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  • What's the topmost iframe in the same domain?

    - by Jakob Stoeck
    How can I get the topmost iframe which is in the same domain, i.e. iframe level 1 example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 3 example.org <-- would give me iframe level 1 iframe level 1 other-example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 3 example.org <-- would give me iframe level 2 iframe level 1 other-example.org iframe level 2 example.org iframe level 2 example.org <-- would give me iframe level 2 (this) I need it because I have a website which should work in an iframe of another domain and stand-alone. In this website there are scripts which depend on window.top which shouldn't be top but the topmost iframe in the same domain.

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  • Map a domain to an MVC area

    - by Simon_Weaver
    Anybody got any experience in mapping a domain to an MVC area? Here's our situation: Old system (still active but will soon redirect to new store): www.example.com - our main site where we send traffic store.example.com - our store site which is a completely separate site that is indexed in google New system: www.example.com - same site as before www.example.com/store - new store site - built in an ASP.NET MVC area Because store is a separate domain google gives it a separate entry in the search results. I'd like to keep this benefit in future but wondering whether or not there is a good way to map a domain (store.example.com) to the MVC area or if its just going to be more trouble than its worth. PS. I'm not trying to keep existing indexing - its a completely separate store so thats not possible. I just want to redirect to the corresponding page in the new store. I'm just trying not to lose the benefit of two domains for SEO purposes.

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  • translating specifications into query predicates

    - by Jeroen
    I'm trying to find a nice and elegant way to query database content based on DDD "specifications". In domain driven design, a specification is used to check if some object, also known as the candidate, is compliant to a (domain specific) requirement. For example, the specification 'IsTaskDone' goes like: class IsTaskDone extends Specification<Task> { boolean isSatisfiedBy(Task candidate) { return candidate.isDone(); } } The above specification can be used for many purposes, e.g. it can be used to validate if a task has been completed, or to filter all completed tasks from a collection. However, I want to re-use this, nice, domain related specification to query on the database. Of course, the easiest solution would be to retrieve all entities of our desired type from the database, and filter that list in-memory by looping and removing non-matching entities. But clearly that would not be optimal for performance, especially when the entity count in our db increases. Proposal So my idea is to create a 'ConversionManager' that translates my specification into a persistence technique specific criteria, think of the JPA predicate class. The services looks as follows: public interface JpaSpecificationConversionManager { <T> Predicate getPredicateFor(Specification<T> specification, Root<T> root, CriteriaQuery<?> cq, CriteriaBuilder cb); JpaSpecificationConversionManager registerConverter(JpaSpecificationConverter<?, ?> converter); } By using our manager, the users can register their own conversion logic, isolating the domain related specification from persistence specific logic. To minimize the configuration of our manager, I want to use annotations on my converter classes, allowing the manager to automatically register those converters. JPA repository implementations could then use my manager, via dependency injection, to offer a find by specification method. Providing a find by specification should drastically reduce the number of methods on our repository interface. In theory, this all sounds decent, but I feel like I'm missing something critical. What do you guys think of my proposal, does it comply to the DDD way of thinking? Or is there already a framework that does something identical to what I just described?

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  • Access VBA remove CR & LF only from the beginning of a text string by searching for them

    - by uZI
    Hi there I need to remove line breaks from the beginning of a memo type records. I dont want to use the replace function as it would remove all line breaks from the record which is not desired. Its only the line breaks at the beginning of the field that I am interested in removing. Furthermore, the my records do not always begin with a line break so I cant really use text positioning, the solution would be to look for line break at the beginning instead of always expecting it at the beginning. click here for a sample of what my data looks like any help will be greatly appreciated

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  • What ASP.NET Web Config entries could limit certain file access by date and time?

