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  • ASP.NET MVC : strange POST behavior

    - by user93422
    ASP.NET MVC 2 app I have two actions on my controller (Toons): [GET] List [POST] Add App is running on IIS7 integration mode, so /Toons/List works fine. But when I do POST (that redirects to /Toons/List internally) it redirects (with 302 Object Moved) back to /Toons/Add. The problem goes away if I use .aspx hack (that works in IIS6/IIS7 classic mode). But without .aspx - GET work fine, but POST redirects me onto itself but with GET. What am I missing? I'm hosting with webhost4life.com and they did change IIS7 to integrated mode already. EDIT: The code works as expected using UltiDev Cassini server. EDIT: It turned out to be trailing-slash-in-URL issue. Somehow IIS7 doesn't route request properly if there is no slash at the end. EDET: Explanation of the behavior What happens is when I request (POST) /Toons/List (without trailing slash), IIS doesn't find the handler (I do not have knowledge to understand how exactly IIS does URL-to-handler mapping) and redirects the request (using 302 code) to /Toons/List/ (notice trailing slash). A browser, according to the HTTP specification, must redirect the request using same method (POST in this case), but instead it handles 302 as if it is 303 and issues GET request for the new URL. This is incorrect, but known behavior of most browsers. The solution is either to use .aspx-hack to make it unambiguous for IIS how to map requests to ASP.NET handler, or configure IIS to handle everything in the virtual directory using ASP.NET handler. Q: what is a better way to handle this?

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  • Eclipse RCP: Using different JUnit version (4.3.1) than shipped with eclipse galileo (4.5.0)

    - by Skrrytch
    Hallo, I have the following situation: We are developing an Eclipse RCP Application and want to switch from Eclipse 3.4 to Eclipse 3.5. Our JUnit-Tests are using JUnit 4.3.1 and we have a launch configuration to start our test suite. I think I don't need to go into more details here. The problem is: Running the tests with Eclipse 3.5 does not work: JUnit cannot find any annotations in the test classes (neither (at)Test nor (at)RunWith). I patched the junit library with some logging output to check what is going on. I found out that this problem is a classloading issue: The test class passed to JUnit 'lies in' a ClassLoader which is different from the one JUnit uses to load the annotation classes like 'RunWith'. This is not the case in Eclipse 3.4 in org.junit.internal.requests.ClassRequest: public Runner getRunner() { log("TestClass ClassLoader: "+this.fTestClass.getClassLoader()); log("RunWith.class ClassLoader: "+RunWith.class.getClassLoader()); ... // validating test class: searching for annotations and more } The first line prints another classloader than the second line. This is bad because JUnit cannot match the annotations in the test class with the Annotation-Class (here: RunWith.class): "RunWith" in CL1 is not equal to "RunWith" in CL2. I have a solution which points to the core problem: Replace JUnit 4.5 in Eclipse Galileo with JUnit 4.3.1 so that there is only one JUnit-Version: The Test-Run and the tests classes are both using JUnit 4.3.1 (I had to patch "org.eclipse.jdt.junit4.runtime" to accept an ealier junit version). I think I can also replace JUnit 4.3.1 in my test class with Version 4.5, but that is not an option yet. Guess: The classloaders are different because the classes 'come from' different JUnit-Bundles: the testclass with its annotations from version 4.3.1 and the test runs in version 4.5 What I want to know: Is there any other solution besides patching Eclipse (replace JUnit versions)? Any commandline argument or such? Any configuration to force Eclipse to Use JUnit 4.3.1? Any hints on the above described analysis are welcome!

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  • Log in using Java where server's authentication could be sso or web applcation container's basic

    - by Ed
    Hi, I have a situation where ideally I want to be able to log-in to a secure area using a Java application. I would like to make an HTTP request and check the response to see if I need to do some kind of authenication before I can actually get the response expected, instead of effectively some login page. The complication is that the server that responds will not always be the same - the user of the Java app specifies the URL - and the server may be using some kind of single sign on authentication or the web container's. I don't know the field names for the username and password fields or the action of the form, is there a simple way to obtain this kind of information from the URL? I see the URLConnection object has methods getPermission() which has a method getActions() but are not suitable, anything that might be? I guess example things I am looking to determine: Does the response require authentication? If so; what type / which servlet? e.g. j_security_check, josso single sign on, ... And then some way of authenticating the client And finally managing the state of the authenticated user for other requests Do I need to know the attributes of the login form before attemping to login? And then, is the onoly way of verifying permission to the requested resource to manually manage the cookies? Thanks in advance.

