeaderSearch" runat="server" CssClass="searchBox"></asp:TextBox> <asp:LinkButton ID="lnkSearch" OnClientClick="RedirectToSearchPage(); return false;" CausesValidation="false" runat="server" CssClass="searchButton"> SEARCH </asp:LinkButton> </asp:Panel> I've tried return false; which doesn't allow me to enter any characters in the search box. I've spent ages online trying to find a solution. Maybe it has something to do with setTimeout or setTimeInterval but it didn't work unless i did it wrong.

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Does mod_php honor HEAD requests properly?

- by rkulla

The HTTP/1.1 RFC stipulates "The HEAD method is identical to GET except that the server MUST NOT return a message-body in the response." I know Apache honors the RFC but modules don't have to. My question is, does mod_php5 honor this? The reason I ask is because I just came across an article saying that PHP developers should check this themselves with: if (stripos($_SERVER['REQUEST_METHOD'], 'HEAD') !== FALSE) { exit(); } but seeing as how browsers send HEAD requests for cache checking it seems unlikely to me that no book, docs, etc., advise PHP developers to do this check. I googled a second and not much turned up, other than some people saying they try to strange things like mod_rewrite/redirect after getting HEAD requests and some old bug ticket from like 2002 claiming that mod_php still executed the rest of the script by default. So I just ran a quick test by using PECL::HTTP to run http_head('http://mysite.com/test-head-request.php'); while having: <?php error_log('REST OF SCRIPT STILL RAN'); ?> in test-head-request.php to see if the rest of the script still executed, and it didn't. I figure that should be enough to settle it, but want to get more feedback and maybe help clear up confusion for anyone else who has wondered about this. So if anyone knows off the top of their head (no pun intended) - or have any conventions they use for receiving HEAD requests, that'd be great. Otherwise, I'll grep the C source later and respond in a comment with my findings. Thanks.

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how to know which response data is associated with its requested url (using RollingCurl.php) ?

- by Ken

I am writing a web application that grabs the http response headers from multiple sites (with RollingCurl.php) then stores it in an array and at the end outputs it in json format. Since some sites do redirects to new locations, $info (array) in “request_callback” function always has an url ($info[‘url’]) where the requested url was redirect.to, and it’s quite expected. But how to put a requested url in $info ($info[‘requested_url’]) and to know which $info (response data) is associated with its requested url? $urls = array( ‘http://google.com’, ‘http://microsoft.com’ // more urls here ); $json = array(); if ( $urls ) { $rc = new RollingCurl("request_callback"); $rc->window_size = 20; foreach ($urls as $url) { $request = new Request($url); $rc->add($request); } $rc->execute(); echo json_encode($json); } function request_callback($response, $info) { global $json; $json['status'][] = $info; } from RollingCurl.php: // send the return values to the callback function. $callback = $this->callback; if (is_callable($callback)){ $info[‘requested_url’] = ??? // How to put requested url here??? call_user_func($callback, $output, $info); }

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Load image dynamically on Silverlight

- by FelixMM

I have a Silverlight app that has to load an image dynamically, depending on the image name. The approach that im taking right now is passing the image name by query string to the page and passing that as a param to the Silverlight objet tag This is the query string passed Response.Redirect("Build.aspx?img=" + this.PictureUploader.PostedFile.FileName; And I try to pass it to Silverlight like this: <object id="SilverlightObject" data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="Silverlight/iMapsSL.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40624.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <param name="image" value="<%# Request.QueryString["img"] %>" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40624.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe> in the last param tag with name=image value= Requerst.QueryString I catch the image inside the Silverlight app like this private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { string pictureName = ""; if (e.InitParams != null && e.InitParams.Count > 0) { pictureName = e.InitParams["image"]; this.RootVisual = new MainPage(pictureName); } else { this.RootVisual = new MainPage(); } } And when MainPage starts, I set the image source of the Image control like this this.Image.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(pictureName, UriKind.RelativeOrAbsolute)); But Silverlight loads without an image, any help someone?

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Simple imeplementation of admin/staff panel?

- by Michael Mao

Hi all: A new project requires a simple panel(page) for admin and staff members that : Preferably will not use SSL or any digital ceritification stuff, a simple login from via http will just be fine. has basic authentication which allows only admin to login as admin, and any staff member as of the group "staff". Ideally, the "credentials(username-hashedpassword pair)" will be stored in MySQL. is simple to configure if there is a package, or the strategy is simple to code. somewhere (PHP session?) somehow (include a script at the beginning of each page to check user group before doing anything?), it will detect any invalid user attempt to access protected page and redirect him/her to the login form. while still keeps high quality in security, something I worry about the most. Frankly I am having little knowledge about Internet security, and how modern CMS such as WordPress/Joomla do with their implementation in this. I only have one thing in my mind that I need to use a salt to hash the password (SHA1?) to make sure any hacker gets the username and password pair across the net cannot use that to log into the system. And that is what the client wants to make sure. But I really not sure where to start, any ideas? Thanks a lot in advance.

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