    - by Dr. Zim
    What entries in a web.config could allow certain files to become publicly accessible after a certain date and time? Specifically, we have these files starting with AB_.jpg where the _ could be anything. We put them in a folder on April 27th for example, but they shouldn't be accessible until April 30th at 11:59:59 PM. I think the web.config in part works like Unix's FTP .htaccess file to define file security. For example, this web.config entry allows directory browsing: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configuration> <system.webServer> <directoryBrowse enabled="true" /> </system.webServer> </configuration>

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  • How do I correctly use two Not Exists statements in a where clause using Access SQL VBA?

    - by Bryan
    I have 3 Tables: NotHeard,analyzed,analyzed2. In each of these tables I have two columns named UnitID and Address. What I'm trying to do right now is to select all of the records for the columns UnitID and Address from NotHeard that don't appear in either analyzed or analyzed2. The SQL statement I created was as follows: SELECT UnitID, Address INTO [NotHeardByEither] FROM [NotHeard] Where NOT EXISTS( Select analyzed.UnitID FROM analyzed WHERE [NotHeard].UnitID = analyzed.UnitID) or NOT EXISTS( Select analyzed2.UnitID FROM analyzed2 WHERE [NotHeard].UnitID = analyzed2.UnitID) Group BY UnitID, Address I thought this would work since I've used the single NOT EXISTS subquery line and it has worked just fine for me in the past. The above query however returns the same data that is in the NotHeard table whereas if I take out the or NOT EXISTS part it works correctly. Any ideas as to what I'm doing wrong or how to do what I'm wanting to do?

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  • After MS Access Conversion 97 --> 2002 I get 'Enter Parameter Value' when exitting a form.

    - by user270370
    Hi, So when I exit a form from my newly converted .mdb it asks to Enter Parameter Value. It goes through (ie if i enter a value, it asks for another) the values required for a query that is run on a List Box on the page. The query has not been changed during the conversion. The values it is getting for the query are from text boxes on the same form. There are a few Requeries in the form (run from VB) so I imagine that it is rerunning again on Exit (although this isnt explicit in the form properties). I'm not quite sure how to go about solving this. Your help would be great. Thanks

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  • MS Access ADODB.recordset character limit is 2036!? Can this be increased?

    - by souper-dragon
    In the following AccessVBA code, I am trying to write a record to a memo field called "Recipient_Display": oRec1.Fields("RECIPIENT_DISPLAY") = Left(sRecipientDisplayNames, Len(sRecipientDisplayNames) - 2) When the string contains 2036 characters, the write completes. Above this number I get the following error: Run-time error'-2147217887(80040e21)': Could not update; currently locked by another session on this machine. What is the significance of this number 2036 and is there a property I can adjust that will allow the above update to take place?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Url Masking/Rewriting

    - by Dan Appleyard
    Let us say I have a url of subdomain.domain.com. Is there a way in ASP.NET MVC to have a url of say otherdomain.com/gotothesubdomain that takes you to subdomain.domain.com? I know that a simple redirect could do it, but I want the url to stay as otherdomain.com/gotothesubdomain. Any advice would be greatly appreciated and thanks!

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  • Access sql server without directly permission in domain from ASP.NET

    - by Yongwei Xing
    Hi all Here is the situation. All the machines and users are in the same domain.We are in a domain enviroment. There are some sql server 2005/2008 storing data. There is a ASP.NET site in the domain using the Window Authentication. Now, we need read the data from the sql server and display them using SqlDataSource and GridView. But most of users do not have the direct permission to access the database. Is there any solution to get the data from database and display them on the site without granting users permission? Best Regards,

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  • Entity Framework 4 with Existing Domain Model

    - by ace
    Hi, Im currently looking at migrating from fluent nHibernate to ADO.Net Entity Framework 4. I have a project containing the domain model (pocos) which I was using for nHibernate mappings. Ive read in blogs that it is possible to use my existing domain model with EF4 but ive seen no examples of it. Ive seen examples of T4 code generation with EF4 but havent come accross an example which shows how to use existing domain model objects with EF4. Im a newby with EF4 and would like to see some samples on how to get this done. Thanks Aiyaz

