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  • iPhone: Create a single UIView from multiple clicks

    - by Cuzog
    I'm making a partial overlay modal in my app with the code from “Semi-Modal (Transparent) Dialogs on the iPhone” at ramin.firoozye.com. In doing so, the button that calls the modal is still visible and clickable. I will hide this button when the modal spawns, but I want to be sure if the user clicks very quickly twice, a new modal doesn't come up for each click. What is the best way to check that the modal doesn't already exist when calling it from the button click? You can download the test project here. For those that don't have xcode, the relevant functions are below: I call forth the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)displayModal:(id)sender { ModalViewController *modalController = [[ModalViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ModalViewController" bundle:nil]; modalController.view.frame = CGRectOffset(modalController.view.frame, 0, 230); [self showModal:modalController.view]; } Then use this function to animate the custom modal over the current view: - (void)showModal:(UIView*) modalView { UIWindow* mainWindow = (((TestAppDelegate*) [UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate).window); CGPoint middleCenter = modalView.center; CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); modalView.center = offScreenCenter; // we start off-screen [mainWindow addSubview:modalView]; // Show it with a transition effect [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.4]; // animation duration in seconds modalView.center = middleCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } Then I dismiss the modal on button click with this: - (IBAction)dismissModal:(id)sender { [self hideModal:self.view]; } And then use these functions to animate the modal offscreen and clean itself up: - (void)hideModal:(UIView*) modalView { CGSize offSize = [UIScreen mainScreen].bounds.size; CGPoint offScreenCenter = CGPointMake(offSize.width / 2.0, offSize.height * 1.5); [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:modalView]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.7]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(hideModalEnded:finished:context:)]; modalView.center = offScreenCenter; [UIView commitAnimations]; } - (void)hideModalEnded:(NSString *)animationID finished:(NSNumber *)finished context:(void *)context { UIView* modalView = (UIView *)context; [modalView removeFromSuperview]; [self release]; } Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Running OpenMPI on Windows XP

    - by iamweird
    Hi there. I'm trying to build a simple cluster based on Windows XP. I compiled OpenMPI-1.4.2 successfully, and tools like mpicc and ompi_info work too, but I can't get my mpirun working properly. The only output I can see is Z:\orterun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname [host0:04728] Failed to initialize COM library. Error code = -2147417850 [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\mca\ess\hnp\ess_hnp_module.c at line 218 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_plm_init failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\openmpi-1.4.2 \orte\runtime\orte_init.c at line 132 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- It looks like orte_init failed for some reason; your parallel process is likely to abort. There are many reasons that a parallel process can fail during orte_init; some of which are due to configuration or environment problems. This failure appears to be an internal failure; here's some additional information (which may only be relevant to an Open MPI developer): orte_ess_set_name failed -- Returned value Error (-1) instead of ORTE_SUCCESS -------------------------------------------------------------------------- [host0:04728] [[8946,0],0] ORTE_ERROR_LOG: Error in file ..\..\..\..\openmpi -1.4.2\orte\tools\orterun\orterun.c at line 543 Where z:\hosts.txt appears as follows: host0 host1 Z: is a shared network drive available to both host0 and host1. What my problem is and how do I fix it? Upd: Ok, this problem seems to be fixed. It seems to me that WideCap driver and/or software components causes this error to appear. A "clean" machine runs local task successfully. Anyway, I still cannot run a task within at least 2 machines, I'm getting following message: Z:\mpirun --hostfile z:\hosts.txt -np 2 hostname connecting to host1 username:cluster password:******** Save Credential?(Y/N) y [host0:04728] This feature hasn't been implemented yet. [host0:04728] Could not connect to namespace cimv2 on node host1. Error code =-2147024891 -------------------------------------------------------------------------- mpirun was unable to start the specified application as it encountered an error. More information may be available above. -------------------------------------------------------------------------- I googled a little and did all the things as described here: http://www.open-mpi.org/community/lists/users/2010/03/12355.php but I'm still getting the same error. Can anyone help me? Upd2: Error code -2147024891 might be WMI error WBEM_E_INVALID_PARAMETER (0x80041008) which occures when one of the parameters passed to the WMI call is not correct. Does this mean that the problem is in OpenMPI source code itself? Or maybe it's because of wrong/outdated wincred.h and credui.lib I used while building OpenMPI from the source code?

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  • Spring MVC, REST, and HATEOAS

    - by SingleShot
    I'm struggling with the correct way to implement Spring MVC 3.x RESTful services with HATEOAS. Consider the following constraints: I don't want my domain entities polluted with web/rest constructs. I don't want my controllers polluted with view constructs. I want to support multiple views. Currently I have a nicely put together MVC app without HATEOAS. Domain entities are pure POJOs without any view or web/rest concepts embedded. For example: class User { public String getName() {...} public String setName(String name) {...} ... } My controllers are also simple. They provide routing and status, and delegate to Spring's view resolution framework. Note my application supports JSON, XML, and HTML, yet no domain entities or controllers have embedded view information: @Controller @RequestMapping("/users") class UserController { @RequestMapping public ModelAndView getAllUsers() { List<User> users = userRepository.findAll(); return new ModelAndView("users/index", "users", users); } @RequestMapping("/{id}") public ModelAndView getUser(@PathVariable Long id) { User user = userRepository.findById(id); return new ModelAndView("users/show", "user", user); } } So, now my issue - I'm not sure of a clean way to support HATEOAS. Here's an example. Let's say when the client asks for a User in JSON format, it comes out like this: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" } Let's also say that when I support HATEOAS, I want the JSON to contain a simple "self" link that the client can then use to refresh the object, delete it, or something else. It might also have a "friends" link indicating how to get the user's list of friends: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith", links: [ { rel: "self", ref: "http://myserver/users/1" }, { rel: "friends", ref: "http://myserver/users/1/friends" } ] } Somehow I want to attach links to my object. I feel the right place to do this is in the controller layer as the controllers all know the correct URLs. Additionally, since I support multiple views, I feel like the right thing to do is somehow decorate my domain entities in the controller before they are converted to JSON/XML/whatever in Spring's view resolution framework. One way to do this might be to wrap the POJO in question with a generic Resource class that contains a list of links. Some view tweaking would be required to crunch it into the format I want, but its doable. Unfortunately nested resources could not be wrapped in this way. Other things that come to mind include adding links to the ModelAndView, and then customizing each of Spring's out-of-the-box view resolvers to stuff links into the generated JSON/XML/etc. What I don't want is to be constantly hand-crafting JSON/XML/etc. to accommodate various links as they come and go during the course of development. Thoughts?

