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  • Which source control paradigm and solution to embed in a custom editor application?

    - by Greg Harman
    I am building an application that manages a number of custom objects, which may be edited concurrently by multiple users (using different instances of the application). These objects have an underlying serialized representation, and my plan is to persist them (through my application UI) in an external source control system. Of course this implies that my application can check the current version of an object for updates, a merging interface for each object, etc. My question is what source control paradigm(s) and specific solution(s) to support and why. The way I (perhaps naively) see the source control world is three general paradigms: Single-repository, locked access (MS SourceSafe) Single-repository, concurrent access (CVS/SVN) Distributed (Mercurial, Git) I haven't heard of anyone using #1 for quite a number of years, so I am planning to disregard this case altogether (unless I get a compelling argument otherwise). However, I'm at a loss as to whether to support #2 or #3, and which specific implementations. I'm concerned that the use paradigms are subtly different enough that I can't adequately capture basic operations in a single UI. The last bit of information I should convey is that this application is intended to be deployed in a commercial setting, where a source control system may already be in use. I would prefer not to support more than one solution unless it's really a deal-breaker, so wide adoption in a corporate setting is a plus.

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  • Checking for valid email addresses

    - by Roland
    I'm running a website with more than 60 000 registered users. Every week notifications are send to these users via email, now I've noticed some of the mail addresses do not exists anymore eg. the domain address is valid but the email name en asdas@ is not valid anymore since person does not work at a company anymore etc. Now I'm looping through the database and doing some regular expression checks and checking if the MX records exist with the following two functions function verify_email($email){ if(!preg_match('/^[_A-z0-9-]+((\.|\+)[_A-z0-9-]+)*@[A-z0-9-]+(\.[A-z0-9-]+)*(\.[A-z]{2,4})$/',$email)){ return false; } else { return true; } } // Our function to verify the MX records function verify_email_dns($email){ list($name, $domain) = split('@',$email); if(!checkdnsrr($domain,'MX')){ return false; } else { return true; } } If the email address is in an invalid format or the domain does not exists I delete the users account. Are there any methods I could use to check if the email address still exists or not if the domain name is valid and the email address is in the correct format? For example [email protected] does not exist anymore but test.com is a valid domain name.

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  • iPhone: Leak with UIWebView loading Office documents. Any ideas how to avoid it?

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    While there are already quite a few posts about leaks around UIWebView, mine is a bit more special, I believe, and thus deserves its own post here. I see a reproducible large leak every time I load a Office document such as a Word or Excel file. For instance, every time I display a 180KB .doc file, I get a 100KB leak. And that happens with both the simulator and an actual device, running OS 3.1.3. The leak is not visible with the Leaks instrument but only by looking at the malloc instances via the ObjectAlloc instrument. Here's a picture from the instruments trace: I've also made a demo project, UIWebView-Leak.zip, so you can verify this yourself. To see the leak, use the ObjectAlloc instrument, switch to the view where you see individual allocation objects, and sort by size so that you see the large ones in a group, just like in my picture above. Then view a Office document a few times and find the Malloc objects that keep staying "Live" even after the actual UIWebView has been freed. Is this a known bug? Or is there any way I can avoid these leaks? I.e, have you successfully shown Office documents on an iPhone withing getting such leaks? Note: I've reported this as a bug to Apple now, too (ID 7950594) I am still waiting for someone (including Apple) to confirm this as a true leak or show why it isn't (i.e. that I do something wrong or make wrong assumptions)

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  • How to remove Modules from a Intellij Maven Project permanently?

    - by herpnderpn
    I am currently working on a larger scale Maven-based project in IntelliJIdea 12.1.6 Ultimate. I have been working with IntelliJIdea since about 5 months. An included module has dependencies on another module. The dependent module's source was also part of my project until recently. Since I removed the dependent module from my project, I get compile errors whenever I am trying to compile the source without maven. The pom.xml of removed modules in Intellij seem to be placed onto the Settings-Maven-Ignored Files. I cant seem to remove it from there, only check or uncheck it. It's not possible to include the module again since IntelliJ will say its still under Ignored Files. 2 ways allow me to compile again: Uncheck the pom from Ignored files, which will include the module again in my project. Or delete the source of the dependent project, so my project will load the dependent module from the maven repository. But whenever I update my project from svn, the source of the dependent module is restored (I don't know why this even happens since its not part my project) and the cycle begins anew. I googled this for a while since it gets really annoying. It became a problem with several excluded modules. I could rebuild the intellij-project but since a lot of IntelliJ settings were made (not related to the problem) I would rather solve this. Any help is appreciated, I guess I must be missing something