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  • RewriteRule - Doesn't work on live site - subfolder to new domain

    - by eb_Dev
    I have the following rule on my local dev site and it works fine: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^localhost$ RewriteRule ^subdomains/example.com(.*) http://www.example.com$1 [R=301,L] However when I change it to: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ RewriteRule ^subdomains/example.com(.*) http://www.example.com$1 [R=301,L] and upload it to my live site it doesn't work, if i change the rule to: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ RewriteRule ^subdomains/(.*) http://www.example.com$1 [R=301,L] the rule functions as expected and directs an url beginning with www.domain.com/subdomains/ to www.example.com/. Does anyone know what is going on here? Thanks for you help.

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  • Using htaccess redirect all files to another domain but exclude the root domain.

    - by Shawn
    Recently, I want to restructure and redesign my website, my old website located at www.example.com, there are lots of blog posts under this domain, like: www.example.com/post1 www.example.com/post2 www.example.com/post3 ... I can redirect all those posts to another sub domain points in another folder (not sub folder), (if I put all those posts in a sub folder, it will recursive the subfolder name) , anyway, it works for me by using the code below: RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://pre.example.com/$1 [L,R=301] But there is one things I want to do is not redirect the main domain, only all the posts. RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/blog/ # the new blog # I tried below #RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/$ #RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^www.example.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://pre.example.com/$1 [L,R=301] Is it possible I can do that? Thx.

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  • Domain object validation vs view model validation

    - by Brendan Vogt
    I am using ASP.NET MVC 3 and I am using FluentValidation to validate my view models. I am just a little concerned that I might not be on the correct track. As far as what I know, model validation should be done on the domain object. Now with MVC you might have multiple view models that are similar that needs validation. What happens if a property from a domain object occurs in more than one view model? Now you are validating the same property twice, and they might not even be in sync. So if I have a User domain object then I would like to do validation on this object. Now what happens if I have UserAViewModel and UserBViewModel, so now it is multiple validations that needs to be done. The scenario above is just an example, so please don't critise on it.

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  • How to refer to a text in an Ms Access table?

    - by manuel
    I want to refer to a data cell, which if it is equals to some string, it will do something. The codes: If ds.Tables(0).Rows(i)("Status") = "Reserved" Then MessageBox.Show("Can't reserve") End If Is this the correct way to do this? Because I failed doing so..

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  • Weblogic 10.3 domain unpacking problem

    - by MarkoU
    Hi, I'm trying to unpack a Weblogic 10.3 domain on one of our production servers (SunOS 5.10), but get the following error: $ /opt/bea10/wlserver_10.3/common/bin/unpack.sh -template=/tmp/CM.jar -domain=/opt/bea10/user_projects/CM Error: failed to create the temporary script file Assuming that this is a priviledge problem: where actually the unpack utility tries to create its temporary script files? The unpack script calls a Java class com.bea.plateng.domain.script.Unpacker, so reading the script itself does not reveal the location. I need to ask the sysadmin for the priviledges, so an exact directory location is needed. Of course, the error message is so vague that this might also be some other issue. Any ideas? BR, Marko P.S. Sorry for cross-posting. I tried this question also on Serverfault but got no replies. Perhaps programmers (like myself) do this kind of stuff anyway.

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  • Getting all pdf files from a domain (for example *.adomain.com)

    - by Zack
    I need to download all pdf files from a certain domain. There are about 6000 pdf on that domain and most of them don't have an html link (either they have removed the link or they never put one in the first place). I know there are about 6000 files because I'm googling: filetype:pdf site:*.adomain.com However, Google lists only the first 1000 results. I believe there are two ways to achieve this: a) Use Google. However, how I can get all 6000 results from Google? Maybe a scraper? (tried scroogle, no luck) b) Skip Google and search directly on domain for pdf files. How do I do that when most them are not linked?

