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  • How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Jiho Han
    I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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  • Fixing up an entity framework query

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • jquery block UI malfunction on ajax loading event

    - by Ygam
    problem: trigger errored when block UI is called on this code (function($){ function preloader() { $('a#preloader').click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var url = base_url + 'runtest/preloader'; $('div#content').load(url, preloaderCallback); }); } function remotePreload() { $('a#remotepreload').click(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var object = $(this); object.data('clicked', 'yes'); var url = base_url + 'runtest/remote_preloader'; $('div#content').load(url); }); } /* * callback functions */ function preloaderCallback() { $('div.imageholder img').hide(); $('div.imageholder img').each(function(){ var img = new Image(); var sursa = $(this).attr('src'); var parent = $(this).parent(); var preloaderSource = '<img src="' + base_url + 'media/images/preloader.gif' + '" alt="loader"/>'; parent.append(preloaderSource); $(img).load(function(){ parent.append($(this)); $(this).hide().fadeIn(500); $(this).siblings().remove(); }).attr('src', sursa); }); } function blocker() { $('#content').block(); } function handlePageLoad() { $('a#remotepreload').ajaxStart(function(e){ var elem = $(e.target); if (elem.data('clicked') == 'yes') { // error when blocker() function is called here alert('Started'); } }); $('a#remotepreload').ajaxComplete(function(e){ var elem = $(e.target); if (elem.data('clicked') == 'yes') { elem.removeData('clicked'); alert('Ended'); } }); } // call onready functions $(function(){ preloader(); remotePreload();handlePageLoad(); }); })(jQuery); // here's the error from firefox's debugger uncaught exception: [Exception... "Could not convert JavaScript argument arg 0" nsresult: "0x80570009 (NS_ERROR_XPC_BAD_CONVERT_JS)" location: "JS frame :: http://localhost/testsuite/media/js/jquery.min.js :: anonymous :: line 115" data: no] here's the html markup <div id="wrap"> <div id="header"> <?= $header ?> </div> <div id="content"> <?= $content ?> </div> <div id="sidebar"> <?= $sidebar ?> </div> <div id="footer"> <?= $footer ?> </div> </div> EDIT I was using Jquery 1.4.1 when this happened. Switched back to 1.3 and everything went back to normal.

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  • Weird IIS with Windows Authentication + IE problem

    - by Paulius Maruška
    Hello. I have a website running on IIS and using Windows Authentication. All users that are configured to get access to the site are form a AD domain (not local users). In the properties of a Website, I have set to use the AD domain as the realm. Now, when using Firefox, Safari or Chrome - Everything is fine. When the user tries to open the site, he get's the login box. he enters simply "username" and "password" (let's pretend that it's an actual login and password :P) and he get's into the site. When using IE, however, things get nasty. When the user tries to open the site - he get's the login box. User enters the "username" and "password" again, but those get rejected! And when the second time login box pops up - it has the username filled in as "web-server-domain-name\username" which is wrong, because web-server-domain-name is not the domain where all users reside (it's "ad-domain"). I've spent days trying to figure out what's going on... Note, that if I manually enter "ad-domain\username" - I get accepted into the site without problems. So, my guess is that IE sends wrong username if domain is not specified. Anyway, IE is the only browser that triggers this behavior! Is it possible to do a server-side fix? Maybe it's possible to somehow auto-map the users to AD users? If it's not solvable server-side - is there a client-side fix for this? Thank you. PS: I'm more of a programmer than a sys-admin, so configuring servers isn't the strong side of mine... :P UPDATE: @Evan: Yes, "Digest authentication for Windows domain servers" is also enabled. @Eric: IIS version is 6.0. The authentication methods enabled are: Integrated and digest - all other methods are disabled. As for the security log. I looked at it, when doing "username" and "password" login in Chrome/Firefox and when doing "ad-domain\username" and "password" login from IE - the generated log messages are the same (I see no difference, anyway). When entering "username" and "password" I don't see any errors in the security (or any other) log, so can't tell what method it's trying to use. UPDATE 2: As suggested by Eric in the comments - I played around with Fiddler... While playing with it, I noticed, that when "username" and "password" is entered in FF and IE - the "Authorization" header value (encrypted) sent by IE is longer (almost two times) than one sent by FF. I tried to disable Windows Integrated authentication and only leave the Digest enabled - that fixed the problem (meaning, IE used the right realm just like other browsers), but that caused bazillion other problems with my site, because with Digest - user impersonation on the server doesn't work (that causes problems, when connecting to database etc). Any ideas?

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  • "Error 1067: The process terminated unexpectedly" when trying to install MySQL on Win7 x64.

