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  • How do you automap List<float> or float[] with Fluent NHibernate?

    - by Tom Bushell
    Having successfully gotten a sample program working, I'm now starting to do Real Work with Fluent NHibernate - trying to use Automapping on my project's class heirarchy. It's a scientific instrumentation application, and the classes I'm mapping have several properties that are arrays of floats e.g. private float[] _rawY; public virtual float[] RawY { get { return _rawY; } set { _rawY = value; } } These arrays can contain a maximum of 500 values. I didn't expect Automapping to work on arrays, but tried it anyway, with some success at first. Each array was auto mapped to a BLOB (using SQLite), which seemed like a viable solution. The first problem came when I tried to call SaveOrUpdate on the objects containing the arrays - I got "No persister for float[]" exceptions. So my next thought was to convert all my arrays into ILists e.g. public virtual IList<float> RawY { get; set; } But now I get: NHibernate.MappingException: Association references unmapped class: System.Single Since Automapping can deal with lists of complex objects, it never occured to me it would not be able to map lists of basic types. But after doing some Googling for a solution, this seems to be the case. Some people seem to have solved the problem, but the sample code I saw requires more knowledge of NHibernate than I have right now - I didn't understand it. Questions: 1. How can I make this work with Automapping? 2. Also, is it better to use arrays or lists for this application? I can modify my app to use either if necessary (though I prefer lists). Edit: I've studied the code in Mapping Collection of Strings, and I see there is test code in the source that sets up an IList of strings, e.g. public virtual IList<string> ListOfSimpleChildren { get; set; } [Test] public void CanSetAsElement() { new MappingTester<OneToManyTarget>() .ForMapping(m => m.HasMany(x => x.ListOfSimpleChildren).Element("columnName")) .Element("class/bag/element").Exists(); } so this must be possible using pure Automapping, but I've had zero luck getting anything to work, probably because I don't have the requisite knowlege of manually mapping with NHibernate. Starting to think I'm going to have to hack this (by encoding the array of floats as a single string, or creating a class that contains a single float which I then aggregate into my lists), unless someone can tell me how to do it properly. End Edit Here's my CreateSessionFactory method, if that helps formulate a reply... private static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { ISessionFactory sessionFactory = null; const string autoMapExportDir = "AutoMapExport"; if( !Directory.Exists(autoMapExportDir) ) Directory.CreateDirectory(autoMapExportDir); try { var autoPersistenceModel = AutoMap.AssemblyOf<DlsAppOverlordExportRunData>() .Where(t => t.Namespace == "DlsAppAutomapped") .Conventions.Add( DefaultCascade.All() ) ; sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(SQLiteConfiguration.Standard .UsingFile(DbFile) .ShowSql() ) .Mappings(m => m.AutoMappings.Add(autoPersistenceModel) .ExportTo(autoMapExportDir) ) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildSchema) .BuildSessionFactory() ; } catch (Exception e) { Debug.WriteLine(e); } return sessionFactory; }

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  • Running an allocation simulation repeatedly breaks after the first run.

    - by Az
    Background I have a bunch of students, their desired projects and the supervisors for the respective projects. I'm running a battery of simulations to see which projects the students end up with, which will allow me to get some useful statistics required for feedback. So, this is essentially a Monte-Carlo simulation where I'm randomising the list of students and then iterating through it, allocating projects until I hit the end of the list. Then the process is repeated again. Note that, within a single session, after each successful allocation of a project the following take place: + the project is set to allocated and cannot be given to another student + the supervisor has a fixed quota of students he can supervise. This is decremented by 1 + Once the quota hits 0, all the projects from that supervisor become blocked and this has the same effect as a project being allocated Code def resetData(): for student in students.itervalues(): student.allocated_project = None for supervisor in supervisors.itervalues(): supervisor.quota = 0 for project in projects.itervalues(): project.allocated = False project.blocked = False The role of resetData() is to "reset" certain bits of the data. For example, when a project is successfully allocated, project.allocated for that project is flipped to True. While that's useful for a single run, for the next run I need to be deallocated. Above I'm iterating through thee three dictionaries - one each for students, projects and supervisors - where the information is stored. The next bit is the "Monte-Carlo" simulation for the allocation algorithm. sesh_id = 1 for trial in range(50): for id in randomiseStudents(1): stud_id = id student = students[id] if not student.preferences: # Ignoring the students who've not entered any preferences for rank in ranks: temp_proj = random.choice(list(student.preferences[rank])) if not (temp_proj.allocated or temp_proj.blocked): alloc_proj = student.allocated_proj_ref = temp_proj.proj_id alloc_proj_rank = student.allocated_rank = rank successActions(temp_proj) temp_alloc = Allocated(sesh_id, stud_id, alloc_proj, alloc_proj_rank) print temp_alloc # Explained break sesh_id += 1 resetData() # Refer to def resetData() above All randomiseStudents(1) does is randomise the order of students. Allocated is a class defined as such: class Allocated(object): def __init__(self, sesh_id, stud_id, alloc_proj, alloc_proj_rank): self.sesh_id = sesh_id self.stud_id = stud_id self.alloc_proj = alloc_proj self.alloc_proj_rank = alloc_proj_rank def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "%s - Student: %s (Project: %s - Rank: %s)" %(self.sesh_id, self.stud_id, self.alloc_proj, self.alloc_proj_rank) Output and problem Now if I run this I get an output such as this (truncated): 1 - Student: 7720 (Project: 1100241 - Rank: 1) 1 - Student: 7832 (Project: 1100339 - Rank: 1) 1 - Student: 7743 (Project: 1100359 - Rank: 1) 1 - Student: 7820 (Project: 1100261 - Rank: 2) 1 - Student: 7829 (Project: 1100270 - Rank: 1) . . . 1 - Student: 7822 (Project: 1100280 - Rank: 1) 1 - Student: 7792 (Project: 1100141 - Rank: 7) 2 - Student: 7739 (Project: 1100267 - Rank: 1) 3 - Student: 7806 (Project: 1100272 - Rank: 1) . . . 45 - Student: 7806 (Project: 1100272 - Rank: 1) 46 - Student: 7714 (Project: 1100317 - Rank: 1) 47 - Student: 7930 (Project: 1100343 - Rank: 1) 48 - Student: 7757 (Project: 1100358 - Rank: 1) 49 - Student: 7759 (Project: 1100269 - Rank: 1) 50 - Student: 7778 (Project: 1100301 - Rank: 1) Basically, it works perfectly for the first run, but on subsequent runs leading upto the nth run, in this case 50, only a single student-project allocation pair is returned. Thus, the main issue I'm having trouble with is figuring out what is causing this anomalous behaviour especially since the first run works smoothly. Thanks in advance, Az