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  • Help using mod_jk to forward to backend app server

    - by ravun
    I had mod-jk working a while ago but after switching servers and modifying some files, it no longer works. I am using mod_jk-1.2.28 with JBoss 4.2.3 as the backend. In the JBoss server.xml file I have the AJP 1.3 connector defined on port 8009 and I am binding jboss to the server's new IP address. The app I am trying to forward to is deployed as: [TomcatDeployer] deploy, ctxPath=/ManualAlerts, warUrl=.../tmp/deploy/tmp8097651929280250028ManualAlertsApp.ear-contents/ManualAlerts-exp.war/ On the web server, I have worker.properties with a worker set for the JBoss address and port 8009. The mod-jk.conf has JkMount /ManualAlerts/* worker1. Shouldn't this forward all requests to the web server with the URL http://address/ManualAlerts/ to the backend app named ManualAlerts? The mod-jk.log shows: [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [error] ajp_send_request::jk_ajp_common.c (1507): (worker1) connecting to backend failed. Tomcat is probably not started or is listening on the wrong port (errno=115) [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [info] ajp_service::jk_ajp_common.c (2447): (worker1) sending request to tomcat failed (recoverable), because of error during request sending (attempt=2) [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [error] ajp_service::jk_ajp_common.c (2466): (worker1) connecting to tomcat failed. [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [info] service::jk_lb_worker.c (1384): service failed, worker worker1 is in error state [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [info] service::jk_lb_worker.c (1464): All tomcat instances are busy or in error state [Sat Oct 31 14:19:28 2009][30709:3086014224] [error] service::jk_lb_worker.c (1469): All tomcat instances failed, no more workers left Running netstat -an on the app server shows jboss listening on 8009 and the local address is the app server's address. In the mod-jk.log it shows connect to (XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX:8009) failed, and the app-server address is correct here, too. I cannot figure out what's causing the issue.

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  • How to secure Add child record functionality in MVC on Parent's view?

    - by RSolberg
    I'm trying to avoid some potential security issues as I expose some a new set of functionality into the real world. This is basically functionality that will allow for a new comment to be added via a partialview on the "Parent" page. My comment needs to know a couple of things, first what record is the comment for and secondly who is making the comment. I really don't like using a hidden field to store the ID for the Parent record in the add comment form as that can be easily changed with some DOM mods. How should I handle this? PARENT <% Html.RenderPartial("AddComment", Model.Comments); %> CHILD <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<CommentsViewModel>" %> <% using (Html.BeginForm("AddComment", "Requests")) {%> <fieldset> <legend>New Comment</legend> <%= Html.HiddenFor(p => p.RequestID) %> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(p => p.Text) %> &nbsp; <input type="submit" value="Add" /> </fieldset> <% } %> CONTROLLER [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public void AddComment(CommentsViewModel commentsModel) { var user = GetCurrentUser(); commentsModel.CreatedByID = user.UserID; RequestsService.AddComment(commentsModel); }

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  • Annoying Twisted Python problem

    - by Kalmi
    I'm trying to answer the following question out of personal interest: What is the fastest way to send 100,000 HTTP requests in Python? And this is what I have came up so far, but I'm experiencing something very stange. When installSignalHandlers is True, it just hangs. I can see that the DelayedCall instances are in reactor._newTimedCalls, but processResponse never gets called. When installSignalHandlers is False, it throws an error and works. from twisted.internet import reactor from twisted.web.client import Agent from threading import Semaphore, Thread import time concurrent = 100 s = Semaphore(concurrent) reactor.suggestThreadPoolSize(concurrent) t=Thread( target=reactor.run, kwargs={'installSignalHandlers':True}) t.daemon=True t.start() agent = Agent(reactor) def processResponse(response,url): print response.code, url s.release() def processError(response,url): print "error", url s.release() def addTask(url): req = agent.request('HEAD', url) req.addCallback(processResponse, url) req.addErrback(processError, url) for url in open('urllist.txt'): addTask(url.strip()) s.acquire() while s._Semaphore__value!=concurrent: time.sleep(0.1) reactor.stop() And here is the error that it throws when installSignalHandlers is True: (Note: This is the expected behaviour! The question is why it doesn't work when installSignalHandlers is False.) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 396, in fireEvent DeferredList(beforeResults).addCallback(self._continueFiring) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 224, in addCallback callbackKeywords=kw) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 213, in addCallbacks self._runCallbacks() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 371, in _runCallbacks self.result = callback(self.result, *args, **kw) --- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 409, in _continueFiring callable(*args, **kwargs) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1165, in _reallyStartRunning self._handleSignals() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1105, in _handleSignals signal.signal(signal.SIGINT, self.sigInt) exceptions.ValueError: signal only works in main thread What am I doing wrong and what is the right way? I'm new to twisted.