    - by Gravitas
    Hi, I've run into a brick wall trying to install MySQL v5.5 on my machine. My PC is Windows 7 x64, Enterprise edition. MySQL installs fine, but when I run the "MySQL Instance Configuration Wizard", it pauses forever on the step "Start Service" (I can let it run for 30 minutes with no response). If I go into services, I see that the "MySQL" service hasn't started, and if I try to start it, it says "Windows could not start MySQL Service on Local Computer. Error 1067: The process terminated unexpectedly." I've tried the following: Turning off firewall. Uninstalling all antivirus software. Installing / reinstalling 32-bit version of MySQL. Installing / reinstalling 64-bit version of MySQL. Uninstalling, deleting the contents of "C:\program files\MySQL" and "C:\program files (x86)\MySQL", reinstalling. Checking to see that there is no rogue services named MySQL???? (from a previous install). Checking that port 3306 is not used by an alternate program. Changing the default port that MySQL uses. Checking for "my.ini" and "my.ini.cnf" in "C:\windows" (nothing there but that can cause a problem). Running both MySQL installer, and configuration wizard, in "Adminstrator mode". Turning off UAC. Installing with defaults, not changing anything. Rebooting my machine (about 6 reboots so far). Opening up port 3306 in the firewall (both TCP and UDP, inbound and outbound). Swearing at the klutz of a programmer who designed MySQL so you can't even install it (as if that would help!) My machine is working 100% in every other way. InfiniDB (a MySQL compatible database) installs 100%, as does Visual Studio 2010, Microsoft SQL Server, etc, etc. Your advice on how to work around this? p.s. Here is the screen it got stuck on for 15 minutes until I killed the process: Update 2010-12-20 Tried MySQL v5.1, it didn't work either. Its amazing - if you type "mysqld /?", or "mysqld -help", it doesn't give you any help. And, if you try to restart the service manually, it doesn't display any error messages. Could it be any more unhelpful? Update 2010-12-21 Installed MySQL 6.0 alpha, and it worked. However, I'd rather not use an alpha release, given that the "stable" release is anything but :( Update 2010-12-21 Found http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.1/en/windows-troubleshooting.html, dealing with troubleshooting under Windows. Discovered that you can generate an error log if the service doesn't start - see here: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.1/en/error-log.html

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  • LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

    - by Mike G
    I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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  • UAE and the mysteries of unreachable websites

    - by 0plus1
    I write here because I'm really lost, please stay with me because it's not easy to explain. A company asked me to set-up a private server, now I'm a programmer so I got a solution with technical support and cpanel which helped me to setup everything and it's working smoothless. I'm by no means a professional sysadmin, but I have a fair knowledge of server configurations, but this problem is way over my knowledge, and apparently way over the knowledge of most sysadmins, I really hope that here I'll find someone with enough experience to help me or at least give me more insight. Now this company for which I'm consulting operates in the UAE (United Arab Emirates) and from there the server is almost unreachable. It started with ns not registering in the UAE, after a week that sorted itself out and now the site is indeed reachable, but it takes almost 2 minutes to load a webpage with one line of text. Emails go in timeout. The domain currently parked there has been bought appositely for tests, the main one that was supposed to go there, after a catastrophic week has been transferred to a shared hosting solution in the UK, and from there it works like a charme. Now after doing some research I discovered that I'm not alone in this, there are several reports of webmasters discovering that their website is not reachable inside the UAE, and mind this has nothing to do with the state-wide block of questionable sites, because in that case an error message appears, this seems to be related to the infrastructure of the UAE, which apparently reroutes everything through their own "fake" internet. Apparently new servers with their own IP are not recognized (yet?) by the UAE infrastructure, while shared hosting solutions seeing that they operates tons of other websites are more likely to be part of the UAE network. Now my questions are: 1) Has someone a real explanation for this? The only thing I can think of is that the server is on a new IP that is not yet recognized by the UAE, but that doesn't explain why it loads (even if after 2 minutes). I don't have any help from within the UAE as the only people that are "experts" are questionable companies that simply try to sell their own services. 2) If there is really some kind of block of new servers, is it possible to know before if a server is reachable from within the UAE, currently this is not a ns problem as even accessing the server with its IP result in a 2 minute wait. 3) Can it be that the problem lies somewhere else? There are some tests that I can perform? I'm not physically in the UAE, but I can ask the people there, or use teamviewer. Could it be some misconfiguration on the server (mind that the site works EVERYWHERE else in the world). Thank you for ANY kind of help

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  • WMS authentication plugin

    - by roul
    Hi, I'm trying to create a custom authentication plugin for WMS 2009 in C#. I managed to implement something that for some reason blocks all requests... [ComVisible(true)] [Guid("C0A0B38C-C4FE-43B5-BE9E-C100A83BBCEE")] public class AuthenticationPlugin : IWMSBasicPlugin, IWMSAuthenticationPlugin, IWMSAuthenticationContext private const string SubKey = "SOFTWARE\\Microsoft\\Windows Media\\Server\\RegisteredPlugins\\Authentication\\{C0A0B38C-C4FE-43B5-BE9E-C100A83BBCEE}"; [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterFunction(Type t) { try { RegistryKey regHKLM = Registry.LocalMachine; regHKLM = regHKLM.CreateSubKey(SubKey); regHKLM.SetValue(null, "UC WMS Authentication plugin"); RegistryKey regHKCR = Registry.ClassesRoot; regHKCR = regHKCR.CreateSubKey("CLSID\\{C0A0B38C-C4FE-43B5-BE9E-C100A83BBCEE}\\Properties"); regHKCR.SetValue("Name", CustomC WMS Authentication plugin"); regHKCR.SetValue("Author", "Me"); regHKCR.SetValue("CopyRight", "Copyright 2009. All rights reserved"); regHKCR.SetValue("Description", "Enables custom WMS authentication"); } catch (Exception error) { Console.WriteLine(error.Message, "Inside RegisterFunction(). Cannot Register."); } } [ComUnregisterFunction] public static void UnRegisterFunction(Type t) { try { RegistryKey regHKLM = Registry.LocalMachine; regHKLM.DeleteSubKey(SubKey); RegistryKey regHKCR = Registry.ClassesRoot; regHKCR.DeleteSubKeyTree("CLSID\\{C0A0B38C-C4FE-43B5-BE9E-C100A83BBCEE}"); regHKCR.DeleteSubKeyTree("CSEventTest.CSEventPlugin"); } catch (Exception error) { Console.WriteLine(error.Message, "Cannot delete a subkey."); } } #region IWMSBasicPlugin Members public void InitializePlugin(IWMSContext serverContext, WMSNamedValues namedValues, IWMSClassObject classFactory) { } public void ShutdownPlugin() { } public void EnablePlugin(ref int flags, ref int heartbeatPeriod) { } public void DisablePlugin() { } public object GetCustomAdminInterface() { return null; } public void OnHeartbeat() { } #endregion #region IWMSAuthenticationPlugin Members public IWMSAuthenticationContext CreateAuthenticationContext() { return (IWMSAuthenticationContext)this; } public int GetFlags() { return Convert.ToInt32(WMS_AUTHENTICATION_FLAGS.WMS_AUTHENTICATION_ANONYMOUS, CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); } public string GetPackageName() { return "Custom WMS Authentication"; } public string GetProtocolName() { return "Basic"; } #endregion #region IWMSAuthenticationContext Members public void Authenticate(object responseBlob, IWMSContext userContext, IWMSContext presentationContext, IWMSCommandContext commandContext, IWMSAuthenticationCallback callBack, object context) { callBack.OnAuthenticateComplete(WMS_AUTHENTICATION_RESULT.WMS_AUTHENTICATION_SUCCESS, null, context); } public IWMSAuthenticationPlugin GetAuthenticationPlugin() { return (IWMSAuthenticationPlugin)this; } public string GetImpersonationAccountName() { return String.Empty; } public int GetImpersonationToken() { return 0; } public string GetLogicalUserID() { return this.GetImpersonationAccountName(); } #endregion } Can anyone spot why this is happening? Also, is there any way I could have a look at the code for the standard Anonymous Authentication plugin already installed on the server? Is it in an assembly somewhere? Thanks.