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  • .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

    - by Groxx
    I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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  • How to configure path to mappings to be used in hibernate.cfg.xml with maven (hbm2cfgxml)

    - by user342358
    Hi, can any one tell me how to force maven to precede mapping .hbm.xml files in the automatically generated hibernate.cfg.xml file with package path? My general idea is, I'd like to use hibernate-tools via maven to generate the persistence layer for my application. So, I need the hibernate.cfg.xml, then all my_table_names.hbm.xml and at the end the POJO's generated. Yet, the hbm2java goal won't work as I put *.hbm.xml files into the src/main/resources/package/path/ folder but hbm2cfgxml specifies the mapping files only by table name, i.e.: <mapping resource="MyTableName.hbm.xml" /> So the big question is: how can I configure hbm2cfgxml so that hibernate.cfg.xml looks like below: <mapping resource="package/path/MyTableName.hbm.xml" /> My pom.xml looks like this at the moment: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>hibernate3-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.2</version> <executions> <execution> <id>hbm2cfgxml</id> <phase>generate-sources</phase> <goals> <goal>hbm2cfgxml</goal> </goals> <inherited>false</inherited> <configuration> <components> <component> <name>hbm2cfgxml</name> <implemetation>jdbcconfiguration</implementation> <outputDirectory>src/main/resources/</outputDirectory> </component> </components> <componentProperties> <packagename>package.path</packageName> <configurationFile>src/main/resources/hibernate.cfg.xml</configurationFile> </componentProperties> </configuration> </execution> </executions> </plugin> And then the second question: is there a way to tell maven to copy resources to the target folder before executing hbm2java? At the moment I'm using mvn clean resources:resources generate-sources for that, but there must be a better way. Thanks for any help.

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • controlling the class names generated by JAXB for xsd:attributeGroup?

    - by Stephen Winnall
    I am using JAXB to bind XML to Java for an application that I am writing. I have an element called measure which contains two amount elements called amount and maxAmount, with which I want to model a lower and an upper limiting value. amount and maxAmount are otherwise identical and I would like them to be implemented with the same class when unmarshalled into Java. The following is an extract from the XML schema which I feed to JAXB: <xsd:attributeGroup name="AmountAttributes"> <xsd:attribute name="quantity" type="xsd:decimal"/> <xsd:attribute name="numerator" type="xsd:nonNegativeInteger"/> <xsd:attribute name="denominator" type="xsd:positiveInteger"/> </xsd:attributeGroup> <xsd:element name="measure"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element minOccurs="0" name="amount"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:attributeGroup ref="mpr:AmountAttributes"/> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> <xsd:element minOccurs="0" name="maxAmount"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:attributeGroup ref="mpr:AmountAttributes"/> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> JAXB creates from this a more elaborate version of the following: public class Measure { protected Measure.Amount amount; protected Measure.MaxAmount maxAmount; public static class Measure.Amount {} public static class Measure.MaxAmount {} } Measure.Amount and Measure.MaxAmount are identical except for their names, but - of course - as far as Java is concerned they have little to do with each other. Is there a way of making JAXB use the same class for both amount and maxAmount? Just to come completely clean ;-) I should mention that I generate the XML schema from RNC using Trang. If the answer to the question is "change the XML schema", I have the supplementary question "how do I change the RNC to produce that XML schema?". My RNC looks like this: AmountAttributes = QuantityAttribute? & attribute numerator { xsd:nonNegativeInteger }? & attribute denominator { xsd:positiveInteger }? QuantityAttribute = attribute quantity { xsd:decimal } Measure = element measure { element amount { AmountAttributes }?, element maxAmount { AmountAttributes }? }+ I use RNC because I find it simpler to understand, but if the solution to my problem means just using XML Schema, so be it. Steve

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  • Correlation formula explanation needed d3.js

    - by divakar
    function getCorrelation(xArray, yArray) { alert(xArray); alert(yArray); function sum(m, v) {return m + v;} function sumSquares(m, v) {return m + v * v;} function filterNaN(m, v, i) {isNaN(v) ? null : m.push(i); return m;} // clean the data (because we know that some values are missing) var xNaN = _.reduce(xArray, filterNaN , []); var yNaN = _.reduce(yArray, filterNaN , []); var include = _.intersection(xNaN, yNaN); var fX = _.map(include, function(d) {return xArray[d];}); var fY = _.map(include, function(d) {return yArray[d];}); var sumX = _.reduce(fX, sum, 0); var sumY = _.reduce(fY, sum, 0); var sumX2 = _.reduce(fX, sumSquares, 0); var sumY2 = _.reduce(fY, sumSquares, 0); var sumXY = _.reduce(fX, function(m, v, i) {return m + v * fY[i];}, 0); var n = fX.length; var ntor = ( ( sumXY ) - ( sumX * sumY / n) ); var dtorX = sumX2 - ( sumX * sumX / n); var dtorY = sumY2 - ( sumY * sumY / n); var r = ntor / (Math.sqrt( dtorX * dtorY )); // Pearson ( http://www.stat.wmich.edu/s216/book/node122.html ) var m = ntor / dtorX; // y = mx + b var b = ( sumY - m * sumX ) / n; // console.log(r, m, b); return {r: r, m: m, b: b}; } I have finding correlation between the points i plot using this function which is not written by me. my xarray=[120,110,130,132,120,118,134,105,120,0,0,0,0,137,125,120,127,120,160,120,148] yarray=[80,70,70,80,70,62,69,70,70,62,90,42,80,72,0,0,0,0,78,82,68,60,58,82,60,76,86,82,70] I can t able to understand the function perfectly. Can anybody explain it with the data i pasted here. I also wanted to remove the zeros getting calculated from this function.