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  • How to explain to users the advantages of dumb primary key?

    - by Hao
    Primary key attractiveness I have a boss(and also users) that wants primary key to be sophisticated/smart/attractive control number(sort of like Social Security number, or credit card number format) I just padded the primary key(in Views) with zeroes to appease their desire to make the control number sophisticated,smart and attractive. But they wanted it as: first 2 digits as client code, then 4 digits as year year, then last 4 digits as transaction number on that client on a given year, then reset the transaction number of client to 1 when next year flows. Each client's transaction starts with 1. e.g. WM20090001, WM20090002, BB2009001, WM20100001, BB20100001 But as I wanted to make things as simple as possible, I forgo embedding their suggested smartness in primary key, I just keep the primary key auto increments regardless of client and year. But to make it not dull-looking(they really are adamant to make the primary key as smart control number), I made the primary key appears to them smart, on view query, I put the client code and four digit year code on front of the eight-zero padded autoincrement key, i.e. WM200900000001. Sort of slug-like information on autoincremented primary key. Keeping primary key autoincrement regardless of any other information, we are able keep other potential side effects problem when they edit a record, for example, if they made a mistake of entering the transaction on WM, then they edit the client code to BB, if we use smart primary key, the primary keys of WM customer will have gaps in their control number. Or worse yet, instead of letting the control numbers have gaps/holes, the user will request that subsequent records of that gap should shift up to that gap and have their subsequent primary keys re-adjust(decremented). How do you deal with these user requests(reasonable or otherwise)? Do you yield to their request? Or just continue using dumb primary key and explain them the repercussions of having a very smart/sophisticated primary key and educate them the significant advantages of having a dumb primary key? P.S. quotable quote(http://articles.techrepublic.com.com/5100-10878_11-1044961.html): "If you hold your tongue the first time users ask what is for them a reasonable request, things will work a lot better in the end."

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  • WCF MessageHeaders in OperationContext.Current

    - by Nate Bross
    If I use code like this [just below] to add Message Headers to my OperationContext, will all future out-going messages contain that data on any new ClientProxy defined from the same "run" of my application? The objective, is to pass a parameter or two to each OpeartionContract w/out messing with the signature of the OperationContract, since the parameters being passed will be consistant for all requests for a given run of my client application. public void DoSomeStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); proxy.DoOperation(...); } public void DoSomeOTHERStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); proxy.DoOtherOperation(...); } In other words, is it safe to refactor the above code like this? bool isSetup = false; public void SetupMessageHeader() { if(isSetup) { return; } Guid myToken = Guid.NewGuid(); MessageHeader<Guid> mhg = new MessageHeader<Guid>(myToken); MessageHeader untyped = mhg.GetUntypedHeader("token", "ns"); OperationContext.Current.OutgoingMessageHeaders.Add(untyped); isSetup = true; } public void DoSomeStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); SetupMessageHeader(); proxy.DoOperation(...); } public void DoSomeOTHERStuff() { var proxy = new MyServiceClient(); SetupMessageHeader(); proxy.DoOtherOperation(...); } Since I don't really understand what's happening there, I don't want to cargo cult it and just change it and let it fly if it works, I'd like to hear your thoughts on if it is OK or not.

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  • KeepAlive packets over a Soap request

    - by Nycto
    I've been debugging some Soap requests we are making between two servers on the same VLAN. The app on one server is written in PHP, the app on the other is written in Java. I can control and make changes to the PHP code, but I can't affect the Java server. The PHP app forms the XML using the DOMDocument objects, then sends the request using the cURL extension. When the soap request took longer than 5 minutes to complete, it would always wait until the max timeout limit and exit with a message like this: Operation timed out after 900000 milliseconds with 0 bytes received After sniffing the packets that were being sent, it turns out that the problem was caused by a 5 minute timeout in the network that was closing what it thought was a stale connection. There were two ways to fix it: bump up the timeout in iptables, or start sending KeepAlive packets over the request. To be thorough, I would like to implement both solutions. Bumping up the timeout was easy for ops to do, but sending KeepAlive packets is turning out to be difficult. The cURL library itself supports this (see the --keepalive-time flag for the CLI app), but it doesn't appear that this has been implemented in the PHP cURL library. I even checked the source to make sure it wasn't an undocumented feature. So my question is this: How the heck can I get these packets sent? I see a few clear options, but I don't like any of them: Write a wrapper that will kick off the request by shell_execing the CLI app. This is a hack that I just don't like Update the cURL extension to support this. This is a non-option according to Ops. Open the socket myself. I know just enough to be dangerous. I also haven't seen a way to do this with fsockopen, but I could be missing something. Switch to another library. What exists that supports this? Thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • PyQt and unittest - how to handle signals and slots