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  • Weird IIS with Windows Authentication + IE problem

    - by Paulius Maruška
    I have a website running on IIS and using Windows Authentication. All users that are configured to get access to the site are form a AD domain (not local users). In the properties of a Website, I have set to use the AD domain as the realm. Now, when using Firefox, Safari or Chrome - Everything is fine. When the user tries to open the site, he get's the login box. he enters simply "username" and "password" (let's pretend that it's an actual login and password :P) and he get's into the site. When using IE, however, things get nasty. When the user tries to open the site - he get's the login box. User enters the "username" and "password" again, but those get rejected! And when the second time login box pops up - it has the username filled in as "web-server-domain-name\username" which is wrong, because web-server-domain-name is not the domain where all users reside (it's "ad-domain"). I've spent days trying to figure out what's going on... Note, that if I manually enter "ad-domain\username" - I get accepted into the site without problems. So, my guess is that IE sends wrong username if domain is not specified. Anyway, IE is the only browser that triggers this behavior! Is it possible to do a server-side fix? Maybe it's possible to somehow auto-map the users to AD users? If it's not solvable server-side - is there a client-side fix for this? Thank you. PS: I'm more of a programmer than a sys-admin, so configuring servers isn't the strong side of mine... :P UPDATE: @Evan: Yes, "Digest authentication for Windows domain servers" is also enabled. @Eric: IIS version is 6.0. The authentication methods enabled are: Integrated and digest - all other methods are disabled. As for the security log. I looked at it, when doing "username" and "password" login in Chrome/Firefox and when doing "ad-domain\username" and "password" login from IE - the generated log messages are the same (I see no difference, anyway). When entering "username" and "password" I don't see any errors in the security (or any other) log, so can't tell what method it's trying to use. UPDATE 2: As suggested by Eric in the comments - I played around with Fiddler... While playing with it, I noticed, that when "username" and "password" is entered in FF and IE - the "Authorization" header value (encrypted) sent by IE is longer (almost two times) than one sent by FF. I tried to disable Windows Integrated authentication and only leave the Digest enabled - that fixed the problem (meaning, IE used the right realm just like other browsers), but that caused bazillion other problems with my site, because with Digest - user impersonation on the server doesn't work (that causes problems, when connecting to database etc). Any ideas?

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  • Random Computer Crashes

    - by Josh W.
    Ok, here's a wierd one for you all. Occasionally my PC here at work will crash in a very peculiar way. My dual monitors will suddenly go blank as if there is no longer a video signal, the USB mouse light will go dark and mouse stays unresponsive, the keyboard lights will not change status when the appropriate keys are pressed (Num/Caps/Scoll Lock). The CD Tray WILL open and close. But the computer will not respond to a ping request. For all intents & purposes it's as if the computer is off, except it wasn't intentional by me. The power light and internal fans are still on and I've now lost any unsaved work. Now here's where it gets wierd. This PC is part of a batch of PC's we got from a local vendor who does our initial system builds. Mine, and 6 other co-workers PCs all have the same issue. Originally we thought it was a bad combination of hardware, but through trial and error the only thing we haven't eliminated are the OS, Mobo & CPU. The problem was so bad for some of them that they ended up going back to their 5 year old dinosaurs in order to get some work done, for me the problem isn't as bad, maybe once every other day or so, but still enough to bite me in the ass if I've forgotten my ritualistic pressing of CTRL-S every 1-5 minutes. In this case we've tried two different video cards, two different power supplies, two different memory configurations, running on a UPS/not on UPS, updating/rolling back video drivers, three different bios revisions. The only things we haven't swapped are the mobo & cpu, mainly because a new mobo means a new Hardware Abstraction Layer, ie re-install of windows and there's alot of other software on this PC that takes forever to reload by hand. There was a base image that our systems team created with all the drivers installed and the basic setup of software our company uses, but they then must customize the setup for us programmers so it takes a while to get a new configuration up and going. I'm a programmer by day and am usually pretty good at diagnosing computer problems whether through trial and error or not. We've pretty much exhausted all the ideas we can think of here, short of a new mobo/cpu. Was hoping someone out there might have anything else we can try.. Relevant Parts: OS: XP Pro 32-bit Motherboard: Intel DG41RQ CPU: Intel Core-2 Quad Q9400 @ 2.66GHz Current BIOS Version/Date Intel Corp. RQG4110H.86A.0014.2010.0306.1151, 3/6/2010 Dual LCD's, Viewsonic VG930m & Samsung SyncMaster 910v (other people have different models, but listed in case there's some very wierd problem with the signals being sent/received) PS/2 Keyboard USB Microsoft Intellimouse BIOS Versions Tried: R 0013 12/23/2009 R 0014 3/6/2010 Video cards Tried GeForce 8400 GS Radeon HD 4350 - ASUS EAH4350 Two Different Power Supplies a 380W & 550W Ram Configurations 2GB - 1 x 2GB 4GB - 2 x 2GB