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  • Two UIViews, one UIViewController (in one UINavigationController)

    - by jdandrea
    Given an iPhone app with a UITableViewController pushed onto a UINavigationController, I would like to add a right bar button item to toggle between the table view and an "alternate" view of the same data. Let's also say that this other view uses the same data but is not a UITableView. Now, I know variations on this question already exist on Stack Overflow. However, in this case, that alternate view would not be pushed onto the UINavigationController. It would be visually akin to flipping the current UIViewController's table view over and revealing the other view, then being able to flip back. In other words, it's intended to take up a single spot in the UINavigationController hierarchy. Moreover, whatever selection you ultimately make from within either view will push a common UIViewController onto the UINavigationController stack. Still more info: We don't want to use a separate UINavigationController just to handle this pair of views, and we don't want to split these apart via a UITabBarController either. Visually and contextually, the UX is meant to show two sides of the same coin. It's just that those two sides happen to involve their own View Controllers in normal practice. Now … it turns out I have already gone and quickly set this up to see how it might work! However, upon stepping back to examine it, I get the distinct impression that I went about it in a rather non-MVC way, which of course concerns me a bit. Here's what I did at a high level. Right now, I have a UIViewController (not a UITableViewController) that handles all commonalities between the two views, such as fetching the raw data. I also have two NIBs, one for each view, and two UIView objects to go along with them. (One of them is a UITableView, which is a kind of UIView.) I switch between the views using animation (easy enough). Also, in an effort to keep things encapsulated, the now-split-apart UITableView (not the UIViewController!) acts as its own delegate and data source, fetching data from the VC. The VC is set up as a weak, non-retained object in the table view. In parallel, the alternate view gets at the raw data from the VC in the exact same way. So, there are a few things that smell funny here. The weak linking from child to parent, while polite, seems like it might be wrong. Making a UITableView the table's data source and delegate also seems odd to me, thinking that a view controller is where you want to put that per Apple's MVC diagrams. As it stands now, it would appear as if the view knows about the model, which isn't good. Loading up both views in advance also seems odd, because lazy loading is no longer in effect. Losing the benefits of a UITableViewController (like auto-scrolling to cells with text fields) is also a bit frustrating, and I'd rather not reinvent the wheel to work around that as well. Given all of the above, and given we want that "flip effect" in the context of a single spot on a single UINavigationController, and given that both views are two sides of the same coin, is there a better, more obvious way to design this that I'm just happening to miss completely? Clues appreciated!

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  • Why wont this JS code work if its all on the same line?

    - by culov
    I'm writing HTML code for a java servlet. i first write the code in html/js so i can debug what im working on, and then ill make it a java string and put it in my servlet. My problem is that the code is working fine when i view it in ff from a local html file, but when i view it on my java servlet, it doesnt work because the js isnt getting called. what I did was format the html that my servlet generated so that its not all on a single line and ran the code again. This time it worked. I copied this working code into a browser address bar so that it will all be on a single line, and copied that code back into the script in my html file. Now, when the previously working code is on a single line, it doesnt work. Here's the formatted JS: var sMax var holder; var preSet; var rated; var request; function rating(num){ sMax = 0; for(n=0; n<num.parentNode.childNodes.length; n++){ if(num.parentNode.childNodes[n].nodeName == "A"){ sMax++; } } if(!rated){ s = num.id.replace("_", ''); a = 0; for(i=1; i<=sMax; i++){ if(i<=s){ document.getElementById("_"+i).className = "on"; document.getElementById("rateStatus").innerHTML = num.title; holder = a+1; a++; }else{ document.getElementById("_"+i).className = ""; } } } } function off(me){ if(!rated){ if(!preSet){ for(i=1; i<=sMax; i++){ document.getElementById("_"+i).className = ""; document.getElementById("rateStatus").innerHTML = me.parentNode.title; } }else{ rating(preSet); document.getElementById("rateStatus").innerHTML = document.getElementById("ratingSaved").innerHTML; } } } function rateIt(me){ if(!rated){ document.getElementById("rateStatus").innerHTML = document.getElementById("ratingSaved").innerHTML + " "+me.title; preSet = me; rated=1; sendRate(me); rating(me); } } function sendRate(sel){ alert("Your rating was: "+sel.title); addRating("rating", "?truck=kogibbq?rating="+ sel.id); } function addRating(servletName, servletArguments){ var servlet = servletName; var arg = servletArguments var req = servlet + arg; alert(req); addrequest(req); request.onreadystatechange = function(){ alert("response received"); } } function addrequest(req) { try { request = new XMLHttpRequest(); }catch (e) { try { request = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); }catch (e) { alert("XMLHttpRequest error: " + e); } } request.open("GET", element, true); request.send(null); return request; } Thanks.