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  • how could application installations/configurations be easier in linux? [closed]

    - by ajsie
    although you can do anything in linux it tends to require a lot of tweaking in config files and reading a lot of manuals/tutorials before you can have it running in your way. i know that it gets a lot easier by time, and the apt-get installations with ubuntu/debian is heading the right way. but how can linux be more userfriendly for us in the future? i thought that if more is automated like an IDE environment, eg. typing svn will give us all the commands and description about each command when you move between commands with your keyboard. that would be great. but that's just one example. another is the navigation in the terminal between folders. now you have to type a lot just to jump from/to different folders. would be great with some more automatization here too. i know that these extra features will slow down the server, but its 2010 now, and these features are not that heavy for the cpu, but makes it more userfriendly and encourage maintainance of a server, not frighten u off. what do you think about this? should/could we have more user friendly linux environment in servers, something that has annoyed you a lot? a lot of things are done in the unix way, but maybe we should reinvent the wheel in some areas, cause apparently, its so...repeatingly today and difficult to do easy tasks. it should be easier i think..

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  • Testing ActionFilterAttributes with MSpec

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm currently trying to grasp MSpec, mainly to learn new ways of (T/B)DD to be able to make an educated decision on which technology to use. Previously, I've mostly (read: only) used the built-in MSTest framework with Moq, so BDD is quite new for me. I'm writing an ASP.NET MVC app, and I want to implement PRG. Last time I did this, I used action filters to export and import ModelState via TempData, so that I could return a RedirectResult and the validation errors would still be there when the user got the view. I tested that scenario by verifying two things: a) That the ExportModelStateAttribute I had written was applied (among tests for my controller) b) That the attribute worked (among tests for action filter attributes) However, in BDD I've understood I should be even more concerned with behavior, and even less with implementation. This means I should probably just verify that the model state is in tempdata when the action has finished executing - not necessarily that it's done via an attribute. To further complicate things, attributes are not run when calling the action directly in the test, so I can't just call the action and see if the job's been done. How should I spec/test this in MSpec?

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  • ASP.NET RangeValidator can't do even the most basic math !?!?!?

    - by marc_s
    I'm having an issue with my ASP.NET RangeValidator controls. I want to allow users to enter a discount amount, and this amount must be negative (< $0.00). I want to verify that the amount entered in a textbox is a negative value, so I have this in my page markup: <asp:TextBox ID="tbxDiscount" runat="server" /> <asp:RangeValidator ID="rvDiscount" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tbxDiscount" MinimumValue="0.0" MaximumValue="0.0" EnableClientScript="true" ErrorMessage="Please enter a negative value for a discount" /> and I attempt to set the MinimumValue dynamically in my code before the page gets rendered - to the negative equivalent of my item price. So if the item is $69, I want to set the minimum value to - $69: rvDiscount.MinimumValue = (-1.0m * Price).ToString(); Trouble is: I keep getting this error message: The maximum value 0.0 cannot be less than the minimum value -69.00 for rvDiscount WTF?!?!??! Where I come from, -69 $ IS less than $0 ...... so what's the problem? And more importantly: what is the solution to the problem??

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  • What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

    - by durandai
    I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

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  • How to Create a Folder in the Current Document Library if it's not already present?

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • Customizing the TFS 2008 build sequence to avoid compilation and deploy SSRS

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to create a CI process for SQL Server Reporting Services. I am fairly new to TFS but quite experienced with MSBuild. In the past I've used a combination of MSBuild with Team City so the whole build process is more or less custom. Here lies the start of my problems, as the solution I am deploying only contains Report Server projects (rds), no compilation is required. I thought that I would override the the first default task that TFS runs (EndToEndIteration) to override the default TFS build sequence and inject my own. The first snag that I have come across is that the build always fails, how can I set the status of the build to success? Currently the EndToEndIteration task is very light and only has a message. Is this the best method to create a custom build process in TFS where compilation is not required? Or should I use the default sequence and override one of the hook tasks mentioned in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa337604%28VS.80%29.aspx (ie: AfterCompile) The core steps that I'd like to achieve are: Bundle the RDL and datasource files Connect to the host server to register/deploy the reports Re-apply any subscriptions that previously existed Run tests to verify the deployment succeeded and is returning results as expected I have found another article on Report services deployment: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/88710/reporting-services-deployment But it doesn't mention the best practice for customizing the standard build process. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • 1. Get the Current Document Library 2. Create a Folder "MetaFolder" if it's not already present

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... Thanks public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • How to replace pairs of strings in two files to identical IDs?