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  • How to set up a file server in a restricted corporate environment

    - by Emilio M Bumachar
    I work in a big corporation, and the disk space my team gets in the corporate file server is so low, I am considering turning my work PC into a file server. I ask this community for links to tutorials, software suggestions, and advice in general about how to set it up. My machine is an Intel Core2Duo E7500 @ 3GHz, 3 GB of RAM, Running Windows XP Service Pack 3. Upgrading, formatting or installing another OS is out of the question. But I do have Administrator priviledges on the PC, and I can install programs (at least for now). A lot of security software I don't even know about is and must remain installed. But I only need communication whithin the corporate network, which is not restricted. People have usernames (logins) on the corporate network, and I need to use them to restrict access. Simply put, I have a list of logins of team members, and only people in the list should access the files. I have about 150 GB of free disk space. I'm thinking of allocating 100 GB to the team's shared files. I plan monthly backups on machines of co-workers, same configuration. But automation of backups is a nice, unnecessary feature: it's totally acceptable for me to manually copy the contents to a different machine once a month. Uptime is important, as everyone would use these files in their daily work. I have experience as a python and C programmer, but no experience whatsoever as a sysadmin, and almost nothing of my programming experience is network programming. I'm a complete beginner in this. Thanks in advance for any help. EDIT I honestly appreciate all the warnings, I really do, but what I plan to make available is mostly stuff that now is solely on DVDs just for space reasons. It's 'daily work' to read them, but 'daily work write' files will remain on the corporate server. As for the importance of uptime, I think I overstated it: a few outages are OK, it's already an improvement over getting the DVDs. As for policy, my manager is kind of on my side, I will confirm that before making my move. As for getting more space through the proper channels, well, that was Plan A, and it's still on the table... But I don't have much hope. I'm not as "core businees" as I'd like.

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  • How do I (robustly) remotely execute tasks on Windows workstations in a domain?

    - by Zac B
    I'm not even sure if "robustly" is a word. Anyway. Context: We have a few hundred Windows 7 workstations on a LAN. We use AD/GPO management pretty heavily, but there are a lot of periodic and/or manual maintenance tasks we need to do that can't be done via GPO/scheduled task. For example, say I want to execute program X (which runs silently, in the background, and doesn't bother the user) on workstation Y, or say I want to execute task A on a workstation group B either on a schedule or on demand. Kicking the users off of their computers to do this (i.e. using RDP) is a no-no, and doesn't work on groups anyway. Question: What's the best way to do this that is robust enough that, after setup, I could give it to beginner support people (read: people who are phobic of the command line, and get confused with GUI interfaces more complicated than Firefox)? I'm a competent programmer, and, if there is a robust set of tools or framework out there for this type of task, I'd consider hacking something together myself if it didn't take too long. If there's some combination of tools or techniques that others use to make remote-workstation-administration doable by beginners, I have yet to find it. For those who care about the "why": I'm midlevel IT, and was told to implement a remote management solution that allows arbitrary/scheduled remote execution, with confirmation that programs actually ran remotely, and the ability to view what they returned. "Why?" I asked, "Can't I just use PsExec and the task scheduler on a dispatcher machine?" "No," I was told, "'Joe' the second-week tech is going to be in charge of this one, and he needs something simple with a GUI." What I've tried: I've played with making a bunch of one-clickable "transfer files to remote computer and run them with PsExec" batch/VB scrips, but those tend to break down and don't easily support running on customizable groups. I've played a little bit with the Windows version of Puppet, but it doesn't support arbitrary-time remote execution (it's ability to group computers into a tree/node structure is really nice though). I've used an older version of Altiris, and, while it does a lot of what I want, it's interface is awful, it's slow, crashes a lot, and is probably too expensive for management. SwiftWater's DMS solution does some of what I want, but it's very underdeveloped, closed-source (not a deal breaker but not ideal), and I get the impression that support and reliability are lacking.

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  • Linq query challenge - can this be done?

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • Why did Intel drop the Itanium?

    - by Cole Johnson
    I was reading up on the history of the computer and I came along the IA-64 (Itanium) processors. They sounded really interesting and I was confused as to why Intel would decide to drop them. The ability to choose explicitly what 2 instructions you wanted to run in that cycle is a great idea, especially when writing your program in assembly, for example, a faster bootloader. The hundreds of registers should be convincing for any assembly programmer. You could essentially store all the functions variables in the registers if it doesn't call any other ones. The ability to do instructions like this: (qp) xor r1 = r2, r3 ; r1 = r2 XOR r3 (qp) xor r1 = (imm8), r3 ; r1 = (imm8) XOR r3 versus having to do: ; eax = r1 ; ebx = r2 ; ecx = r3 mov eax, ebx ; first put r2 into r1 xor eax, ecx ; then set r1 equivalent to r2 XOR r3 or ; SAME mov eax, (imm32) ; first put (imm32) into r1 xor eax, ecx ; then set r1 equivalent to (imm32) XOR r3 I heard it was because of no backwards x86 comparability, but couldn't thy be fixed by just adding the Pentium circuitry to it and just add a processor flag that would switch it to Itanium mode (like switching to Protected or Long mode) All the great things about it would have surly put them a giant leap ahead of AMD. Any ideas? Sadly this means you will need a very advanced compiler to do this. Or even one per specific model of the CPU. (E.g. a newer version of the Itanium with an extra feature would require different compiler). When I was working on a WinForms (target only had .NET 2.0) project in Visual Studio 2010, I had a compile target of IA-64. That means that there is a .NET runtime that was able to be compiled for IA-64 and a .NET runtime means Windows. Plus, Hamilton's answer mentions Windows NT. Having a full blown OS like Windows NT means that there is a compiler capable of generating IA-64 machine code.