    - by Einar
    Hello, some small application I'm developing uses a module I have written to check certain web services via a REST API. I've been trying to add unit tests to it so I don't break stuff, and I stumbled upon a problem. I use a lot of signal-slot connections to perform operations asynchronously. For example a typical test would be (pseudo-Python), with postDataDownloaded as a signal: def testConnection(self): "Test connection and posts retrieved" def length_test(): self.assertEqual(len(self.client.post_data), 5) self.client.postDataReady.connect(length_test) self.client.get_post_list(limit=5) Now, unittest will report this test to be "ok" when running, regardless of the result (as another slot is being called), even if asserts fail (I will get an unhandled AssertionError). Example when deliberatiely making the test fail: Test connection and posts retrieved ... ok [... more tests...] OK Traceback (most recent call last): [...] AssertionError: 4 != 5 The slot inside the test is merely an experiment: I get the same results if it's outside (instance method). I also have to add that the various methods I'm calling all make HTTP requests, which means they take a bit of time (I need to mock the request - in the mean time I'm using SimpleHTTPServer to fake the connections and give them proper data). Is there a way around this problem?

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  • What are some strategies for maintaining a common database schema with a team of developers and no D

    - by Mahmoud Abdelkader
    I'm curious about how others have approached the problem of maintaining and synchronizing database changes across many (10+) developers without a DBA? What I mean, basically, is that if someone wants to make a change to the database, what are some strategies to doing that? (i.e. I've created a 'Car' model and now I want to apply the appropriate DDL to the database, etc..) We're primarily a Python shop and our ORM is SQLAlchemy. Previously, we had written our models in such a way to create the models using our ORM, but we recently ditched this because: We couldn't track changes using the ORM The state of the ORM wasn't in sync with the database (e.g. lots of differences primarily related to indexes and unique constraints) There was no way to audit database changes unless the developer documented the database change via email to the team. Our solution to this problem was to basically have a "gatekeeper" individual who checks every change into the database and applies all accepted database changes to an accepted_db_changes.sql file, whereby the developers who need to make any database changes put their requests into a proposed_db_changes.sql file. We check this file in, and, when it's updated, we all apply the change to our personal database on our development machine. We don't create indexes or constraints on the models, they are applied explicitly on the database. I would like to know what are some strategies to maintain database schemas and if ours is seems reasonable. Thanks!

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  • MediaWiki installed on virtual server accessed through Apache ProxyPass

    - by Eugen Mihailescu
    Note: where you will see "xttp" actualy is "http" but stackoverflow rules do not allow me to use more than 1 hyperlink in one post because I do not have enough "credit" to do that :) INTRODUCTION Hi, I have installed a MediaWiki 1.15.3 software on a private LAN on a Linux box (CentOS 5), with: Apache 2.2.3, PHP 5.1.6, MySQL 5.0.45. Let's name this Linux box "wiki box". Public users can't access this wiki as it is hosted on a private LAN. For external users (the Internet users) we have a Linux router (with Apache 2.0.52) where we host our website (ex: xttp://www.cubique.ro). Let's name this Linux box "router". WHAT I WANT What I want to do is: to create a virtual domain (as xttp://wiki.cubique.ro) on the "router" setup the virtual domain to forward all xttp requests to my private "wiki box" (ex: xttp://192.168.0.200/wiki_root/) WHAT I'VE DONE ALREADY On router's Apache (httpd.conf) I have created a VirtualHost as: < VirtualHost 0.0.0.0:80 ServerName wiki.cubique.ro DocumentRoot /someinternalpath/html ScriptAlias /cgi-bin /someinternalpath/cgi-bin ... Well, after I have navigate at wiki.cubique.ro I saw a blank web page, as /someinternalpath/html has an empty index.htm page. No problem, I know that I have to "teach" the router to pass all the access of virtual domain (wiki.cubique.ro) to the wiki box, where the real pages are stored. So I teach the Apache to ProxyPass the access of virtual domain root to the wiki box root like this: ...the following lines lies in the same virtual domain definition, see above ProxyPass / xttp://192.168.0.200/wiki/ ProxyPassReverse / xttp://192.168.0.200/wiki/ < /VirtualHost WHAT IS THE ISSUE If I access the wiki using the internal address (such as xttp://192.168.0.200/wiki/) it looks splendid (style sheets, everything). When I access the wiki using the virtual domain name ( xttp://wiki.cubique.ro ) it shows the content but no style sheet. Worse than that, no internal wiki links are working at all. Make a try: http://wiki.cubique.ro FINALLY, THE QUESTION Anyone has a clue how to deal with this? Thanks.