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  • Link Error : xxx is already defined in *****.LIB :: What exactly is wrong?

    - by claws
    Problem: I'm trying to use a library named DCMTK which used some other external libraries ( zlib, libtiff, libpng, libxml2, libiconv ). I've downloaded these external libraries (*.LIB & *.h files ) from the same website. Now, when I compile the DCMTK library I'm getting link errors (793 errors) like this: Error 2 error LNK2005: __encode_pointer already defined in MSVCRTD.lib(MSVCR90D.dll) LIBCMTD.lib dcmmkdir Error 3 error LNK2005: __decode_pointer already defined in MSVCRTD.lib(MSVCR90D.dll) LIBCMTD.lib dcmmkdir Error 4 error LNK2005: __CrtSetCheckCount already defined in MSVCRTD.lib(MSVCR90D.dll) LIBCMTD.lib dcmmkdir Error 5 error LNK2005: __invoke_watson already defined in MSVCRTD.lib(MSVCR90D.dll) LIBCMTD.lib dcmmkdir Error 6 error LNK2005: __errno already defined in MSVCRTD.lib(MSVCR90D.dll) LIBCMTD.lib dcmmkdir Error 7 error LNK2005: __configthreadlocale already defined in MSVCRTD.lib(MSVCR90D.dll) LIBCMTD.lib dcmmkdir Error 8 error LNK2005: _exit already defined in MSVCRTD.lib(MSVCR90D.dll) LIBCMTD.lib dcmmkdir Documentation: This seems to be a popular error for this library so, they do have a FAQ entry addressing this issue which ( http://forum.dcmtk.org/viewtopic.php?t=35 ) says: The problem is that the linker tries to combine different, incompatible versions of the Visual C++ runtime library into a single binary. This happens when not all parts of your project and the libraries you link against are generated with the same code generation options in Visual C++. Do not use the /NODEFAULTLIB workaround, because strange software crashes may follow. Fix the problem! DCMTK is by default compiled with the "Multithreaded" or "Multithreaded Debug" code generation option (the latter for Debug mode). Either change the project settings of all of your code to use these code generation options, or change the code generation for all DCMTK modules and re-compile. MFC users beware: DCMTK should be compiled with "Multithreaded DLL" or "Multithreaded DLL Debug" settings if you want to link the libraries into an MFC application. Solution to same problem for others: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2259697/vscopengl-huge-amount-of-linker-issues-with-release-build-only says: It seems that your release build is trying to link to something that was built debug. You probably have a broken dependency in your build, (or you missed rebuilding something to release by hand if your project is normally built in pieces). More technically, you seem to be linking projects built with different C Run Time library settings, one with "Multi-Threaded", another one with "Multi-Threaded Debug". Adjust the settings for all the projects to use the very same flavour of the library and the issue should go away Questions: Till now I used to think that Name mangling is the only problem that may cause linking failures if its not been standardized. Just now I knew there are other things also which can cause same effect. Whats up with the "Debug Mode" (Multi-Threaded Debug) and "Release Mode" (Multi-Threaded)? What exactly is happening under the hood? Why exactly this thing is causing linking error? I wonder if there is something called "Single-Threaded Debug" and "Single-Threaded" which again causes the same thing. Documentation talks something about "Code Generation Options". What Code Generation Options? WTH are they? Documentation specifically warns us not to use /NODEFAULTLIB workaround. (example /NODEFAULTLIB :msvcrt ). Why? How would I cause troubles? what exactly is it? Please explain the last point in the documentation for MFC users. Because I'm going to use MFC later in this project. Explain Why should we do it? What troubles would it cause if I don't. Anything more you'd like to mention? I mean regarding similar errors. I'm very interested in Linker & its problems. So, if there are any similar things you can mentions them or some keywords atleast.

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  • Java Applet Deployment, ClassNotFoundException (primary class)

    - by Matt
    This is driving me up the wall. I have checked and rechecked spelling and paths. I have tried just about every combination of paths, including relative, absolute, and full http paths. I continue to get the following error when trying to load a Java applet: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: AppletClient.class at sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2ClassLoader.loadCode(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager.createApplet(Unknown Source) at sun.plugin2.applet.Plugin2Manager$AppletExecutionRunnable.run(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Thread.run(Unknown Source) Exception: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: AppletClient.class The HTML used to load the applet: <applet width="100" height="100" archive="applet/myapplet.jar, applet/applet_dependency.jar" code="AppletClient.class"> <param value="blahblah" name="username"> <param value="false" name="codebase_lookup"> </applet> The applet is in a relative directory, "applet", from the path of the current page. I have unzipped the jar file and can see AppletClient.class. Also, in the source of the project, it is spelled that way (casing and all). I have tried with/without the parameters. I have changed the names of the archive jars in the applet include tag just to see if I get a different error for bad file names (same error). I have manually done GETs on the jars to make sure the server is responding to the requests (it is). I have tried with and without the codebase tag, with all different varieties of paths (start getting bad "magic number" errors on those). I know that this error sometimes pops up when a dependency fails to load, so it can be misleading, but all dependencies are present, accounted for, and are fetchable via manual GETs. Between each and every attempt I always clear my cache in FireFox. These problems are reproduced in IE8 and Chrome as well. Per my Java Console from the browser, I am running Java Plug-in 1.6.0_20. This is from the same machine that I develop the applet on, which runs fine via Eclipse. Finally, I kicked on Fiddler2, and I don't see a single request for the jar files anywhere The host site is running from my Visual Studio debugger, so it's running on localhost. But I see the requests for all the other resources on Fiddler. Just... no Jars. ANYWHERE. I clear the log, cleared my browser cache, and did a ctrl-R refresh. And still, not a single Jar request on the Fiddler log. I even did a delayed write (with JS) of the applet tag after the page loaded, once all the Fiddler activity slowed down. The element gets written to the document (and I can see the 100x100 Java error window), but not a single request shows up on Fiddler. Any suggestions, before I go crawl into the corner and cry myself to sleep? EDIT: From the Java console, if I hit "l" (el) to "dump classloader list", I see something that looks like this: Live entry: key=http://localhost:55446/BaseWebSite/,http://localhost:55446/BaseWebSite/applet/myappliet.jar, http://localhost:55446/BaseWebSite/applet/applet_dependency.jar, refCount=1, threadGroup=sun.plugin2.applet.Applet2ThreadGroup[name=http://localhost:55446/BaseWebSite/-threadGroup,maxpri=4]

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  • Serious problem with WCF, GridViews, Callbacks and ExecuteReaders exceptions.