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  • UNIX Question to b answered??? [closed]

    - by Nits
    Create a tree structure named ‘training’ in which there are 3 subdirectories – ‘level 1’,’ level2’ and ‘cep’. Each one is again further divided into 3. The ‘level 1’ is divided into ‘sdp’, ‘re’ and ‘se’. From the subdirectory ‘se’ how can one reach the home directory in one step and also how to navigate to the subdirectory ‘sdp’ in one step? Give the commands, which do the above actions? How will you copy a directory structure dir1 to dir2 ? (with all the subdirectories) How can you find out if you have the permission to send a message? Find the space occupied ( in Bytes) by the /home directory including all its subdirectories. What is the command for printing the current time in 24-hour format? What is the command for printing the year, month, and date with a horizontal tab between the fields? Create the following files: chapa, chapb, chapc, chapd, chape, chapA, chapB, chapC, chapD, chapE, chap01, chap02, chap03, chap04, chap05, chap11, chap12, chap13, chap14, and chap15. With reference to question 7, What is the command for listing all files ending in small letters? With reference to question 7, What is the command for listing all files ending in capitals? With reference to question 7, What is the command for listing all files whose last but one character is 0? With reference to question 7, What is the command for listing all files which end in small letters but not ‘a’ and ‘c’? In an organisation one wants to know how many programmers are there. The employee data is stored in a file called ‘personnel’ with one record per employee. Every record has field for designation. How can grep be used for this purpose? In the organisation mentioned in question 12 how can sed be used to print only the records of all employees who are programmers. In the organisation mentioned in question 12 how can sed be used to change the designation ‘programmer’ to ‘software professional’ every where in the ‘personnel’ file Find out about the sleep command and start five jobs in the background, each one sleeping for 10 minutes. How do you get the status of all the processes running on the system? i.e. using what option?

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  • Creating multiple heads in remote repository

    - by Jab
    We are looking to move our team (~10 developers) from SVN to mercurial. We are trying to figure out how to manage our workflow. In particular, we are trying to see if creating remote heads is the right solution. We currently have a very large repository with multiple, related projects. They share a lot of code, but pieces of the project are deployed by different teams (3 teams) independent of other portions of the code-base. So each team is working on concurrent large features. The way we currently handles this in SVN are branches. Team1 has a branch for Feature1, same deal for the other teams. When Team1 finishes their change, it gets merged into the trunk and deployed out. The other teams follow suite when their project is complete, merging of course. So my initial thought are using Named Branches for these situations. Team1 makes a Feature1 branch off of the default branch in Hg. Now, here is the question. Should the team PUSH that branch, in it's current/half-state to the repository. This will create a second head in the core repo. My initial reaction was "NO!" as it seems like a bad idea. Handling multiple heads on our repository just sounds awful, but there are some advantages... First, the teams want to setup Continuous Integration to build this branch during their development cycle(months long). This will only work if the CI can pull this branch from the repo. This is something we do now with SVN, copy a CI build and change the branch. Easy. Second, it makes it easier for any team member to jump onto the branch and start working. Without pushing to the core repo, they would have to receive a push from a developer on that team with the changeset information. It is also possible to lose local commits to hardware failure. The chances increase a lot if it's a branch by a single developer who has followed the "don't push until finished" approach. And lastly is just for ease of use. The developers can easily just commit and push on their branch at any time without consequence(as they do today, in their SVN branches). Is there a better way to handle this scenario that I may be missing? I just want a veteran's opinion before moving forward with the strategy. For bug fixes we like the general workflow of mecurial, anonymous branches that only consist of 1-2 commits. The simplicity is great for those cases. By the way, I've read this , great article which seems to favor Named branches.

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  • Best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using LINQ-to-SQL

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO: public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although I feel that returning IQueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches: First approach public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the DataContext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { List<RoleDTO> roleDTO = new List<RoleDTO>(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } } Please let me know, if there is a better approach.

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  • RDP exits immediately after connecting to Windows Server 2008 R2

    - by carpat
    Background: I recently got a Windows cloud VPS server. I don't have much experience with server admin (I'm a programmer), and what little I do have is with linux servers. Ever since getting the server I've been having issues with RDP. I can connect about two or three times, after which point I can't connect until one of the tech guys "fixes" it (see below). When I connect, I can stay connected for hours with no problem. When the problem connecting starts, the first time I try to log in, the remote desktop window pops up, starts connecting, and then exits with "Your Remote Desktop session has ended". After that, for about 10-20 minutes if I try to connect again, the connections times out with Remote Desktop can't connect to the computer for one of these reasons: 1) Remote access on the server is not enabled 2) The remote computer is turned off 3) The remote computer is not available on the network then goes back to connecting once and immediately disconnecting. All of the updates are installed. The firewall has been correctly configured to let RDP traffic through. The remote setting is "Allow connections from computers running any version of Remote Desktop". I tried creating a second user, and when I can't connect, I can't connect to that user either. I've tried both soft and hard reboots, neither of which help. I've tried connecting from two different computers (both running Windows 7) from two different networks (work and home), and the behavior is the same. Everything else on the server continues to run fine (IIS-served http pages, Tomcat-served java pages, svn, ping). The "fix" that the tech guys supply is simply logging into the console on their end, after which point I can connnect 2 or 3 times again. The event viewer on the server has "authentication failure" (or something similar) events generated when I attempt to log in and can't. I can't get to the actual event at the moment as I'm currently in the can't connect stage, and waiting for the techs to log in. But when I searched for the event earlier this morning I couldn't find anything useful. Can anyone help?