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  • How do I use Ruby metaprogramming to refactor this common code?

    - by James Wenton
    I inherited a project with a lot of badly-written Rake tasks that I need to clean up a bit. Because the Rakefiles are enormous and often prone to bizarre nonsensical dependencies, I'm simplifying and isolating things a bit by refactoring everything to classes. Specifically, that pattern is the following: namespace :foobar do desc "Frozz the foobar." task :frozzify do unless Rake.application.lookup('_frozzify') require 'tasks/foobar' Foobar.new.frozzify end Rake.application['_frozzify'].invoke end # Above pattern repeats many times. end # Several namespaces, each with tasks that follow this pattern. In tasks/foobar.rb, I have something that looks like this: class Foobar def frozzify() # The real work happens here. end # ... Other tasks also in the :foobar namespace. end For me, this is great, because it allows me to separate the task dependencies from each other and to move them to another location entirely, and I've been able to drastically simplify things and isolate the dependencies. The Rakefile doesn't hit a require until you actually try to run a task. Previously this was causing serious issues because you couldn't even list the tasks without it blowing up. My problem is that I'm repeating this idiom very frequently. Notice the following patterns: For every namespace :xyz_abc, there is a corresponding class in tasks/... in the file tasks/[namespace].rb, with a class name that looks like XyzAbc. For every task in a particular namespace, there is an identically named method in the associated namespace class. For example, if namespace :foo_bar has a task :apples, you would expect to see def apples() ... inside the FooBar class, which itself is in tasks/foo_bar.rb. Every task :t defines a "meta-task" _t (that is, the task name prefixed with an underscore) which is used to do the actual work. I still want to be able to specify a desc-description for the tasks I define, and that will be different for each task. And, of course, I have a small number of tasks that don't follow the above pattern at all, so I'll be specifying those manually in my Rakefile. I'm sure that this can be refactored in some way so that I don't have to keep repeating the same idiom over and over, but I lack the experience to see how it could be done. Can someone give me an assist?

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  • Dynamically loading modules in Python (+ threading question)

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a Python package which reads the list of modules (along with ancillary data) from a configuration file. I then want to iterate through each of the dynamically loaded modules and invoke a do_work() function in it which will spawn a new thread, so that the code runs in a separate thread. At the moment, I am importing the list of all known modules at the beginning of my main script - this is a nasty hack I feel, and is not very flexible, as well as being a maintenance pain. This is the function that spawns the threads. I will like to modify it to dynamically load the module when it is encountered. The key in the dictionary is the name of the module containing the code: def do_work(work_info): for (worker, dataset) in work_info.items(): #import the module defined by variable worker here... t = threading.Thread(target=worker.do_work, args=[dataset]) # I'll NOT dameonize since spawned children need to clean up on shutdown # Since the threads will be holding resources #t.daemon = True t.start() Question 1 When I call the function in my script (as written above), I get the following error: AttributeError: 'str' object has no attribute 'do_work' Which makes sense, since the dictionary key is a string (name of the module to be imported). When I add the statement: import worker before spawning the thread, I get the error: ImportError: No module named worker This is strange, since the variable name rather than the value it holds are being used - when I print the variable, I get the value (as I expect) whats going on? Question 2 As I mentioned in the comments section, I realize that the do_work() function written in the spawned children needs to cleanup after itself. My understanding is to write a clean_up function that is called when do_work() has completed successfully, or an unhandled exception is caught - is there anything more I need to do to ensure resources don't leak or leave the OS in an unstable state? Question 3 If I comment out the t.daemon flag statement, will the code stil run ASYNCHRONOUSLY?. The work carried out by the spawned children are pretty intensive, and I don't want to have to be waiting for one child to finish before spawning another child. BTW, I am aware that threading in Python is in reality, a kind of time sharing/slicing - thats ok Lastly is there a better (more Pythonic) way of doing what I'm trying to do?

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  • Why isn't my File.Move() working?

    - by yeahumok
    I'm not sure what exactly i'm doing wrong here...but i noticed that my File.Move() isn't renaming any files. Also, does anybody know how in my 2nd loop, i'd be able to populate my .txt file with a list of the path AND sanitized file name? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; namespace ConsoleApplication2 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { //recurse through files. Let user press 'ok' to move onto next step string[] files = Directory.GetFiles(@"C:\Documents and Settings\jane.doe\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing", "*.*", SearchOption.AllDirectories); foreach (string file in files) { Console.Write(file + "\r\n"); } Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue..."); Console.ReadKey(true); //End section //Regex -- find invalid chars string pattern = " *[\\~#%&*{}/<>?|\"-]+ *"; string replacement = " "; Regex regEx = new Regex(pattern); string[] fileDrive = Directory.GetFiles(@"C:\Documents and Settings\jane.doe\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing", "*.*", SearchOption.AllDirectories); List<string> filePath = new List<string>(); //clean out file -- remove the path name so file name only shows string result; foreach(string fileNames in fileDrive) { result = Path.GetFileName(fileNames); filePath.Add(result); } StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(@"C:\Documents and Settings\jane.doe\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing\File_Renames.txt"); //Sanitize and remove invalid chars foreach(string Files2 in filePath) { try { string sanitized = regEx.Replace(Files2, replacement); sw.Write(sanitized + "\r\n"); System.IO.File.Move(Files2, sanitized); System.IO.File.Delete(Files2); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write(ex); } } sw.Close(); } } } I'm VERY new to C# and trying to write an app that recurses through a specific drive, finds invalid characters (as specified in the RegEx pattern), removes them from the filename and then write a .txt file that has the path name and the corrected filename. Any ideas?