    - by barjed
    Hi, I have this problem that is driving me insane. I have a project to deliver before Thursday. Basically an app consiting of three components that communicate with each other in WCF. I have one console app and one Windows Forms app. The console app is a server that's connected to the database. You can add records to it via the Windows Forms client that connectes with the server through the WCF. The code for the client: namespace BankAdministratorClient { [CallbackBehavior(ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Single, UseSynchronizationContext = false)] public partial class Form1 : Form, BankServverReference.BankServerCallback { private BankServverReference.BankServerClient server = null; private SynchronizationContext interfaceContext = null; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); interfaceContext = SynchronizationContext.Current; server = new BankServverReference.BankServerClient(new InstanceContext(this), "TcpBinding"); server.Open(); server.Subscribe(); refreshGridView(""); } public void refreshClients(string s) { SendOrPostCallback callback = delegate(object state) { refreshGridView(s); }; interfaceContext.Post(callback, s); } public void refreshGridView(string s) { try { userGrid.DataSource = server.refreshDatabaseConnection().Tables[0]; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()); } } private void buttonAdd_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { server.addNewAccount(Int32.Parse(inputPIN.Text), Int32.Parse(inputBalance.Text)); } private void Form1_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { try { server.Unsubscribe(); server.Close(); }catch{} } } } The code for the server: namespace SSRfinal_tcp { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine(MessageHandler.dataStamp("The server is starting up")); using (ServiceHost server = new ServiceHost(typeof(BankServer))) { server.Open(); Console.WriteLine(MessageHandler.dataStamp("The server is running")); Console.ReadKey(); } } } [ServiceBehavior(ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Single, InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall, IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true)] public class BankServer : IBankServerService { private static DatabaseLINQConnectionDataContext database = new DatabaseLINQConnectionDataContext(); private static List<IBankServerServiceCallback> subscribers = new List<IBankServerServiceCallback>(); public void Subscribe() { try { IBankServerServiceCallback callback = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<IBankServerServiceCallback>(); if (!subscribers.Contains(callback)) subscribers.Add(callback); Console.WriteLine(MessageHandler.dataStamp("A new Bank Administrator has connected")); } catch { Console.WriteLine(MessageHandler.dataStamp("A Bank Administrator has failed to connect")); } } public void Unsubscribe() { try { IBankServerServiceCallback callback = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<IBankServerServiceCallback>(); if (subscribers.Contains(callback)) subscribers.Remove(callback); Console.WriteLine(MessageHandler.dataStamp("A Bank Administrator has been signed out from the connection list")); } catch { Console.WriteLine(MessageHandler.dataStamp("A Bank Administrator has failed to sign out from the connection list")); } } public DataSet refreshDatabaseConnection() { var q = from a in database.GetTable<Account>() select a; DataTable dt = q.toTable(rec => new object[] { q }); DataSet data = new DataSet(); data.Tables.Add(dt); Console.WriteLine(MessageHandler.dataStamp("A Bank Administrator has requested a database data listing refresh")); return data; } public void addNewAccount(int pin, int balance) { Account acc = new Account() { PIN = pin, Balance = balance, IsApproved = false }; database.Accounts.InsertOnSubmit(acc); database.SubmitChanges(); database.addNewAccount(pin, balance, false); subscribers.ForEach(delegate(IBankServerServiceCallback callback) { callback.refreshClients("New operation is pending approval."); }); } } } This is really simple and it works for a single window. However, when you open multiple instances of the client window and try to add a new record, the windows that is performing the insert operation crashes with the ExecuteReader error and the " requires an open and available connection. the connection's current state is connecting" bla bla stuff. I have no idea what's going on. Please advise.

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  • Core Data migration problem: "Persistent store migration failed, missing source managed object model

    - by John Gallagher
    The Background A Cocoa Non Document Core Data project with two Managed Object Models. Model 1 stays the same. Model 2 has changed, so I want to migrate the store. I've created a new version by Design Data Model Add Model Version in Xcode. The difference between versions is a single relationship that's been changed from to a one to many. I've made my changes to the model, then saved. I've made a new Mapping Model that has the old model as a source and new model as a destination. I've ensured all Mapping Models and Data Models and are being compiled and all are copied to the Resource folder of my app bundle. I've switched on migrations by passing in a dictionary with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption key as [NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] when adding the Persistent Store. Rather than merging all models in the bundle, I've specified the two models I want to use (model 1 and the new version of model 2) and merged them using modelByMergingModels: The Problem No matter what I do to migrate, I get the error message: "Persistent store migration failed, missing source managed object model." What I've Tried I clean after every single build. I've tried various combinations of having only the model I'm migrating to in Resources, being compiled, or both. Since the error message implies it can't find the source model for my migration, I've tried having every version of the model in both the Resources folder and being compiled. I've made sure I'm not making a really basic error by switching back to the original version of my data model. The app runs fine. I've deleted the Mapping Model and the new version of the model, cleaned, then recreated both. I've tried making a different change in the new model - deleting an entity instead. I'm at my wits end. I can't help but think I've made a huge mistake somewhere that I'm not seeing. Any ideas?