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  • Losing session after Login - Java

    - by Patrick Villela
    I'm building an application that needs to login to a certain page and make a navigation. I can login, provided that the response contains a string that identifies it. But, when I navigate to the second page, I can't see the page as a logged user, only as anonymous. I'll provide my code. import java.net.*; import java.security.*; import java.security.cert.*; import javax.net.ssl.*; import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class PostTest { static HttpsURLConnection conn = null; private static class DefaultTrustManager implements X509TrustManager { @Override public void checkClientTrusted(X509Certificate[] arg0, String arg1) throws CertificateException {} @Override public void checkServerTrusted(X509Certificate[] arg0, String arg1) throws CertificateException {} @Override public X509Certificate[] getAcceptedIssuers() { return null; } } public static void main(String[] args) { try { SSLContext ctx = SSLContext.getInstance("TLS"); ctx.init(new KeyManager[0], new TrustManager[] {new DefaultTrustManager()}, new SecureRandom()); SSLContext.setDefault(ctx); String data = URLEncoder.encode("txtUserName", "UTF-8") + "=" + URLEncoder.encode(/*username*/, "UTF-8"); data += "&" + URLEncoder.encode("txtPassword", "UTF-8") + "=" + URLEncoder.encode(/*password*/", "UTF-8"); data += "&" + URLEncoder.encode("envia", "UTF-8") + "=" + URLEncoder.encode("1", "UTF-8"); connectToSSL(/*login url*/); conn.setDoOutput(true); OutputStreamWriter wr = new OutputStreamWriter(conn.getOutputStream()); wr.write(data); wr.flush(); BufferedReader rd = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); String line; String resposta = ""; while((line = rd.readLine()) != null) { resposta += line + "\n"; } System.out.println("valid login -> " + resposta.contains(/*string that assures me I'm looged in*/)); connectToSSL(/*first navigation page*/); rd = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(conn.getInputStream())); while((line = rd.readLine()) != null) { System.out.println(line); } } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } private static void connectToSSL(String address) { try { URL url = new URL(address); conn = (HttpsURLConnection) url.openConnection(); conn.setHostnameVerifier(new HostnameVerifier() { @Override public boolean verify(String arg0, SSLSession arg1) { return true; } }); } catch(Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } } Any further information, just ask. Thanks in advance.

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  • Configuring a html page from an original demo page

    - by Wold
    I forked into rainyday.js through github, an awesome javascript program made by maroslaw at this link: https://github.com/maroslaw/rainyday.js. Basically I tried taking his demo page and my own photo city.jpg and changed the applicable fields so that I could run it on my own site, but only the picture loads and the script itself doesn't start to run. I'm pretty new to html and javascript so I'm probably omitting something very simple, but here is the script for the demo code: <script src="rainyday.js"></script> <script> function getURLParameter(name) { return decodeURIComponent((new RegExp('[?|&]' + name + '=' + '([^&;]+?)(&|#|;|$)').exec(location.search)||[,''])[1].replace(/\+/g, '%20'))||null; } function demo() { var image = document.getElementById('background'); image.onload = function () { var engine = null; var preset = getURLParameter('preset') || '1'; if (preset === '1') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.rain([ [1, 2, 8000] ]); engine.rain([ [3, 3, 0.88], [5, 5, 0.9], [6, 2, 1] ], 100); } else if (preset === '2') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.VARIABLE_GRAVITY_ANGLE = Math.PI / 8; engine.rain([ [0, 2, 0.5], [4, 4, 1] ], 50); } else if (preset === '3') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.trail = engine.TRAIL_SMUDGE; engine.rain([ [0, 2, 0.5], [4, 4, 1] ], 100); } }; image.crossOrigin = 'anonymous'; if (getURLParameter('imgur')) { image.src = 'http://i.imgur.com/' + getURLParameter('imgur') + '.jpg'; } else if (getURLParameter('img')) { image.src = getURLParameter('img') + '.jpg'; } var youtube = getURLParameter('youtube'); if (youtube) { var div = document.getElementById('sound'); var player = document.createElement('iframe'); player.frameborder = '0'; player.height = '1'; player.width = '1'; player.src = 'https://youtube.com/embed/' + youtube + '?autoplay=1&controls=0&showinfo=0&autohide=1&loop=1'; div.appendChild(player); } } </script> This is where I am naming my background and specifying the photo from within the directory. <body onload="demo();"> <div id="sound" style="z-index: -1;"></div> <div id="parent"> <img id='background' alt="background" src="city.jpg" /> </div> </body> The actual code for the whole entire rainyday.js script can be found here: https://github.com/maroslaw/rainyday.js/blob/master/rainyday.js Thanks in advance for any help and advice!

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  • Minutia on Objective-C Categories and Extensions.