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  • Using ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem in ASP.NET in a high traffic scenario

    - by Michael Hart
    I've always been under the impression that using the ThreadPool for (let's say non-critical) short-lived background tasks was considered best practice, even in ASP.NET, but then I came across this article that seems to suggest otherwise - the argument being that you should leave the ThreadPool to deal with ASP.NET related requests. So here's how I've been doing small asynchronous tasks so far: ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(s => PostLog(logEvent)) And the article is suggesting instead to create a thread explicitly, similar to: new Thread(() => PostLog(logEvent)){ IsBackground = true }.Start() The first method has the advantage of being managed and bounded, but there's the potential (if the article is correct) that the background tasks are then vying for threads with ASP.NET request-handlers. The second method frees up the ThreadPool, but at the cost of being unbounded and thus potentially using up too many resources. So my question is, is the advice in the article correct? If your site was getting so much traffic that your ThreadPool was getting full, then is it better to go out-of-band, or would a full ThreadPool imply that you're getting to the limit of your resources anyway, in which case you shouldn't be trying to start your own threads? Clarification: I'm just asking in the scope of small non-critical asynchronous tasks (eg, remote logging), not expensive work items that would require a separate process (in these cases I agree you'll need a more robust solution).

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  • Designing a fluid Javascript interface to abstract away the asynchronous nature of AJAX

    - by Anurag
    How would I design an API to hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX and HTTP requests, or basically delay it to provide a fluid interface. To show an example from Twitter's new Anywhere API: // get @ded's first 20 statuses, filter only the tweets that // mention photography, and render each into an HTML element T.User.find('ded').timeline().first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); function filterer(status) { return status.text.match(/photography/); } vs this (asynchronous nature of each call is clearly visible) T.User.find('ded', function(user) { user.timeline(function(statuses) { statuses.first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); }); }); It finds the user, gets their tweet timeline, filters only the first 20 tweets, applies a custom filter, and ultimately uses the callback function to process each tweet. I am guessing that a well designed API like this should work like a query builder (think ORMs) where each function call builds the query (HTTP URL in this case), until it hits a looping function such as each/map/etc., the HTTP call is made and the passed in function becomes the callback. An easy development route would be to make each AJAX call synchronous, but that's probably not the best solution. I am interested in figuring out a way to make it asynchronous, and still hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX.

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  • Google App Engine application instance recycling and response times...

    - by Konrad
    Hi, I posted this on GAE for Java group, but I hope to get some answers here quicker :) I decided to do some long-run performance tests on my application. I created some small client hitting app every 5-30 minutes and I run 3-5 of threads with such client. I noticed huge differenced in response times and started to investigate issue. I found reason very quick. I am experiencing same issues as described in following topics: Uneven response time between connection to server to first byte sent Application instances seem to be too aggressively recycled Getting 'Request was aborted after waiting too long to attempt to service your request.' after application idle I am using Springframework, it tkes around 18-20s to start app instance, which is causing response times to take from 1s (when requests hits running app - very rare) to 22s when fresh application is created. Is there any solution for this? I was thinking about creating most basic servlet performing critical tasks (serving API call) and leave UI as is. But then I would loose all benefits of Springframework. Is there any solution for this? After solving (hacking) numerous constrains of App Engine which I hit while developing my app that is the one I think will make me move out of App Engine... that's simply to much to all the time think how to win with GAE problems than how to solve my application problems... Any help? Regards Konrad

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  • InvalidAuthenticityToken for JQuery despite setting authenticity token