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  • Pure sine wave inverter

    - by Nick
    Not exactly programming (sorry) but I think it's pretty close and can be of interest to other programmers. I'm trying to setup a battery power station so that I can work from anywhere. I go surfing a lot and my idea is to be able to work from wherever I can park my car (given there's coverage). So, I'm getting a deep cycle battery, a 240V charger (I'm in Australia), and an inverter. At the back of my laptop it says 19V and 4.62A. From the people I've spoken to that means it consumes about 90W at most. So my inverter needs to be able to output about 100W. Most of them seem to be 200W and up so this shouldn't be a problem. I want to be able run my laptop for 10 hours (plus the 2 hours I get from the laptop battery) straight. According to the people I've spoken to and from what I gather online I need a battery that has the amp hours for my "amp draw". I have no idea how to calculate this but I've been guesstimating. Most deep cycle batteries seem to be classified using amp hours (Ah)... 35Ah, 50Ah, 75Ah, 100Ah, and so on. However the amp hours on those batteries is for a 240V and I seem to be using 19V. According to an expert I spoke to you'd need a 100Ah battery to power a 5A appliance at 240V for 10 hours (you only get about 50% useful power). That to me is 5A * 240V = 100Ah battery. So, naive as I might be I take 240V and divide that by my 19V and reach the conclusion that I can get away with a battery that's about 12 times smaller than that 100Ah. The expert told me I needed a 50Ah battery so that's probably what I'll be getting, but it would be interesting to know what I theoretically would need to power my laptop for 10 hours. As for charging the battery the expert I spoke to said I needed a 3-5A charger to be able to charge that 50Ah battery from flat to full in about 10 hours (I will just leave it plugged in over night). Now to my question. The expert said it's not a matter of "if" more like a guaranteed "when" my computer will stuff up if I don't use a "pure sine wave inverter". From what I gather the power that comes out of that battery is not as clean as the power we get in the socket at home. Apparently it's "square" and the one in the socket is nice and smooth. I've already got an inverter, but it's not "pure". Do I really need to buy the $200-300 pure sine wave inverter or can I get away with something else? Perhaps the laptop adapter that sits in the middle of my laptop power cable already fixes that wave to be nice and smooth? Thanks!

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  • How to convert m4a file to aac adts file in Xcode?

    - by Bird Hsuie
    I have a mp4 file copied from iPod lib and saved to my Document for my next step, I need it to convert to .mp3 or .aac(ADTS type) I use this code and failed... -(IBAction)compressFile:(id)sender{ NSLog (@"handleConvertToPCMTapped"); // open an ExtAudioFile NSLog (@"opening %@", exportURL); ExtAudioFileRef inputFile; CheckResult (ExtAudioFileOpenURL((__bridge CFURLRef)exportURL, &inputFile), "ExtAudioFileOpenURL failed"); // prepare to convert to a plain ol' PCM format AudioStreamBasicDescription myPCMFormat; myPCMFormat.mSampleRate = 44100; // todo: or use source rate? myPCMFormat.mFormatID = kAudioFormatMPEGLayer3 ; myPCMFormat.mFormatFlags = kAudioFormatFlagsCanonical; myPCMFormat.mChannelsPerFrame = 2; myPCMFormat.mFramesPerPacket = 1; myPCMFormat.mBitsPerChannel = 16; myPCMFormat.mBytesPerPacket = 4; myPCMFormat.mBytesPerFrame = 4; CheckResult (ExtAudioFileSetProperty(inputFile, kExtAudioFileProperty_ClientDataFormat, sizeof (myPCMFormat), &myPCMFormat), "ExtAudioFileSetProperty failed"); // allocate a big buffer. size can be arbitrary for ExtAudioFile. // you have 64 KB to spare, right? UInt32 outputBufferSize = 0x10000; void* ioBuf = malloc (outputBufferSize); UInt32 sizePerPacket = myPCMFormat.mBytesPerPacket; UInt32 packetsPerBuffer = outputBufferSize / sizePerPacket; // set up output file NSString *outputPath = [myDocumentsDirectory() stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"m_export.mp3"]; NSURL *outputURL = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:outputPath]; NSLog (@"creating output file %@", outputURL); AudioFileID outputFile; CheckResult(AudioFileCreateWithURL((__bridge CFURLRef)outputURL, kAudioFileCAFType, &myPCMFormat, kAudioFileFlags_EraseFile, &outputFile), "AudioFileCreateWithURL failed"); // start convertin' UInt32 outputFilePacketPosition = 0; //in bytes while (true) { // wrap the destination buffer in an AudioBufferList AudioBufferList convertedData; convertedData.mNumberBuffers = 1; convertedData.mBuffers[0].mNumberChannels = myPCMFormat.mChannelsPerFrame; convertedData.mBuffers[0].mDataByteSize = outputBufferSize; convertedData.mBuffers[0].mData = ioBuf; UInt32 frameCount = packetsPerBuffer; // read from the extaudiofile CheckResult (ExtAudioFileRead(inputFile, &frameCount, &convertedData), "Couldn't read from input file"); if (frameCount == 0) { printf ("done reading from file"); break; } // write the converted data to the output file CheckResult (AudioFileWritePackets(outputFile, false, frameCount, NULL, outputFilePacketPosition / myPCMFormat.mBytesPerPacket, &frameCount, convertedData.mBuffers[0].mData), "Couldn't write packets to file"); NSLog (@"Converted %ld bytes", outputFilePacketPosition); // advance the output file write location outputFilePacketPosition += (frameCount * myPCMFormat.mBytesPerPacket); } // clean up ExtAudioFileDispose(inputFile); AudioFileClose(outputFile); // show size in label NSLog (@"checking file at %@", outputPath); [self transMitFile:outputPath]; if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:outputPath]) { NSError *fileManagerError = nil; unsigned long long fileSize = [[[NSFileManager defaultManager] attributesOfItemAtPath:outputPath error:&fileManagerError] fileSize]; } any suggestion?.......thanks for your great help!