    - by Péter Török
    Sorry if the title is not very intelligible, I couldn't come up with anything better. Hopefully my explanation is clear enough: I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some strings are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. [Update] There are about 40 distinct pairs of such identifiers.[/Update] I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

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  • Getting value from pointer

    - by Eric
    Hi, I'm having problem getting the value from a pointer. I have the following code in C++: void* Nodo::readArray(VarHash& var, string varName, int posicion, float& d) { //some code before... void* res; float num = bit.getFloatFromArray(arregloTemp); //THIS FUNCTION RETURN A FLOAT AND IT'S OK cout << "NUMBER " << num << endl; d = num; res = &num; return res } int main() { float d = 0.0; void* res = n.readArray(v, "c", 0, d); //THE VALUES OF THE ARRAY ARE: {65.5, 66.5}; float* car3 = (float*)res; cout << "RESULT_READARRAY " << *car3 << endl; cout << "FLOAT REFERENCE: " << d << endl; } The result of running this code is the following: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //CORRECT NUMBER 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY -1.2001 //INCORRECT IT SHOULD BE LIKE NUMBER FLOAT REFERENCE: 66.5 //CORRECT For some reason, when I get the value of the pointer returned by the function called readArray is incorrect. I'm passing a float variable(d) as a reference in the same function just to verify that the value is ok, and as you can see, THE FLOAT REFERENCE matches the NUMBER. If I declare the variable num(read array) as a static float, the first RESULT_READARRAY will be 65.5, that is correct, however, the next value will be the same instead of 66.5. Let me show you the result of running the code using static float variable: NUMBER 65.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 //PERFECT FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 //¨PERFECT NUMBER 65.5 //THIS IS INCORRECT, IT SHOULD BE 66.5 RESULT_READARRAY 65.5 FLOAT REFERENCE: 65.5 Do you know how can I get the correct value returned by the function called readArray()?

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  • Boost binding a function taking a reference

    - by Jamie Cook
    Hi all, I am having problems compiling the following snippet int temp; vector<int> origins; vector<string> originTokens = OTUtils::tokenize(buffer, ","); // buffer is a char[] array // original loop BOOST_FOREACH(string s, originTokens) { from_string(temp, s); origins.push_back(temp); } // I'd like to use this to replace the above loop std::transform(originTokens.begin(), originTokens.end(), origins.begin(), boost::bind<int>(&FromString<int>, boost::ref(temp), _1)); where the function in question is // the third parameter should be one of std::hex, std::dec or std::oct template <class T> bool FromString(T& t, const std::string& s, std::ios_base& (*f)(std::ios_base&) = std::dec) { std::istringstream iss(s); return !(iss >> f >> t).fail(); } the error I get is 1>Compiling with Intel(R) C++ 11.0.074 [IA-32]... (Intel C++ Environment) 1>C:\projects\svn\bdk\Source\deps\boost_1_42_0\boost/bind/bind.hpp(303): internal error: assertion failed: copy_default_arg_expr: rout NULL, no error (shared/edgcpfe/il.c, line 13919) 1> 1> return unwrapper<F>::unwrap(f, 0)(a[base_type::a1_], a[base_type::a2_]); 1> ^ 1> 1>icl: error #10298: problem during post processing of parallel object compilation Google is being unusually unhelpful so I hope that some one here can provide some insights.

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  • Atomic swap in GNU C++

    - by Steve
    I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

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  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

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  • Can't create new "enterprise" project in netbeans

    - by Danny
    I'm running netbeans 6.7.1 on Ubuntu Karmic. On the services tab I added a new glassfish v3 prelude server, I installed it to my home directory using the download button. I started the server and opened localhost:4848 to verify I can get into the admin panel. Then I did file-new projct and created a new java web-web application. On the configuration step of the wizard it preselected glassfish v3 prelude and java ee 5. I accepted and did a test run. I ran the project just fine. So now I did file-new projecct and attempted to create a Java EE-ejb module. When I arrive to the server configuration stage of the wizard, it doesn't show any servers on the server dropdown list (so it's empty), it also doesn't see any version of java on the "java ee version" dropdown list. This also happens for the other "Java EE" project types. I can't seem to get my head around why I can make a new web application but not an ejb module. Can anyone provide any insight to why it might not be seeing that I have java or glassfish installed when I try to make a new java ee project but I see it when I try to make a java web project?