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  • Box2d: Set active and inactive

    - by Rosarch
    I'm writing an XNA game in C# using the XNA port of Box2d - Box2dx. Entities like trees or zombies are represented as GameObjects. GameObjectManager adds and removes them from the game world: /// <summary> /// Does the work of removing the GameObject. /// </summary> /// <param name="controller">The GameObject to be removed.</param> private void removeGameObjectFromWorld(GameObjectController controller) { controllers.Remove(controller); worldState.Models.Remove(controller.Model); controller.Model.Body.SetActive(false); } public void addGameObjectToWorld(GameObjectController controller) { controllers.Add(controller); worldState.Models.Add(controller.Model); controller.Model.Body.SetActive(true); } controllers is a collection of GameObjectController instances. worldState.Models is a collection of GameObjectModel instances. When I remove GameObjects from Box2d this way, this method gets called: void IContactListener.EndContact(Contact contact) { GameObjectController collider1 = worldQueryUtils.gameObjectOfBody(contact.GetFixtureA().GetBody()); GameObjectController collider2 = worldQueryUtils.gameObjectOfBody(contact.GetFixtureB().GetBody()); collisionRecorder.removeCollision(collider1, collider2); } worldQueryUtils: // this could be cached if we know bodies never change public GameObjectController gameObjectOfBody(Body body) { return worldQueryEngine.GameObjectsForPredicate(x => x.Model.Body == body).Single(); } This method throws an error: System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="Sequence contains no elements" Source="System.Core" StackTrace: at System.Linq.Enumerable.Single[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at etc Why is this happening? What can I do to avoid it? This method has been called many times before the body.SetActive() was called. I feel that this may be messing it up.

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  • DRY Validation with MVC2

    - by Matthew
    Hi All, I'm trying to figure out how I can define validation rules for my domain objects in one single location within my application but have run in to a snag... Some background: My location has several parts: - Database - DAL - Business Logic Layer - SOAP API Layer - MVC website The MVC website accesses the database via the SOAP API, just as third parties would. We are using server and and client side validation on the MVC website as well as in the SOAP API Layer. To avoid having to manually write client side validation we are implementing strongly typed views in conjunction with the Html.TextBoxFor and Html.ValidationMessageFor HTML helpers, as shown in Step 3 here. We also create custom models for each form where one form takes input for multiple domain objects. This is where the problem begins, the HTML helpers read from the model for the data annotation validation attributes. In most cases our forms deal with multiple domain objects and you can't specify more than one type in the <%@Page ... Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" % page directive. So we are forced to create a custom model class, which would mean duplicating validation attributes from the domain objects on to the model class. I've spent quite some time looking for workarounds to this, such has referencing the same MetadataType from both the domain class and the custom MVC models, but that won't work for several reasons: You can only specify one MetadataType attribute per class, so its a problem if a model references multiple domain objects, each with their own metadata type. The data annotation validation code throws an exception if the model class doesn't contain a property that is specified in the referenced MetadataType which is a problem with the model only deals with a subset of the properties for a given domain object. I've looked at other solutions as well but to no avail. If anyone has any ideas on how to achieve a single source for validation logic that would work across MVC client and server side validation functionality and other locations (such as my SOAP API) I would love to hear it! Thanks in advance, Matthew

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  • Sharing a session between vBulletin forum and status.net microblogging platform

    - by jaz
    Hello, I need to integrate vBulletin 4.0.3 Publishing Suite with status.net microblogging platform. The first thing I need to do is make these 2 to share 1 session so a user logged in vBulletin forums will also be logged in to status.net and vice versa. I have installed different vBulletin components under different subdomains: forums.sample.com - vBulletin forums blogs.sample.com - vBulletin blogs sample.com - vBulletin content management All of these point to the same place (.../public_html/index.php) which includes the respective php file (content.php for sample.com | blog.php for blogs.sample.com | forum.php for forums.sample.com) depending on the $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] I have configured vBulletin to use a single cookie.domain (.sample.com) for all of these 3 domains so visiting different domains doesn't break the session. I also have status.sample.com, which is the subdomain where status.net is installed. The subdomain configuration is different so the document_root is actually a subfolder (.../public_html/status/) in sample.com Now, can you please give me some pointers on how to make all these subdomains share a single session? I'm not sure if it helps, but as I understand, status.net does no custom session handling by default, but it is possible to turn it on so it will start storing session data in a database table called "session". Any tips will be appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Adding ComboBoxItem to ComboBox Issue in Silverlight 4

    - by AlishahNovin
    I recently upgraded my Silverlight app from 3 to 4. After a few hours of bashing my head against the wall, trying to resolve an issue, I've narrowed down the problem to this: I have a user control, with a ComboBox inside it. The ComboBox has a single ComboBoxItem child. The user control exposes a get accessors that returns the ComboBox's Items object, allowing me to add additional ComboBoxItems via xaml. This all worked fine in Silverlight 3, however it's not working in Silverlight 4. As code: //XAML <UserControl ... > <ComboBox Name="myComboBox"> <ComboBoxItem Content="Select an Item" /> </ComboBox> <!-- All my other stuff --> </UserControl> //Code behind public ItemCollection ListItems { get { return myComboBox.Items; } } //Implementation of User-Control <CustomControl:UserControl ... > <CustomControl:UserControl.ListItems> <ComboBoxItem Content="Item 1" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Item 2" /> <ComboBoxItem Content="Item 3" /> </CustomControl:UserControl.ListItems> </CustomControl:UserControl> As I mentioned, this all worked fine in Silverlight 3, but doesn't work in Silverlight 4. The workaround, it seems, is to remove that single ComboBoxItem that's inside my user-control, but I'm hoping to avoid, as I want it as the default item. Any help would be much appreciated!