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  • Ping remote server and wait to get data

    - by infinity
    Hi I'm building my first application for android and I've reached a point where I can't find a solution even have no idea what to search for in Google. So the problem: I am pinging a remote server with GET request through the application passing some parameters like file_id. Then the server gives back confirmation if the file exists or error otherwise, both in plain text. The error string is $$$ERROR$$$. Actually the confirmation is JSON string that holds the path to the file. If the file doesn't exists on the server it generated the error message and start downloading the file and processing it which normally takes 10-30 seconds. What would be the best way to check if the file is ready for download? I have DownloadFile class that extends AsyncTask but before I reach the point to download the file I need the URL which is dependant on the previous request which is in the main class in the UI thread. Here is some code: public class MainActivity extends Activity { private String getInfo() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet httpPost = new HttpGet(infoUrl); StringBuilder sb = null; String data; JSONObject jObject = null; try { HttpResponse response = httpClient.execute(httpPost); // This might be equal "$$$ERROR$$$" if no file exists sb = inputStreamToString(response.getEntity().getContent()); } catch(ClientProtocolException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.v("Error: pushItem ClientProtocolException: ", e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.v("Error: pushItem IOException: ", e.toString()); } // Clean the data to be complaint JSON format data = sb.toString().replace("info = ", ""); try { jObject = new JSONObject(data); data = jObject.getString("h"); fileTitle = jObject.getString("title"); } catch (JSONException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } downloadUrl = String.format(downloadUrl, fileId, data); return downloadUrl; } } So my idea was to get the content and if equal to $$$ERROR$$$ go into loop until JSON data is passed but I guess there is better solution. Note: I don't have control over the server output so have to deal with what I have.

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  • Duplicate Blob field with foreach

    - by JGSilva
    I have some fields (blob) where I have uploaded some images. The images display correctly and I can open it without problem in Photoshop for example. I created a button where user can duplicate the product and everything works fine, but when it comes to duplicate the image entry I got some errors, like 1064 and others ones that I can't remember cause I am working 3 days inside this. Because de original product have 3 or more images I select then and gave an foreach. What I notice when a print de blob is that in the end it eats the next array, like if don't have an end. In other words, the next item got inside that utf-8 character in the print. That gave me some clue. The next approach was to save it in somewhere, and reupload it. The problem is that only the first one works. When I download the image saved, it opens normally so, it is not a saving in disk problem. When I gave a print in the $result, the same happens, is like the image is hungry and ate the next one. Here is the code. Notice = I created the [$count] to see if was not an rewrite in array error. Even tried to , in beging of the foreach, kind of clean the vars… $count=0; foreach ($original_image as $key => $val) { $count++; //$arquivo = ''; //$image = ''; //$file = ''; //$this->image = ''; //$return = ''; $arquivo[$count] = $val['pi_id'].'.'.$val['pi_type']; $image[$count] = $caminho_url.$arquivo[$count]; if (file_exists($image[$count])) { $this->image = Image::factory($image[$count]); $this->image->save($image[$count]); $file[$count]=mysql_real_escape_string(addslashes(fread(fopen($image[$count], "r"), filesize($image[$count])))); $return[$count] = Product::add_image($id_prod, $file[$count], $val['pi_type'],$val['pi_main']); }else { die('no'); } }

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  • Dynamic Dispatch without Virtual Functions

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I've got some legacy code that, instead of virtual functions, uses a kind field to do dynamic dispatch. It looks something like this: // Base struct shared by all subtypes // Plain-old data; can't use virtual functions struct POD { int kind; int GetFoo(); int GetBar(); int GetBaz(); int GetXyzzy(); }; enum Kind { Kind_Derived1, Kind_Derived2, Kind_Derived3 }; struct Derived1: POD { Derived1(): kind(Kind_Derived1) {} int GetFoo(); int GetBar(); int GetBaz(); int GetXyzzy(); // plus other type-specific data and function members }; struct Derived2: POD { Derived2(): kind(Kind_Derived2) {} int GetFoo(); int GetBar(); int GetBaz(); int GetXyzzy(); // plus other type-specific data and function members }; struct Derived3: POD { Derived3(): kind(Kind_Derived3) {} int GetFoo(); int GetBar(); int GetBaz(); int GetXyzzy(); // plus other type-specific data and function members }; and then the POD class's function members are implemented like this: int POD::GetFoo() { // Call kind-specific function switch (kind) { case Kind_Derived1: { Derived1 *pDerived1 = static_cast<Derived1*>(this); return pDerived1->GetFoo(); } case Kind_Derived2: { Derived2 *pDerived2 = static_cast<Derived2*>(this); return pDerived2->GetFoo(); } case Kind_Derived3: { Derived3 *pDerived3 = static_cast<Derived3*>(this); return pDerived3->GetFoo(); } default: throw UnknownKindException(kind, "GetFoo"); } } POD::GetBar(), POD::GetBaz(), POD::GetXyzzy(), and other members are implemented similarly. This example is simplified. The actual code has about a dozen different subtypes of POD, and a couple dozen methods. New subtypes of POD and new methods are added pretty frequently, and so every time we do that, we have to update all these switch statements. The typical way to handle this would be to declare the function members virtual in the POD class, but we can't do that because the objects reside in shared memory. There is a lot of code that depends on these structs being plain-old-data, so even if I could figure out some way to have virtual functions in shared-memory objects, I wouldn't want to do that. So, I'm looking for suggestions as to the best way to clean this up so that all the knowledge of how to call the subtype methods is centralized in one place, rather than scattered among a couple dozen switch statements in a couple dozen functions. What occurs to me is that I can create some sort of adapter class that wraps a POD and uses templates to minimize the redundancy. But before I start down that path, I'd like to know how others have dealt with this.