    - by Matt Wilding
    I learned something new while trying to figure out why my readwrite property declared in a private Category wasn't generating a setter. It was because my Category was named: // .m @interface MyClass (private) @property (readwrite, copy) NSArray* myProperty; @end Changing it to: // .m @interface MyClass () @property (readwrite, copy) NSArray* myProperty; @end and my setter is synthesized. I now know that Class Extension is not just another name for an anonymous Category. Leaving a Category unnamed causes it to morph into a different beast: one that now gives compile-time method implementation enforcement and allows you to add ivars. I now understand the general philosophies underlying each of these: Categories are generally used to add methods to any class at runtime, and Class Extensions are generally used to enforce private API implementation and add ivars. I accept this. But there are trifles that confuse me. First, at a hight level: Why differentiate like this? These concepts seem like similar ideas that can't decide if they are the same, or different concepts. If they are the same, I would expect the exact same things to be possible using a Category with no name as is with a named Category (which they are not). If they are different, (which they are) I would expect a greater syntactical disparity between the two. It seems odd to say, "Oh, by the way, to implement a Class Extension, just write a Category, but leave out the name. It magically changes." Second, on the topic of compile time enforcement: If you can't add properties in a named Category, why does doing so convince the compiler that you did just that? To clarify, I'll illustrate with my example. I can declare a readonly property in the header file: // .h @interface MyClass : NSObject @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end Now, I want to head over to the implementation file and give myself private readwrite access to the property. If I do it correctly: // .m @interface MyClass () @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end I get a warning when I don't synthesize, and when I do, I can set the property and everything is peachy. But, frustratingly, if I happen to be slightly misguided about the difference between Category and Class Extension and I try: // .m @interface MyClass (private) @property (readonly, copy) NSString* myString; @end The compiler is completely pacified into thinking that the property is readwrite. I get no warning, and not even the nice compile error "Object cannot be set - either readonly property or no setter found" upon setting myString that I would had I not declared the readwrite property in the Category. I just get the "Does not respond to selector" exception at runtime. If adding ivars and properties is not supported by (named) Categories, is it too much to ask that the compiler play by the same rules? Am I missing some grand design philosophy?

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  • I get an `Cannot read property 'slice' of undefined` message when I use the scrollTo jQuery plugin inside this function

    - by alexchenco
    I'm using the jQuery scrollTo plugin. I get this error in my JS Console: 16827Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'slice' of undefined d.fn.scrollToindex.html.js:16827 jQuery.extend.eachindex.html.js:662 d.fn.scrollToindex.html.js:16827 jQuery.extend.eachindex.html.js:662 jQuery.fn.jQuery.eachindex.html.js:276 d.fn.scrollToindex.html.js:16827 popupPlaceindex.html.js:18034 (anonymous function)index.html.js:17745 jQuery.extend._Deferred.deferred.resolveWithindex.html.js:1018 doneindex.html.js:7247 jQuery.ajaxTransport.send.script.onload.script.onreadystatechange When I place $(".menu").scrollTo( $("li.matched").attr("id"), 800 ); inside it. function popupPlace(dict) { $popup = $('div#dish-popup'); $popup.render(dict,window.dishPopupTemplate); if(typeof(dict.dish) === 'undefined') { $popup.addClass('place-only'); } else { $popup.removeClass('place-only'); } var $place = $('div#dish-popup div.place'); var place_id = dict.place._id; if(liked[place_id]) { $place.addClass('liked'); } else { $place.removeClass('liked'); } if(dict.place.likes) { $place.addClass('has-likes'); } else { $place.addClass('zero-likes'); } var tokens = window.currentSearchTermTokens; var tokenRegex = tokens && new RegExp($.map(tokens, RegExp.escape).join('|'), 'gi'); $.each(dict.place.products, function(n, product) { $product = $('#menu-item-'+product.id); if(liked[place_id+'/'+product.id]) { $product.addClass('liked'); } if(tokens && matchesDish(product, tokens)) { $product.addClass('matched'); $product.highlight(tokenRegex); } else { $product.removeClass('matched'); $product.removeHighlight(); } if(product.likes) { $product.addClass('has-likes'); } else { $product.addClass('zero-likes'); } }); $('#overlay').show(); $('#dish-popup-container').show(); // Scroll to matched dish //$("a#scrolll").attr("href", "#" + $("li.matched").attr("id")); //$("a#scrolll").attr("href", "#" + $("li.matched").attr("id")); //$("a#scrolll").trigger("click"); $(".menu").scrollTo( $("li.matched").attr("id"), 800 ); // Hide dish results on mobile devices to prevent having a blank space at the bottom of the site if (Modernizr.mq('only screen and (max-width: 640px)')) { $('ol.results').hide(); } $(".close-dish-popup").click(function() { $("#overlay").hide(); $("#dish-popup-container").hide(); $('ol.results').show(); changeState({}, ['dish', 'place', 'serp']); }); showPopupMap(dict.place, "dish-popup-map"); } Any suggestion to fix this?

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  • Is it a good or bad practice to call instance methods from a java constructor?

    - by Steve
    There are several different ways I can initialize complex objects (with injected dependencies and required set-up of injected members), are all seem reasonable, but have various advantages and disadvantages. I'll give a concrete example: final class MyClass { private final Dependency dependency; @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { this.dependency = dependency; dependency.addHandler(new Handler() { @Override void handle(int foo) { MyClass.this.doSomething(foo); } }); doSomething(0); } private void doSomething(int foo) { dependency.doSomethingElse(foo+1); } } As you can see, the constructor does 3 things, including calling an instance method. I've been told that calling instance methods from a constructor is unsafe because it circumvents the compiler's checks for uninitialized members. I.e. I could have called doSomething(0) before setting this.dependency, which would have compiled but not worked. What is the best way to refactor this? Make doSomething static and pass in the dependency explicitly? In my actual case I have three instance methods and three member fields that all depend on one another, so this seems like a lot of extra boilerplate to make all three of these static. Move the addHandler and doSomething into an @Inject public void init() method. While use with Guice will be transparent, it requires any manual construction to be sure to call init() or else the object won't be fully-functional if someone forgets. Also, this exposes more of the API, both of which seem like bad ideas. Wrap a nested class to keep the dependency to make sure it behaves properly without exposing additional API:class DependencyManager { private final Dependency dependency; public DependecyManager(Dependency dependency) { ... } public doSomething(int foo) { ... } } @Inject public MyClass(Dependency dependency) { DependencyManager manager = new DependencyManager(dependency); manager.doSomething(0); } This pulls instance methods out of all constructors, but generates an extra layer of classes, and when I already had inner and anonymous classes (e.g. that handler) it can become confusing - when I tried this I was told to move the DependencyManager to a separate file, which is also distasteful because it's now multiple files to do a single thing. So what is the preferred way to deal with this sort of situation?