    - by user117046
    I'm getting an InvalidAuthenticityToken despite adding in corresponding authenticity tokens in the jquery response. Is there an error in the code, or is there another, root problem? I appreciate any comments. Thanks! Using: Rails 2.3.3, Ruby 1.8.6, Webrick, JQuery 1.3.2 layout/networks.html.haml = token_tag = javascript_tag "window.AUTH_TOKEN = '#{form_authenticity_token}';" javascripts/application.js $(document).ready(function() { // All non-GET requests will add the authenticity token // if not already present in the data packet $(document).ajaxSend(function(event, request, settings) { if (typeof(window.AUTH_TOKEN) == "undefined") return; // <acronym title="Internet Explorer 6">IE6</acronym> fix for http://dev.jquery.com/ticket/3155 if (settings.type == 'GET' || settings.type == 'get') return; settings.data = settings.data || ""; settings.data += (settings.data ? "&" : "") + "authenticity_token=" + encodeURIComponent(window.AUTH_TOKEN); }); ajaxLinks(); }); The rendered html has: <input name="authenticity_token" type="hidden" value="ZaXj3ACQl+8JKtaDAUoxtSsqzEagSPyHbS25ai9qWCw=" /> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ window.AUTH_TOKEN = 'ZaXj3ACQl+8JKtaDAUoxtSsqzEagSPyHbS25ai9qWCw='; //]]> </script> and breakpointing through, shows that window.AUTH_TOKEN has been set. Any help to resolve this would be great.

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  • .NET Remoting memory leak?

    - by PrimeTSS
    I have a Remoting Class as a Singleton <configuration> <system.runtime.remoting> <application> <service> <wellknown mode="Singleton" type="PTSSLinkClasses.PTSSLinkClientDesktopRemotable, PTSSLinkClasses" objectUri="PTSSLinkDesktop" /> </service> <channels> <channel ref="http" port="8901"/> </channels> </application> </system.runtime.remoting> </configuration> Its created within a "server" Service. Another client service consumes this remote object. The client is calling the remote object every .5 second using a timer (polling) (for testing) If the server service is stopped, so the remote object is not available, memory useage for the client service keeps increasing...... I have overwritten InitialLifetimeService to return a null public override Object InitializeLifetimeService() { return null; } If a remote object is not available does .net queue all the call requests to this object??? untill all the memory is consumed? How can I dected if the remote object is not available and stop trying to call the remote method?

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  • WCF RIA Silverlight deployment issues

    - by Handleman
    It seems the world is awash with people having problems deploying RIA WCF services, and now I'm one too. I've already tried a bunch of things, but to no avail. I need WCF RIA to support a Silverlight 3 application I've built. The short story is, using the new WCF RIA services (Nov 09?) I open VS 2008, create new project (silverlight application), enabling ".NET RIA services". Add new item to web project - Linq2SQL dbml file (from SQL 2005 DB prepared earlier) and compile. I add a new item to the web project - domain service (link the tables I need) and compiled. Using the domain context I "Load" data with a standard RIA get query in the MainPage and add a TextBlock to display returned data. Build & run (cassini) - success. Using VS to publish to IIS on local PC - success. Using VS to publish to test server (IIS6) - browse to location and the Silverlight app loads but Fiddler tells me I've got a 404 on all the the WCF .svc requests. Use Fiddler to "launch IE" on the service request and it's true - 404. I have already run aspnet_regiis, ServiceModelReg and added mime types for .xap, .xaml, .xbap and .svc. I have included the System.Web.Ria and System.Web.DomainServices DLL with copy local true. I need help with either a) a solution b) an approach to find a solution

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  • HttpWebRequest: The request was aborted: The request was canceled.

    - by Emeka
    I've been working on developing a middle man application of sorts, which uploads text to a CMS backend using HTTP post requests for a series of dates (usually 7 at a time). I am using HttpWebRequest to accomplish this. It seems to work fine for the first date, but when it starts the second date I get the System.Net.WebException: The request was aborted: The request was canceled. I've searched around and found the following big clues: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/netfxnetcom/thread/0d0afe40-c62a-4089-9d8b-fb4d206434dc http://www.jaxidian.org/update/2007/05/05/8 http://arnosoftwaredev.blogspot.com/2006/09/net-20-httpwebrequestkeepalive-and.html And they haven't been too helpful. I've tried overloading the GetWebReuqest but that doesn't make sense because I don't make any use of that function. Here is my code: http://pastebin.org/115268 I get the error on line 245 after it has run successfully at least once. I'd appreciate any help I can get as this is the last step in a project I've been working on for sometime. This is my first C#/VS project so I'm open to any tips but I would like to focus on getting this problem solved first. THanks!

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  • Cocoa memory management

    - by silvio
    At various points during my application's workflow, I need so show a view. That view is quite memory intensive, so I want it to be deallocated when it gets discarded by the user. So, I wrote the following code: - (MyView *)myView { if (myView != nil) return myView; myView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // allocate memory if necessary. // further init here return myView; } - (void)discardView { [myView discard]; // the discard methods puts the view offscreen. [myView release]; // free memory! } - (void)showView { view = [self myView]; // more code that puts the view onscreen. } Unfortunately, this methods only works the first time. Subsequent requests to put the view onscreen result in "message sent to deallocated instance" errors. Apparently, a deallocated instance isn't the same thing as nil. I thought about putting an additional line after [myView release] that reads myView = nil. However, that could result in errors (any calls to myView after that line would probably yield errors). So, how can I solve this problem?