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  • Git + GitHub + Heroku

    - by Haseeb Khan
    Hi All, I am new to the world of Git, GitHub and Heroku. So far, I am enjoying this paradigm but coming from a background with SVN, things seems a bit complicated to me in the world of Git. I am facing a problem for which I am looking for a solution. Scenario: I have setup a new private project on GitHub. I forked the private project and now I have the following structure in my branch: /project /apps /my-apps /my-app-1 .... /my-app-2 .... /your-apps /your-app-1 .... /your-app-2 .... /plugins .... I can commit the code in my Fork on GitHub from my machine in any of the folders I want. Later on, these would be pulled into the master repository by the admin of the project. For every individual application in the apps folder, I have setup an app on Heroku which is a Git Repo in itself where I push my changes when I am done with the user stories from my local machine. In short, every app in the apps folder is a Rails App hosted on Heroku. Problem: What I want is that when I push my changes into Heroku, they can be committed into my project fork on GitHub as well, so, it also has the latest code all the time. The issue I see is that the code on Heroku is a Git Repo while the folders which I have on GitHub are part of a Repo. So far, what I have researched is that there is something known as Submodule in the Git World which can come to the rescue, however, I have not been able to find some newbie instructions. Can someone in the community be kind enough to share thoughts and help me to identify the solution of this problem? Thanks in advance. Regards, Haseeb Khan haseeb [AT] tkxel.com TkXel

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  • Google Maps API and "rightclick" events on Macs

    - by samc
    Using the Google Maps API (v3), I can create a map and handle normal click events just fine, but when I want to handle rightclick events, it doesn't work on Macs. I assume this is because a rightclick on a Mac is actually converted to a ctrl-click, but the Google Maps API MouseEvent doesn't provide information about modifier keys, so I can't check for the ctrl key. I tried adding an "capture" event listener to the document that converts the click event to a rightclick event. function convertClick(e) { if (e.ctrlKey) { e.button = 2; } } document.addEventListener("click", convertClick, true) I added an alert to verify that the condition is correct, but modifying the event in this way didn't work. So, I decided to have my event handler set a global flag that my click handler could check. If the flag is set, it means ctrl was pressed, so the click handler just invokes the rightclick handler. var ctrl; function captureCtrl(e) { ctrl = e.ctrlKey; } This approach worked great, except for one thing. The ctrl flag gets set for the click after the one that occured when ctrl was pressed. That means the event handler is be called during the bubble phase rather than the capture phase. Could explain why the event modification approach didn't work. So, my question is how can you detect "rightclick" events from Macs with the Google Maps API? I can't be the first person to want to do this. That said, when I right-click on the map on http://maps.google.com from a Windows or Linux machine, I get a popup box with options like "Directions from here...", etc. On a Mac, nothing happens. So, not even the main Google Maps page has solved this problem. ...maybe I am the first person to want to do this.

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  • Programming style question on how to code functions

    - by shawnjan
    Hey all! So, I was just coding a bit today, and I realized that I don't have much consistency when it comes to a coding style when programming functions. One of my main concerns is whether or not its proper to code it so that you check that the input of the user is valid OUTSIDE of the function, or just throw the values passed by the user into the function and check if the values are valid in there. Let me sketch an example: I have a function that lists hosts based on an environment, and I want to be able to split the environment into chunks of hosts. So an example of the usage is this: listhosts -e testenv -s 2 1 This will get all the hosts from the "testenv", split it up into two parts, and it is displaying part one. In my code, I have a function that you pass it in a list, and it returns a list of lists based on you parameters for splitting. BUT, before I pass it a list, I first verify the parameters in my MAIN during the getops process, so in the main I check to make sure there are no negatives passed by the user, I make sure the user didnt request to split into say, 4 parts, but asking to display part 5 (which would not be valid), etc. tl;dr: Would you check the validity of a users input the flow of you're MAIN class, or would you do a check in your function itself, and either return a valid response in the case of valid input, or return NULL in the case of invalid input? Obviously both methods work, I'm just interested to hear from experts as to which approach is better :) Thanks for any comments and suggestions you guys have!