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  • Multi domain rails app. How to intelligently use MVC?

    - by denial
    Background: We have app a, b, and plan to add more apps into this same application. The apps are similar enough they could share many views, assets, and actions. Currently a,b live in a single rails app(2.3.10). c will be similar enough that it could also be in this rails app. The problem: As we continue to add more apps to this one app, there's going to be too much case logic that the app will soon become a nightmare to maintain. There will also be potential namespace issues. However, the apps are very similar in function and layout, it also makes sense to keep them in one app so that it's one app to maintain(since roughly 50% of site look/functionality will be shared). What we are trying to do is keep this as clean as possible so it's easy for multiple teams to work on and easy to maintain. Some things we've thought about/are trying: Engines. Make each app an engine. This would let us base routes on the domain. It also allows us to pull out controllers, models and views for the specific app. This solution does not seem ideal as we won't be reusing the apps any time soon. And explicitly stating the host in the routes doesn't seem right. Skinning/themes. The auth logic would be different between the apps. Each user model would be different. So it's not just a skinning problem. In app/view add folder sitea for sitea views, siteb for siteb views and so on. Do the same for controllers and models. This is still pretty messy and since it didn't follow naming conventions, it did not work with rails so nicely and made much of the code messier. Making another rails app. We just didn't want to maintain the same controller or view in 2 apps if they are identical. What we want to do is make the app intelligently use a controller based on the host. So there would be a sessions controller for each app, and perhaps some parent session controller for shared logic(not needed now). In each of these session controllers, it handles authentication for that specific app. So if the domain is a.mysite.com, it would use session controller for app a and know to use app a's views,models,controllers. And if the domain is b.mysite, it would use the session controller for b. And there would be a user model for a and user model for b, which also would be determined by the domain. Does anyone have any suggestions or experience with this situation? And ideally using rails 2.3.x as updating to rails 3 isn't an option right now.

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  • Nested WHILE loops not acting as expected - Javascript / Google Apps Script

    - by dthor
    I've got a function that isn't acting as intended. Before I continue, I'd like preface this with the fact that I normally program in Mathematica and have been tasked with porting over a Mathematica function (that I wrote) to JavaScript so that it can be used in a Google Docs spreadsheet. I have about 3 hours of JavaScript experience... The entire (small) project is calculating the Gross Die per Wafer, given a wafer and die size (among other inputs). The part that isn't working is where I check to see if any corner of the die is outside of the effective radius, Reff. The function takes a list of X and Y coordinates which, when combined, create the individual XY coord of the center of the die. That is then put into a separate function "maxDistance" that calculates the distance of each of the 4 corners and returns the max. This max value is checked against Reff. If the max is inside the radius, 1 is added to the die count. // Take a list of X and Y values and calculate the Gross Die per Wafer function CoordsToGDW(Reff,xSize,ySize,xCoords,yCoords) { // Initialize Variables var count = 0; // Nested loops create all the x,y coords of the die centers for (var i = 0; i < xCoords.length; i++) { for (var j = 0; j < yCoords.length, j++) { // Add 1 to the die count if the distance is within the effective radius if (maxDistance(xCoords[i],yCoords[j],xSize,ySize) <= Reff) {count = count + 1} } } return count; } Here are some examples of what I'm getting: xArray={-52.25, -42.75, -33.25, -23.75, -14.25, -4.75, 4.75, 14.25, 23.75, 33.25, 42.75, 52.25, 61.75} yArray={-52.5, -45.5, -38.5, -31.5, -24.5, -17.5, -10.5, -3.5, 3.5, 10.5, 17.5, 24.5, 31.5, 38.5, 45.5, 52.5, 59.5} CoordsToGDW(45,9.5,7.0,xArray,yArray) returns: 49 (should be 72) xArray={-36, -28, -20, -12, -4, 4, 12, 20, 28, 36, 44} yArray={-39, -33, -27, -21, -15, -9, -3, 3, 9, 15, 21, 27, 33, 39, 45} CoordsToGDW(32.5,8,6,xArray,yArray) returns: 39 (should be 48) I know that maxDistance() is returning the correct values. So, where's my simple mistake? Also, please forgive me writing some things in Mathematica notation... Edit #1: A little bit of formatting. Edit #2: Per showi, I've changed WHILE loops to FOR loops and replaced <= with <. Still not the right answer. It did clean things up a bit though... Edit #3: What I'm essentially trying to do is take [a,b] and [a,b,c] and return [[a,a],[a,b],[a,c],[b,a],[b,b],[b,c]]

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  • how to add a dynamic param

    - by user569846
    the jquery plugin that im using is this http://code.google.com/p/jquery-in-place-editor/ if i have a table like this <table> <thead> <tr> <th>id</th> <th>first name </th> <th>last name </th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td class="id">1</td> <td class="fname">sarmen</td> <td class="lname">mikey</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="id">2</td> <td class="fname">john</td> <td class="lname">angelo</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="id">3</td> <td class="fname">sarmen</td> <td class="lname">grande</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> and my js looked something like this $("td.fname").editInPlace({ url: 'ajax.php', params: '', show_buttons: true }); then lets say i click on the first record to edit it which is fname of sarmen. how can i pass a param that only accociates id 1 ? because if i do a query of lets say "update tbl_users set fname = '$_POST['update_value']' where fname = '$_POST['original_html']'" (note: im just showing an example so no need to clean posts if that was bothering you :) ) if i run this query the fname of sarmen will update in two records rather than one. How can i only update to id of 1 being to update only one record.