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  • Apache and backslashes in mod_rewrite

    - by NuCalTone
    I want to process all incoming requests through a single script (index.php in web-root). So, the following is what currently happens: http://localhost/foo/bar/baz Is routed by Apache (through .htaccess) to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo/bar/baz This works well, however, in Firefox I am able to do this: http://localhost/foo\ - notice the backslash. And Apache, instead of doing: /index.php?url=foo\ Emits a generic error page saying: Object not found! The requested URL was not found on this server. If you entered the URL manually please check your spelling and try again. If you think this is a server error, please contact the webmaster. Error 404 localhost Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) DAV/2 mod_ssl/2.2.14 OpenSSL/0.9.8l mod_autoindex_color PHP/5.3.1 mod_apreq2-20090110/2.7.1 mod_perl/2.0.4 Perl/v5.10.1 Directly going to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo\ works without issues, however. All the sites that I've seen on the internet seem to be able to handle backslashes gracefully (e.g., http://stackoverflow.com/tags/php\\\\\). I consider this behavior a bug and I want to force Apache to forward backslashes correctly. Here's my .htaccess file in its entirety: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [L] How can I make this work properly?

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  • jQuery ajax link, returned data includes a from that wont submit

    - by calumogg
    Hi everyone, I have a problem with the returned data from a ajax request. Basically when I click on a link it runs a ajax request to load some html into a div, that part is working fine the problem comes when the data has been loaded. Part of the html loaded is a form, this form works fine if I load the page directly but when it is loaded through ajax into the div it wont submit but the rest of the links in the html work fine. Here is the code that requests the remote html data: // Ajax to load image editing page $('a.editpicture').click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); var picture = $(this).attr("id") $.ajax({ url: 'http://localhost/digital-xposure/index.php/members/viewpicture/' + picture, success: function(data) { $('#update-picture').html(data); } }); }); This is the form it loads: <form method="post" id="updatepicture" name="updatepicture" action="http://localhost/digital-xposure/index.php/members/editpicture"/> <p>Title<input type="text" name="title" id="title" style="input" value="<?php echo $title; ?>"></P> <p>Album<?php echo $albums;?></p> <p>Description<textarea name="description" id="description" cols="50" rows="5"><?php echo $description; ?></textarea></P> <input type="hidden" name="filename" id="filename" value="<?php echo $filename; ?>" /> <input type="button" name="update-submit" id="update-submit" value="Update details" class="button"> Or <input type="button" onClick="location.href='<?php echo base_url(); ?>index.php/members/deletepicture/<?php echo $filename; ?>'" value="Delete picture" class="button"> </form> Any ideas why the form wont submit after being loaded into the div? Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks. Calum

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  • API Wrapper Architecture Best Practice

    - by Adam Taylor
    Hi, So I'm writing a Perl wrapper module around a REST webservice and I'm hoping to have some advice on how best to architect the module. I've been looking at a couple of different Perl modules for inspiration. Flickr::Simple2 - so this is basically one big file with methods wrapping around the different methods in the Flickr API, e.g. getPhotos() etc. Flickr::API - this is a sub-class of another module (LWP) for making HTTP requests. So basically it just allows you to make calls through the module, using LWP, that go to the correct API method/URL without defining any wrapper methods itself. (That's explained pretty poorly - but basically it has a method that takes an argument (a API method name) and constructs the correct API call). e.g request() / response(). An alternative design would be like the first described, but less monolithic, with separate classes for separate "areas" of the API. I'd like to follow modern/best practice Perl methods so I'm using Dist::Zilla to build the module and Moose for the OO stuff but I'd appreciate some input on how to actually design/architect my wrapper. Guides/tutorials or pointers to other well designed modules would be appreciated. Cheers

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  • How to Select Items in Dropdown in Selenium