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  • Invalid format for New Relic licence when installing on Elastic Beanstalk

    - by BenFreke
    We've created an app that is running on an Elastic Beanstalk instance, 64 bit PHP version 5.4 (so not legacy). I've used the New Relic installation instructions to install New Relic, and viewing phpinfo shows that New Relic is installed. However, I'm not getting any data in New Relic and that is because it is saying that the licence is ***invalid format*** under newrelic.licence I'm getting the licence from my New Relic account, and it is a 40 character hexadecimal string. Here is the current newrelic.config file in the .ebextensions folder I'm using, with most of the licence key commented out. packages: yum: newrelic-php5: [] rpm: newrelic: http://yum.newrelic.com/pub/newrelic/el5/x86_64/newrelic-repo-5-3.noarch.rpm commands: configure_new_relic: command: newrelic-install install env: NR_INSTALL_SILENT: true NR_INSTALL_KEY: ec9a4... Skitch of relevant phpinfo Can anyone shed some light on what's going on here? I've tried two different New Relic licence keys with the same error, I've also surrounded it with a single quote mark and tried uppercase only. And at this point I'm out of ideas on what to try. We're not AWS gurus so it could very easily be something simple like not opening a port to allow the licence to be validated?

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  • WCF service with Factory attribute on .svc is not working on web server (IIS6), but is locally using

    - by Jessica
    I am working on implementing a non web.config approach of WCF services using the factory attribute on the .svc file per Rick Strahl's blog post: Factory="System.ServiceModel.Activation.WebScriptServiceHostFactory" Locally, I am running IIS7 in Visual Studio 2008 and have no problem, but when I deploy to my web server (currently running IIS6), I am getting an authentication error in the event log: Exception: System.ServiceModel.ServiceActivationException: The service '/Services/ResourcesService.svc' cannot be activated due to an exception during compilation. The exception message is: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used.. --- System.InvalidOperationException: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. at System.ServiceModel.Web.WebServiceHost.SetBindingCredentialBasedOnHostedEnvironment(ServiceEndpoint serviceEndpoint, AuthenticationSchemes supportedSchemes) at System.ServiceModel.Web.WebServiceHost.AddAutomaticWebHttpBindingEndpoints(ServiceHost host, IDictionary`2 implementedContracts, String multipleContractsErrorMessage) at System.ServiceModel.WebScriptServiceHost.OnOpening() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open() at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostingEnvironment.HostingManager.ActivateService(String normalizedVirtualPath) at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostingEnvironment.HostingManager.EnsureServiceAvailable(String normalizedVirtualPath) After doing some Googling, I changed my authentication settings on the .svc folder within my project (on the server) to only anonymous authentication, but it did not work. I still get web service failed on the calls. IIS7 by default only had anonymous. I do not have any entries in my web.config for the services (I stripped them out per this pattern). I am using a nant script to deploy the website to the server and use this also locally to verify the script was not causing the issue. Any known issue with this? IIS 6 not able to handle?

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  • SSRS 2008 and SSAS 2008 transport error

    - by dan english
    I am testing an upgrade to SSAS 2008 and verifying existing reports working properly. I am able to get some SSRS reports that are using SSAS as a datasource to run without any issues. They are simple and only have a single dataset. The reports that I am unable to get to work correctly against SSAS 2008 have multiple datasets and have a fitler setup with a data range setup as a parameter. As soon as I setup that filter as a parameter and deploy them the report returns a "The connection either timed out or was lost. Unable to read data from the transport connection: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host" message. The funny thing is that the report works fine when I run it locally in BIDS and it works fine once deployed if I point it to a SSAS 2005 server. Once I point it to the SSAS 2008 server it fails. I can get other reports to work fine, but not the ones with this type of a filter setup. I can see that the start and end date parameter MDX statements get run in the trace, but that is it. After those run then we receive the transport connection message. Another funny thing is that in the production environment the reports are working fine, but that has SSRS 2005 and SSAS 2008. Does this make sense? What could be causing this? I have tried setting the single transaction level on the datasource too, but that does not seem to make a difference.

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  • MVC2 Apps (and others) sharing WCF services and authentication

    - by stupid-phil
    Hi, I've seen several similar scenarios explained here but not my particular one. I wonder if someone could tell me which direction to go in? I am developing two (and more later) MVC2 apps. There will also be another (thicker) client later on (WPF or Silverlight, TBD). These all need to share the same authentication. For the MVC2 apps they (preferably) need to be single log on - ie if a user logs in to one MVC2 app, they should be authorised on the other, as long as the cookie hasn't timed out. Forms authentication is to be used. All the apps need to use common business functionality and perform db access via a common WCF Service App. It would be nice (I think) if the WCF is not publicly accessible (ie blocked behind FW). The thicker client could use an additional service layer to access the Common WCF App. What this should look like is: MVCApp1 - WCFAppCommon MVCApp2 - WCFAppCommon ThickClient - WCFApp2 - WCFAppCommon Is it possible to carry out all the authentication/authorization in the WCFAppCommon? Otherwise I think I'll have to repeat all the security logic in the MVCApps and WCFApp2, whereas, to me, it seems to sit naturally in WCFAppCommon. On the otherhand, it seems if I authenticate/authorize in WCFAppCommon, I wouldn't be able to use Forms Authentication. Where I've seen possible solutions (that I haven't tried yet) they seem much more complex than Forms Authentication and a single DB. Any help appreciated, Phil

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  • Thread-safe data structures

    - by Inso Reiges
    Hello, I have to design a data structure that is to be used in a multi-threaded environment. The basic API is simple: insert element, remove element, retrieve element, check that element exists. The structure's implementation uses implicit locking to guarantee the atomicity of a single API call. After i implemented this it became apparent, that what i really need is atomicity across several API calls. For example if a caller needs to check the existence of an element before trying to insert it he can't do that atomically even if each single API call is atomic: if(!data_structure.exists(element)) { data_structure.insert(element); } The example is somewhat awkward, but the basic point is that we can't trust the result of exists call anymore after we return from atomic context (the generated assembly clearly shows a minor chance of context switch between the two calls). What i currently have in mind to solve this is exposing the lock through the data structure's public API. This way clients will have to explicitly lock things, but at least they won't have to create their own locks. Is there a better commonly-known solution to these kinds of problems? And as long as we're at it, can you advise some good literature on thread-safe design? Thank you.