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  • Object relationships

    - by Hammerstein
    This stems from a recent couple of posts I've made on events and memory management in general. I'm making a new question as I don't think the software I'm using has anything to do with the overall problem and I'm trying to understand a little more about how to properly manage things. This is ASP.NET. I've been trying to understand the needs for Dispose/Finalize over the past few days and believe that I've got to a stage where I'm pretty happy with when I should/shouldn't implement the Dispose/Finalize. 'If I have members that implement IDisposable, put explicit calls to their dispose in my dispose method' seems to be my understanding. So, now I'm thinking maybe my understanding of object lifetimes and what holds on to what is just wrong! Rather than come up with some sample code that I think will illustrate my point, I'm going to describe as best I can actual code and see if someone can talk me through it. So, I have a repository class, in it I have a DataContext that I create when the repository is created. I implement IDisposable, and when my calling object is done, I call Dispose on my repository and explicitly call DataContext.Dispose( ). Now, one of the methods of this class creates and returns a list of objects that's handed back to my front end. Front End - Controller - Repository - Controller - Front End. (Using Redgate Memory Profiler, I take a snapshot of my software when the page is first loaded). My front end creates a controller object on page load and then makes a request to the repository sending back a list of items. When the page is finished loading, I call Dispose on the controller which in turn calls dispose on the context. In my mind, that should mean that my connection is closed and that I have no instances of my controller class. If I then refresh the page, it jumps to two 'Live' instances of the controller class. If I look at the object retention graph, the objects I created in my call to the list are being held onto ultimately by what looks like Linq. The controller/repository aside, if I create a list of objects somewhere, or I create an object and return it somewhere, am I safe to just assume that .NET will eventually come and clean things up for me or is there a best practice? The 'Live' instances suggest to me that these are still in memory and active objects, the fact that RMP apparently forces GC doesn't mean anything?

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  • Suggest an alternative way to organize/build a database solution.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    We are using Visual Studio 2010, but this was first conceived with VS2003. I will forward the best suggestions to my team. The current setup almost makes me vomit. It is a C# solution with most projects containing .sql files. Because we support Microsoft, Oracle, and Sybase, and so home-brewed a pre-processor, much like C preprocessor, except that substitutions are performed by a home-brewed C# program without using yacc and tools like that. #ifdefs are used for conditional macro definitions, and yeah - macros are the way this is done. A macro can expand to another macro or two, but this should eventually terminate. Only macros have #ifdef in them - the rest of the SQL-like code just uses these macros. Now, the various configurations: Debug, MNDebug, MNRelease, Release, SQL_APPLY_ALL, SQL_APPLY_MSFT, SQL_APPLY_ORACLE, SQL_APPLY_SYBASE, SQL_BUILD_OUTPUT_ALL, SQL_COMPILE, as well as 2 more. Also: Any CPU, Mixed Platforms, Win32. What drives me nuts is having to configure it correctly as well as choosing the right one out of 12 x 3 = 36 configurations as well as having to substitute database name depending on the type of database: config, main, or gateway. I am thinking that configuration should be reduced to just Debug, Release, and SQL_APPLY. Also, using 0, 1, and 2 seems so 80s ... Finally, I think my intention to build or not to build 3 types of databases for 3 types of vendors should be configured with just a tic tac toe board like: XOX OOX XXX In this case it would mean build MSFT+CONFIG, all SYBASE, and all GATEWAY. Still, the overall thing which uses a text file and a pre-processor and many configurations seems incredibly clunky. It is year 2010 now and someone out there is bound to have a very clean and/or creative tool/solution. The only pro would be that the existing collection of macros has been well tested. Have you ever had to write SQL that would work for several vendors? How did you do it? SqlVars.txt (Every one of 30 users makes a copy of a template and modifies this to suit their needs): // This is the default parameters file and should not be changed. // You can overwrite any of these parameters by copying the appropriate // section to override into SqlVars.txt and providing your own information. //Build types are 0-Config, 1-Main, 2-Gateway BUILD_TYPE=1 REMOVE_COMMENTS=1 // Login information used when applying to a Microsoft SQL server database SQL_APPLY_MSFT_version=SQL2005 SQL_APPLY_MSFT_database=msftdb SQL_APPLY_MSFT_server=ABC SQL_APPLY_MSFT_user=msftusr SQL_APPLY_MSFT_password=msftpwd // Login information used when applying to an Oracle database SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_version=ORACLE10g SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_server=oradb SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_user=orausr SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_password=orapwd // Login information used when applying to a Sybase database SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_version=SYBASE125 SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_database=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_server=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_user=sybusr SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_password=sybpwd ... (THIS GOES ON)

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  • How to use unset() for this Linear Linked List in PHP

    - by Peter
    I'm writing a simple linear linked list implementation in PHP. This is basically just for practice... part of a Project Euler problem. I'm not sure if I should be using unset() to help in garbage collection in order to avoid memory leaks. Should I include an unset() for head and temp in the destructor of LLL? I understand that I'll use unset() to delete nodes when I want, but is unset() necessary for general clean up at any point? Is the memory map freed once the script terminates even if you don't use unset()? I saw this SO question, but I'm still a little unclear. Is the answer that you simply don't have to use unset() to avoid any sort of memory leaks associated with creating references? I'm using PHP 5.. btw. Unsetting references in PHP PHP references tutorial Here is the code - I'm creating references when I create $temp and $this-head at certain points in the LLL class: class Node { public $data; public $next; } class LLL { // The first node private $head; public function __construct() { $this->head = NULL; } public function insertFirst($data) { if (!$this->head) { // Create the head $this->head = new Node; $temp =& $this->head; $temp->data = $data; $temp->next = NULL; } else { // Add a node, and make it the new head. $temp = new Node; $temp->next = $this->head; $temp->data = $data; $this->head =& $temp; } } public function showAll() { echo "The linear linked list:<br/>&nbsp;&nbsp;"; if ($this->head) { $temp =& $this->head; do { echo $temp->data . " "; } while ($temp =& $temp->next); } else { echo "is empty."; } echo "<br/>"; } } Thanks!