    - by Marcus Gladir
    Firstly, I have been trying to get the dropdown from this web page: http://solutions.3m.com/wps/portal/3M/en_US/Interconnect/Home/Products/ProductCatalog/Catalog/?PC_Z7_RJH9U5230O73D0ISNF9B3C3SI1000000_nid=RFCNF5FK7WitWK7G49LP38glNZJXPCDXLDbl This is the code I have: import urllib2 from bs4 import BeautifulSoup import re from pprint import pprint import sys from selenium import common from selenium import webdriver import selenium.webdriver.support.ui as ui from boto.s3.key import Key import requests url = 'http://solutions.3m.com/wps/portal/3M/en_US/Interconnect/Home/Products/ProductCatalog/Catalog/?PC_Z7_RJH9U5230O73D0ISNF9B3C3SI1000000_nid=RFCNF5FK7WitWK7G49LP38glNZJXPCDXLDbl' element_xpath = '//*[@id="Component1"]' driver = webdriver.PhantomJS() driver.get(url) element = driver.find_element_by_xpath(element_xpath) element_xpath = '/option[@value="02"]' all_options = element.find_elements_by_tag_name("option") for option in all_options: print("Value is: %s" % option.get_attribute("value")) option.click() source = driver.page_source.encode('utf-8', 'ignore') driver.quit() source = str(source) soup = BeautifulSoup(source, 'html.parser') print soup What prints out is this: Traceback (most recent call last): File "../../../../test.py", line 58, in <module> Value is: XX main() File "../../../../test.py", line 46, in main option.click() File "/home/eric/dev/octocrawler-env/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/selenium-2.33.0-py2.7.egg/selenium/webdriver/remote/webelement.py", line 54, in click self._execute(Command.CLICK_ELEMENT) File "/home/eric/dev/octocrawler-env/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/selenium-2.33.0-py2.7.egg/selenium/webdriver/remote/webelement.py", line 228, in _execute return self._parent.execute(command, params) File "/home/eric/dev/octocrawler-env/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/selenium-2.33.0-py2.7.egg/selenium/webdriver/remote/webdriver.py", line 165, in execute self.error_handler.check_response(response) File "/home/eric/dev/octocrawler-env/local/lib/python2.7/site-packages/selenium-2.33.0-py2.7.egg/selenium/webdriver/remote/errorhandler.py", line 158, in check_response raise exception_class(message, screen, stacktrace) selenium.common.exceptions.ElementNotVisibleException: Message: u'{"errorMessage":"Element is not currently visible and may not be manipulated","request":{"headers":{"Accept":"application/json","Accept-Encoding":"identity","Connection":"close","Content-Length":"81","Content-Type":"application/json;charset=UTF-8","Host":"127.0.0.1:51413","User-Agent":"Python-urllib/2.7"},"httpVersion":"1.1","method":"POST","post":"{\\"sessionId\\": \\"30e4fd50-f0e4-11e3-8685-6983e831d856\\", \\"id\\": \\":wdc:1402434863875\\"}","url":"/click","urlParsed":{"anchor":"","query":"","file":"click","directory":"/","path":"/click","relative":"/click","port":"","host":"","password":"","user":"","userInfo":"","authority":"","protocol":"","source":"/click","queryKey":{},"chunks":["click"]},"urlOriginal":"/session/30e4fd50-f0e4-11e3-8685-6983e831d856/element/%3Awdc%3A1402434863875/click"}}' ; Screenshot: available via screen And the weirdest most infuriating bit of it all is that sometimes it actually all works out. I have no clue what's going on here.

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  • Setting Path and Expiration for session cookie in asp.net

    - by Sergej Andrejev
    Anything I have tried didn't work. Currenly I have following code to change asp.net session cookie expiration date and path, but asp doesn't want to listen to me. I sends same cookie in Set-Cookie header two times sometimes, sometimes it sends it's default cookie ignoring path and expiration date, sometimes it sends everything as expected, and sometimes it doesn't send Set-Cookie at all. What should I do. This drives me nuts :( My code in Global.asax protected void Application_PreRequestHandlerExecute(Object sender, EventArgs e) { /// only apply session cookie persistence to requests requiring session information if (Context.Handler is IRequiresSessionState || Context.Handler is IReadOnlySessionState) { var sessionState = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("system.web/sessionState") as SessionStateSection; var cookieName = sessionState != null && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(sessionState.CookieName) ? sessionState.CookieName : "ASP.NET_SessionId"; var timeout = sessionState != null ? sessionState.Timeout : TimeSpan.FromMinutes(20); /// Ensure ASP.NET Session Cookies are accessible throughout the subdomains. if (Request.Cookies[cookieName] != null && Session != null && Session.SessionID != null) { Response.Cookies[cookieName].Value = Session.SessionID; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Path = Request.ApplicationPath; Response.Cookies[cookieName].Expires = DateTime.Now.Add(timeout); } } }

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