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  • SQLite vs Firebird

    - by rwallace
    The scenario I'm looking at is "This program uses Postgres. Oh, you want to just use it single-user for the moment, and put off having to deal with installing a database server? Okay, in the meantime you can use it with the embedded single-user database." The question is then which embedded database is best. As I understand it, the two main contenders are SQLite and Firebird; so which is better? Criteria: Full SQL support, or as close as reasonably possible. Full text search. Easy to call from C# Locks, or allows you to lock, the database file to make sure nobody tries to run it multiuser and ends up six months down the road with intermittent data corruption in all their backups. Last but far from least, reliability. As I understand it, the disadvantages of SQLite are, No right outer join. Workaround: use left outer join instead. Not much integrity checking. Workaround: be really careful in the application code. No decimal numbers. Workaround: lots of aspirin. None of the above are showstoppers. Are there any others I'm missing? (I know it doesn't support some administrative and code-within-database SQL features, that aren't relevant for this kind of use case.) I don't know anything much about Firebird. What are its disadvantages?

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  • How to disable authentication schemes for WCF Data Services

    - by Schneider
    When I deployed my WCF Data Services to production hosting I started to get the following error (or similar depending on which auth schemes are active): IIS specified authentication schemes 'Basic, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. Apparently WCF Data Services (WCF in general?) cannot handle having more than once authentication scheme active. OK so I am aware that I can disable all-but-one authentication scheme on the web application via IIS control panel .... via a support request!! Is there a way to specify a single authentication scheme on a per-service level in the web.config? I thought this might be as straight forward as making a change to <system.serviceModel> but... it turns out that WCF Data Services do not configure themselves in the web config. If you look at the DataService<> class it does not implement a [ServiceContract] hence you cannot refer to it in the <service><endpoint>...which I presume would be needed for changing its configuration via XML. P.S. Our host is using II6, but both solutions for IIS6 & IIS7 appreciated.

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  • Copy protection and licensing tools.

    - by Skittles
    I'm new to stackoverflow.com after hearing about it from Jon Skeet on DotNetRocks.This seems like the perfect place to ask this question. I am in the middle of trying to find a 3rd party Copy protection and licensing tool. The company that I work with have 4 products that need to be protected. We want to supply a Trail license (with extensions). A single user license and a floating license (where the client purchases a number to run over a network). We also want to be able to supply both the Single and Floating license as a subscription license. I have trialled DeployLX and although it seems to give everything that we need, and they are quick to answer emails, their documentation is truly awful with NO examples of how to achieve results. Has anyone any experience with DeployLX and if so, would you recommend it? Could you point me in the direction to find some real help on it? Finally, would anyone have any recommendations of a 3rd party licensing tool to use for very quick development. Thank you so much,

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  • using Quick Sequence Diagram Editor for sequence diagrams

    - by Jason S
    Anyone have experience with Quick Sequence Diagram Editor? The combination of instant display + text source code + Java implementation is very attractive to me, but I can't quite figure out how to make the syntax do what I want, and the documentation's not very clear. Here's a contrived example: al:Actor bill:Actor atm:ATM[a] bank:Bank[a] al:atm.give me $10 atm:al has $3=bank.check al's account balance al:atm.what time is it atm:al.it's now atm:al.stop bugging me atm:al.you only have $3 atm:bill.and don't you open your mouth bill:atm.who asked you? bill:atm.give me $20 al:atm.hey, I'm not finished! atm:bill has $765=bank.check bill's account balance atm:yes I'm sure, bill has $765=bank.hmm are you sure? atm:bill.here's $20, now go away atm:great, he's a cool dude=bank.I just gave Bill $20 al:atm.what about my $10? atm:al.read my lips: you only have $3 Here's the result from QSDE in single-threaded mode: and in multi-threaded mode: I guess I'm not clear what starts/ends those vertical bars. I have a situation which is single-threaded, but there's state involved, and all the messages are asynchronous. I guess that means I should use an external object to represent that state and its lifetime. What I want is for one timeline to represent the message sequence al:atm.give me $10 atm:bank.check al's account balance bank:atm.al has $3 atm:al.you only have $3 and another timeline to represent the message sequence bill:atm.give me $20 atm:bank.check bill's account balance bank:atm.bill has $765 atm:bank.hmm are you sure? bank:atm.yes I'm sure, bill has $765 atm:bill.here's $20, now go away atm:bank.I just gave Bill $20 bank:atm.great, he's a cool dude with the other "wisecracks" representing other miscellaneous messages that I don't care about right now. Is there a way to do this with QSDE?