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  • Windows MAchine Debugging

    - by PrettyFlower
    I've been learning how to program for Windows for some time now and am getting pretty comfy with COM. I had thought to go over to Linux and do some C++ programming there and I wished to run Rosetta Commons so I installed Fedora. I had tried installing Ubuntu a few months ago and things got messy. I had a glitch, maybe caused by one of the live cd creators, my video card or something I don't know. Who Crashed suggested it was my video card and I had regular messages about ntfs.sys and page file issues. At any rate I just installed Fedora and the same thing is happening again. I would like to think with the twenty five years of doing this that I might finally make some headway into debugging my system. I think I may have overlooked a lot of what could be done in favor of simply uninstalling, reinstalling and formatting and starting from scratch. I have opened up the folder windows debugging tools, quite accidentally and just before I was going to clean sweep again, and I found KD and WinDbg. I had never seen these before and I felt that maybe I should look into this. I am quite familiar with the modern machine that is known as the computer, I know what a Kernel is and am now pretty familiar with at the very least Windows Operating System Services. I wish to begin tracking my own machines errors. I understand that most kernel debugging is done on a second machine but I don't have one. And also I understand the goal of the debugger seems to be less about run of the mill errors and more about development time strategies but I'm sure there is more to this. This is my first go at this and I thought maybe I could get some suggestions on where to go from here. I would really like to learn ways to fix my machine and also maybe pick up some tricks on the dev side as well. I hope this isn't too broad a question or too generalized. I'm really just looking for the keywords and an overview of the more routine strategies used. thx

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  • Getting jQuery to recognise .change() in IE

    - by Philip Morton
    I'm using jQuery to hide and show elements when a radio button group is altered/clicked. It works fine in browsers like Firefox, but in IE 6 and 7, the action only occurs when the user then clicks somewhere else on the page. To elaborate, when you load the page, everything looks fine. In Firefox, if you click a radio button, one table row is hidden and the other one is shown immediately. However, in IE 6 and 7, you click the radio button and nothing will happen until you click somewhere on the page. Only then does IE redraw the page, hiding and showing the relevant elements. Here's the jQuery I'm using: $(document).ready(function(){ $(".hiddenOnLoad").hide(); $("#viewByOrg").change(function () { $(".visibleOnLoad").show(); $(".hiddenOnLoad").hide(); }); $("#viewByProduct").change(function () { $(".visibleOnLoad").hide(); $(".hiddenOnLoad").show(); }); }); Here's the part of the XHTML that it affects. Apologies if it's not very clean, but the whole page does validate as XHTML 1.0 Strict: <tr> <td>View by:</td> <td> <p> <input type="radio" name="viewBy" id="viewByOrg" value="organisation" checked="checked"/> Organisation </p> <p> <input type="radio" name="viewBy" id="viewByProduct" value="product"/> Product </p> </td> </tr> <tr class="visibleOnLoad"> <td>Organisation:</td> <td> <select name="organisation" id="organisation" multiple="multiple" size="10"> <option value="1">Option 1</option> <option value="2">Option 2</option> </select> </td> </tr> <tr class="hiddenOnLoad"> <td>Product:</td> <td> <select name="product" id="product" multiple="multiple" size="10"> <option value="1">Option 1</option> <option value="2">Option 2</option> </select> </td> </tr> If anyone has any ideas why this is happening and how to fix it, they would be very much appreciated!

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  • How to give properties to c++ classes (interfaces)

    - by caas
    Hello, I have built several classes (A, B, C...) which perform operations on the same BaseClass. Example: struct BaseClass { int method1(); int method2(); int method3(); } struct A { int methodA(BaseClass& bc) { return bc.method1(); } } struct B { int methodB(BaseClass& bc) { return bc.method2()+bc.method1(); } } struct C { int methodC(BaseClass& bc) { return bc.method3()+bc.method2(); } } But as you can see, each class A, B, C... only uses a subset of the available methods of the BaseClass and I'd like to split the BaseClass into several chunks such that it is clear what it used and what is not. For example a solution could be to use multiple inheritance: // A uses only method1() struct InterfaceA { virtual int method1() = 0; } struct A { int methodA(InterfaceA&); } // B uses method1() and method2() struct InterfaceB { virtual int method1() = 0; virtual int method2() = 0; } struct B { int methodB(InterfaceB&); } // C uses method2() and method3() struct InterfaceC { virtual int method2() = 0; virtual int method3() = 0; } struct C { int methodC(InterfaceC&); } The problem is that each time I add a new type of operation, I need to change the implementation of BaseClass. For example: // D uses method1() and method3() struct InterfaceD { virtual int method1() = 0; virtual int method3() = 0; } struct D { int methodD(InterfaceD&); } struct BaseClass : public A, B, C // here I need to add class D { ... } Do you know a clean way I can do this? Thanks for your help edit: I forgot to mention that it can also be done with templates. But I don't like this solution either because the required interface does not appear explicitly in the code. You have to try to compile the code to verify that all required methods are implemented correctly. Plus, it would require to instantiate different versions of the classes (one for each BaseClass type template parameter) and this is not always possible nor desired.

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