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  • Passing JS variable from child Iframe to parent JSP on cross sub domain

    - by Tarun
    I am stuck at 1 location and need some help. I created two subdomains on apache tomcat server like domain1.localhost.com and domain2.localhost.com in server.xml. On domain1 I have a JSP that includes iFrame (hosted on domain2). How can we pass the JS variable from child Iframe to parent JSP and store it in local variable of JSP hosted on domain1.localhost.com? I tried defining document.domain = "localhost" on both JSP but didn't work. Even parent DOM window is also not available in child iFrame (on sub-domain) because of obvious cross domain policies. Any help would be highly appreciated.

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  • When does logic belong in the Business Object/Entity, and when does it belong in a Service?

    - by Casey
    In trying to understand Domain Driven Design I keep returning to a question that I can't seem to definitively answer. How do you determine what logic belongs to a Domain entity, and what logic belongs to a Domain Service? Example: We have an Order class for an online store. This class is an entity and an aggregate root (it contains OrderItems). Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Public Order(List<IOrderItem>) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> } Public Decimal CalculateTotalItemWeight() //This logic seems to belong in the entity. { Decimal TotalWeight = 0 foreach(IOrderItem OrderItem in OrderItems) { TotalWeight += OrderItem.Weight } return TotalWeight } } I think most people would agree that CalculateTotalItemWeight belongs on the entity. However, at some point we have to ship this order to the customer. To accomplish this we need to do two things: 1) Determine the postage rate necessary to ship this order. 2) Print a shipping label after determining the postage rate. Both of these actions will require dependencies that are outside the Order entity, such as an external webservice to retrieve postage rates. How should we accomplish these two things? I see a few options: 1) Code the logic directly in the domain entity, like CalculateTotalItemWeight. We then call: Order.GetPostageRate Order.PrintLabel 2) Put the logic in a service that accepts IOrder. We then call: PostageService.GetPostageRate(Order) PrintService.PrintLabel(Order) 3) Create a class for each action that operates on an Order, and pass an instance of that class to the Order through Constructor Injection (this is a variation of option 1 but allows reuse of the RateRetriever and LabelPrinter classes): Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Private RateRetriever _Retriever Private LabelPrinter _Printer Public Order(List<IOrderItem>, RateRetriever Retriever, LabelPrinter Printer) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> _Retriever = Retriever _Printer = Printer } Public Decimal GetPostageRate { _Retriever.GetPostageRate(this) } Public void PrintLabel { _Printer.PrintLabel(this) } } Which one of these methods do you choose for this logic, if any? What is the reasoning behind your choice? Most importantly, is there a set of guidelines that led you to your choice?

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  • Moving .JS files to a CDN: How to manage AJAX requests?

    - by pagewil
    I am thinking of moving my static .JS files to a CDN such as Amazon S3 for performance reasons. As my PHP files and mySQL DB remain on my primary hosting domain what is the best way to manage my JS AJAX requests if they are now cross domain? Currently they look like this within my .JS file (with relative paths): $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/myNearbyPhpFile.php", data: {data:someData}, success: function($r){} });

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  • C++: Is there a way to limit access to certain methods to certain classes without exposing other pri

    - by dadads
    I have a class with a protected method Zig::punt() and I only want it to be accessible to the class "Avocado". In C++, you'll normally do this using the "friend Avocado" specifier, but this will cause all of the other variables to become accessible to "Avocado" class; I don't want this because this breaks encapsulation. Is what I want impossible, or does there already exist an obscure trick out there that I can use to achieve what I want? Or possibly alternative class design patterns that'll achieve the same thing? Thanks in advance for any ideas!

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  • How to access a file in local system using javascript?

    - by Ka-rocks
    I'm using JQuery mobile frame work. I'm having a server which host a website. The user can connect to website through mobile browser and download files(.doc, .xls, .pdf etc) from that website. I need to open the file which is saved in the user's mobile programmatically using java script. I tried to open using location.href="file://sdcard/download/test.doc". But it didn't work. It showed permission denied. Is there any way to this? Please help. Thanks in advance.

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