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  • Cannot set property X of undefined - programatically created element

    - by Dave
    I am working on a class to create a fairly complex custom element. I want to be able to define element attributes (mainly CSS) as I am creating the elements. I came up with the below function to quickly set attrs for me given an input array: // Sample array structure of apply_settings //var _button_div = { // syle : { // position: 'absolute', // padding : '2px', // right : 0, // top : 0 // } //}; function __apply_settings(__el,apply_settings){ try{ for(settingKey in apply_settings){ __setting = apply_settings[settingKey]; if(typeof(__setting)=='string'){ __el[settingKey] = __setting; }else{ for(i in __setting){ __el[settingKey][i] = apply_settings[settingKey][i]; } } } }catch(ex){ alert(ex + " " + __el); } } The function works fine except here: function __draw_top(){ var containerDiv = document.createElement('div'); var buttonDiv = document.createElement('div'); __apply_settings(containerDiv,this.settings.top_bar); if(global_settings.show_x) buttonDiv.appendChild(__create_img(global_settings.images.close)); containerDiv.appendChild(buttonDiv); __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); return containerDiv; } The specific section that is failing is __apply_settings(buttonDiv,this.settings.button_div); with the error "Cannot set property 'position' of undefined". So naturally, I am assuming that buttonDiv is undefined.. I put alert(ex + " " + __el); in __apply_settings() to verify what I was working with. Surprisingly enough, the element is a div. Is there any reason why this function would be working for containerDiv and not buttonDiv? Any help would be greatly appreciated :) {EDIT} http://jsfiddle.net/Us8Zw/2/

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  • Automatic Deployment of Windows Application

    - by dileepkrishnan
    Hi, We have setup continuos integration in our development environment using SVN, CC.Net, MSBuild and Nunit. Now, we want to automate the process of moving (copying) builds from one stage to another like this: Whenever a new build succeeds in Dev, that should be copied automatically to the QA server (a folder on the QA server, to be exact) Whenever a QA build succeeds tests in QA, that QA build should be copied to the UAT server (a folder on the UAT server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when QA succeeds. Whenever a UAT build succeeds tests in UAT, that should be copied to the PROD server (a folder on the PROD server, to be exact). This should be implemented as a process (a CC task, for example) which we can start when UAT succeeds. How do I implement this? Can this be done using CC.Net alone? Or, can this be done using MSBuild? Or, do I need to employ both? Please advise what exactly needs to be done. Thanks Dileep Krishnan

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  • WCF with SSL- not finding localhost

    - by SteveCav
    Hi guys, I'm trying to get WCF to use SSL with ANYTHING for FIVE DAYS now. I've gone through countless walkthroughs, generated more certificates than a mail order diploma company, even tried hot fixes. After working with MS dev tools since VB1, I am now considering flipping burgers as a career option. WCF, as far as I can see, is a complete lemon. Anyway, to get to my actual question: If I run through this walkthrough: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff648840.aspx I get to step 11 (adding the service reference) and get "There was an error downloading metadata from the address. Please verify that you have entered a valid address". Details of the error gives: There was an error downloading 'https://localhost/SSL6/Service.svc'. Unable to connect to the remote server No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:443 I'm using VS2008 on Windows 7 with IIS7. I followed the walkthrough exactly (apart from step 5 which was different on IIS7- I went into "SSL Settings" for the VD), so it shows my config (yes I've used httpsGetEnabled and mexHttpsBinding). Anyone care to save my sanity and job?

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  • Problems finding classes in namespace and testing extend expected parent

    - by Matt
    So I am in the process of building a site in ASP.Net MVC, and in the process I am adding certain things to my Site.Master I want to make sure that all of my model classes extend a certain base class that contains all of the pieces the Site.Master needs to be operable. I want to test to make sure this assumption isn't broken (I believe this will save me time when I forget about it and can't figure out why a new combination isn't working.) I wrote a test that I thought would help with this, but I am running into two problems. First it isn't finding the one example model class I have so far in the LINQ call all of a sudden, I am admittedly still a bit new to LINQ. Second, I had it finding the class earlier, but I couldn't get it to verify that the class inherits from the base class. Here is the example test. [Test] public void AllModelClassesExtendAbstractViewModel() { var abstractViewModelType = typeof (AbstractViewModel); Assembly baseAssembly = Assembly.GetAssembly(abstractViewModelType); var modelTypes = baseAssembly.GetTypes() .Where(assemblyType => (assemblyType.Namespace.EndsWith("Models") && assemblyType.Name != "AbstractViewModel")) .Select(assemblyType => assemblyType); foreach (var modelType in modelTypes) { Assert.That(modelType.IsSubclassOf(abstractViewModelType), Is.True , modelType.Name + " does not extend AbstractViewModel"); } }

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  • How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

    - by jasondavis
    About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

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