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  • windows 7 virtual wireless adapter keeps going to sleep

    - by conners
    Just a quick question that I can't see mentioned anywhere online. I have a Windows 7 box configured like these guys recommend http://www.itgeekdiary.com/windows-7-as-an-wi-fi-access-point/ simply so that I can have my Windows 7 box as a wifi access point or a wifi emitter. It's also called a Microsoft Virtual WiFi Miniport Adapter. But it powers off and shuts down automatically and stops working. Basically everything works as intended and then - well -it will stopped working when I am not at the Windows 7 PC for a long time. The problem seems to be that every time my PC goes to "power save / sleep" and in the morning the Windows 7 machine "wakes" but blooming heck the wifi has stopped and you have to power cycle the PC (which is very uncool). When I power Cycle I have to do the following as administrator C:\Windows\System32\netsh.exe wlan start hostednetwork I then tried a gazllion things involving services and power management and eventually discovered that if I run the following commands as administrator it will be ok (for a bit) but every 3rd ot 4th time I try this "trick" it simply fails. the trick that seems to work 3 out of 4 times (i.e. "most" of the time) C:\Windows\System32\netsh.exe wlan stop hostednetwork C:\Windows\System32\netsh.exe wlan start hostednetwork But why does this only work "some" of the time? What else I did by myself: on every manage adapter properties (that relates to the wifi) I right clicked [configure] [power management] /disabled/ "allow the computer to power off to save power" <- this made no difference Also (and this is a bit annoying) there is no system tray app/GUI for the Microsoft Virtual WiFi Miniport Adapter output signal ... none... so (lame as it sounds) the ONLY way I can check if it's on is to physically go to another device and SCAN.. lame so my question can probably be solved by any of the following: a) can I stop Windows 7 sleeping this wifi when the machine sleeps b) can I force Windows to force wake this process on wake? if so how? c) what is the service / process REALLY called and how do I restart it if it crashes d) how can I flush the wifi properly rather power cycle the host machine e) anyone have a link to an program or app that can sit in the system tray that shows windows 7 wifi hotspot emission status (on/off/etc etc) Since I am a programmer I can easily write a vbs script / windows exe to fix this (and I will share this solution) and the gui problem if I can work out the actual service that is running that netsh stops/starts

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  • How does the CLR (.NET) internally allocate and pass around custom value types (structs)?

    - by stakx
    Question: Do all CLR value types, including user-defined structs, live on the evaluation stack exclusively, meaning that they will never need to be reclaimed by the garbage-collector, or are there cases where they are garbage-collected? Background: I have previously asked a question on SO about the impact that a fluent interface has on the runtime performance of a .NET application. I was particuarly worried that creating a large number of very short-lived temporary objects would negatively affect runtime performance through more frequent garbage-collection. Now it has occured to me that if I declared those temporary objects' types as struct (ie. as user-defined value types) instead of class, the garbage collector might not be involved at all if it turns out that all value types live exclusively on the evaluation stack. What I've found out so far: I did a brief experiment to see what the differences are in the CIL generated for user-defined value types and reference types. This is my C# code: struct SomeValueType { public int X; } class SomeReferenceType { public int X; } . . static void TryValueType(SomeValueType vt) { ... } static void TryReferenceType(SomeReferenceType rt) { ... } . . var vt = new SomeValueType { X = 1 }; var rt = new SomeReferenceType { X = 2 }; TryValueType(vt); TryReferenceType(rt); And this is the CIL generated for the last four lines of code: .locals init ( [0] valuetype SomeValueType vt, [1] class SomeReferenceType rt, [2] valuetype SomeValueType <>g__initLocal0, // [3] class SomeReferenceType <>g__initLocal1, // why are these generated? [4] valuetype SomeValueType CS$0$0000 // ) L_0000: ldloca.s CS$0$0000 L_0002: initobj SomeValueType // no newobj required, instance already allocated L_0008: ldloc.s CS$0$0000 L_000a: stloc.2 L_000b: ldloca.s <>g__initLocal0 L_000d: ldc.i4.1 L_000e: stfld int32 SomeValueType::X L_0013: ldloc.2 L_0014: stloc.0 L_0015: newobj instance void SomeReferenceType::.ctor() L_001a: stloc.3 L_001b: ldloc.3 L_001c: ldc.i4.2 L_001d: stfld int32 SomeReferenceType::X L_0022: ldloc.3 L_0023: stloc.1 L_0024: ldloc.0 L_0025: call void Program::TryValueType(valuetype SomeValueType) L_002a: ldloc.1 L_002b: call void Program::TryReferenceType(class SomeReferenceType) What I cannot figure out from this code is this: Where are all those local variables mentioned in the .locals block allocated? How are they allocated? How are they freed? Why are so many anonymous local variables needed and copied to-and-fro only to initialize my two local variables rt and vt?

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