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  • "Best" language /architecture for browser-based app with ODBC and sockets? (subjective)

    - by mawg
    Sorry to ask a subjective question, but I would welcome some advice. I am an experienced programmer of embedded s/w, but haven't done much network programming, although I have done a fair bit of hobbyist PHP. Anyway, I have to develop what is probably a fairly general type of app, as shown in this crude diagram --------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Browser / user interface Takes input from user form and writes data to d/b. | | Also gets data and updates browser contents when when d/b contents are changed | | because of info received over TCP/IP. | |________________________________________________________________________________| | ODBC | |_______________________________________________________________________________| | database | |_______________________________________________________________________________| | ODBC | |_______________________________________________________________________________| | Socket (TCP/IP) | | Send data out when d/b is updated from browser. | | Also, update d/b when data are received over TCP/IP. | |_______________________________________________________________________________| As I say, I imagine this to be a fairly typical architecture? Am I right? Then client is insisting on MSIE - unless I can show compelling technical reasons for FireFox or other then it will have to be MSIE (are there any compelling technical reasons?). So, with MIE (almost) a given, I had though to use PHP, since I know it, but the client seems awfully keen on Java (which ought to be OK since I am conversant with C++) it woudl seem to make sense to use the same language for the "upper" interface between the web pages (which that app generates) and the d/b, and for the "lower" interface between the d/b and the socket. (a single language means a single set of tools since text approach, etc) So, the (probably highly subjective) question is "which language shoudl I choose". As I say, the client is keen on Java. Any compelling reason why not? Is it generally a good choice for the sort of thing described here? Any other hints & tips gratefully appreciated (and up-voted): URLs, books, tool chain suggestions, etc, etc

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  • Encoding issue: Cocoa Error 261?

    - by Attacus
    So I'm fetching a JSON string from a php script in my iPhone app using: NSURL *baseURL = [NSURL URLWithString:@"test.php"]; NSError *encodeError = [[NSError alloc] init]; NSString *jsonString = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:baseURL encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding error:&encodeError]; NSLog(@"Error: %@", [encodeError localizedDescription]); NSLog(@"STRING: %@", jsonString); The JSON string validates when I test the output. Now I'm having an encoding issue. When I fetch a single echo'd line such as: { "testKey":"é" } (I'm aware I could\should be using NSUrlConnection for asynchronous fetching of data, but at this point in the app development, I don't really need it.) The JSON parser works fine and I am able to create a valid JSON object. However, when I fetch my 2MB JSON string, I get presented with: Error: Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 261.) and a Null string. My PHP file is UTF8 itself and I am not using utf8_encode() because that seems to double encode the data since I'm already pulling the data as NSUTF8StringEncoding. Either way, in my single-echo test, it's the approach that allowed me to successfully log \ASDAS style UTF8 escapes when building the JSON object. What could be causing the error in the case of the larger string? Also, I'm not sure if it makes a difference, but I'm using the php function addslashes() on my parsed php data to account for quotes and such when building the JSON string.

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  • Preloading multiple comboboxes/listbox itemssource with enumerated values using WCF RIA Services

    - by Dale Halliwell
    I would like to be able to load several RIA entitysets in a single call without chaining/nesting several small LoadOperations together so that they load sequentially. I have several pages that have a number of comboboxes on them. These comboboxes are populated with static values from a database (for example status values). Right now I preload these values in my VM by one method that strings together a series of LoadOperations for each type that I want to load. For example: public void LoadEnums() { context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues1Query()).Completed += (s, e) => { this.StatusValues1 = context.StatusValues1; context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues2()).Completed += (s1, e1) => { this.StatusValues2 = context.StatusValues2; context.Load(context.GetMyStatusValues3Query()).Completed += (s2, e2) => { this.StatusValues3 = context.StatusValues3; (....and so on) }; }; }; }; While this works fine, it seems a bit nasty. Also, I would like to know when the last loadoperation completes so that I can load whatever entity I want to work on after this, so that these enumerated values resolve properly in form elements like comboboxes and listboxes. (I think) I can't do this easily above without creating a delegate and calling that on the completion of the last loadoperation. So my question is: does anyone out there know a better pattern to use, ideally where I can load all my static entitysets in a single LoadOperation?

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  • Web application creation in IIS7 via MS.Web.Admin

    - by Jon Ownbey
    I am attempting to create seperate workflow instances as applications in IIS7 using the Microsoft.Web.Administration dll. When it attempts to add the Application to the Site ApplicationsCollection I get a COM error: "Invalid application path\r\n" using (ServerManager manager = new ServerManager()) { var site = manager.Sites.Where(x => x.Name == Properties.Settings.Default.WorkflowWebsiteName).Single(); StringBuilder stringBuilder = new StringBuilder() .Append(m_workflowDefinition.AccountId) .Append("/") .Append(m_workflowDefinition.WorkflowDefinitionId) .Append("/") .Append(m_workflowDefinition.Version) .Append("/"); string virtualPath = stringBuilder.ToString(); string physicalPath = Properties.Settings.Default.ApplicationPoolString + virtualPath.Replace("/", "\\"); if (!Directory.Exists(physicalPath)) Directory.CreateDirectory(physicalPath); //Create the workflow service definition file using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(Path.Combine(physicalPath, m_workflowDefinition.WorkflowName + WORKFLOW_FILE_EXTENSION))) { writer.Write(m_workflowDefinition.Definition); } //Copy dependencies string dependencyPath = m_workflowDefinition.DependenciesPath; CopyAll(new DirectoryInfo(dependencyPath), new DirectoryInfo(physicalPath)); //Create a new IIS application for the workflow var apps = site.Applications.Where(x => x.Path == virtualPath); if (apps.Count() > 0) { site.Applications.Remove(apps.Single()); } Application app = site.Applications.Add(virtualPath, physicalPath); app.ApplicationPoolName = "Workflow AppPool"; app.EnabledProtocols = PROTOCOLS; manager.CommitChanges(); } The value assigned to virtualPath is like: "something/something/something" and for physicalPath it is "c:\inetpub\wwwroot\Workflow\something\something\something". Any ideas? Any help is greatly appreciated.

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