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  • jQuery clone( true ) not working with dynamic elements

    - by elclanrs
    Take the following example: $.fn.foo = function() { var $input = $('<input type="text"/>'); var $button_one = $('<button>One</button>'); var $button_two = $('<button>Two</button>'); $button_one.click(function(){ $input.val('hey'); }); $button_two.click(function(){ $input.replaceWith( $input.val('').clone( true ) ); }); this.append($input, $button_one, $button_two); }; Check the demo: http://jsbin.com/ezexah/1/edit Now click "one" and you should see "hey" in the input. Next click "two" and then click "one" again and it doesn't work. Even using the true option in clone to copy all events it still does not work. Any ideas?

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  • Only get the value if a condition is true

    - by Autolycus
    I am checking to see if element1, element 2 or element 3 exists and then add them to finalData if they exist. However if one of those dont exist or are not true then I just want to add the elements whose bool value is true! Below is my code bool hasElement1 = ( from Playlist in loaded.Descendants("Node") select Playlist.Descendants("Element1").Any() ).Single(); bool hasElement2 = ( from Playlist in loaded.Descendants("Node") select Playlist.Descendants("Element2").Any() ).Single(); bool hasElement3 = ( from Playlist in loaded.Descendants("Node") select Playlist.Descendants("Element2").Any() ).Single(); var finalData = from x in loaded.Descendants("Node") select new { Element1 = x.Descendants("Element1").First().Value, Element2 = x.Descendants("Element2").First().Value, Element3 = x.Descendants("Element3").First().Value, };

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  • get the response of a jquery ajax call as an input parameter of another function:

    - by Nauman Bashir
    Hello, Is it possible to make a jquery ajax call, and get the response as an input parameter of another function: here is an example, i have the following function call at a location: updateTips(validationTextObject,objUsers.fetchAvailable()); the objUsers.fetchAvailable() function makes a ajax call to the server. The callback function on successful call would be something like this. It is being used to process the result BHUsers.prototype.recvAvailable= function(response){ // some kind of processing over here return (response["status"] == "OK")? "Available" : "Not Available"; } I want that fuction to return the processed result which can be used as a parameter to the function updateTips The primary goal of this is to be able to do all of this for multiple scenarios, rather than writing multiple functions for the same call. Also i want the calling and the response processing functions to just do what they are doing. I dont want to add html objects into it. Any Clues?

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  • Why and when should one call _fpreset( )?

    - by STingRaySC
    The only documentation I can find (on MSDN or otherwise) is that a call to _fpreset() "resets the floating-point package." What is the "floating point package?" Does this also clear the FPU status word? I see documentation that says to call _fpreset() when recovering from a SIGFPE, but doesn't _clearfp() do this as well? Do I need to call both? I am working on an application that unmasks some FP exceptions (using _controlfp()). When I want to reset the FPU to the default state (say, when calling to .NET code), should I just call _clearfp(), _fpreset(), or both. This is performance critical code, so I don't want to call both if I don't have to...

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  • .NET web service call slower when performed asynchronously

    - by joelt
    I have an ASP.NET site, and some pages need to call a web service. I used Visual Studio's "Add Web Reference" to auto-generate classes and methods for the web service. When I call the service synchronously, i.e. objService.MethodName("param1"), a call might take a second or so. When I call it asynchronously, i.e., objService.BeginMethodName("param1", AddressOf MyCallback, Nothing), it typically takes about 6 seconds. When debugging, it appears that the bulk of the time is spent waiting between the completion of the BeginMethodName call and the beginning of MyCallback. Does the thread switching really incur that much overhead? Is there another reason for this?

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  • Call an AsyncTask inside a Thread

    - by Arun
    I am working in an android application and I want to call an AsyncTask from my UI main thread. For that I want to call my AsyncTask from a thread. This is the method that I call from my main UI thread. This is working correctly CommonAysnk mobjCommonAysnk = new CommonAysnk(this, 1); mobjCommonAysnk.execute(); CommonAysnk is my AsyncTask class.I want to pass my activity and an integer parameter to the AsyncTask constructor. How can I call this from a thread as shown below method. Thread t = new Thread() { public void run() { try { CommonAysnk mobjCommonAysnk = new CommonAysnk(this, 1); mobjCommonAysnk.execute(); } catch (Exception ex) { }}}; t.start(); When I tried to call it from a Thread and I am not able to pass the activity parameter correctly. How can we sole this. Thanks

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  • rJava - how to call an abstract class method?

    - by Sarah
    I am trying to create an R function that taps into my JAVA code. I have an abstract class, let's say StudentGroup, that has abstract methods, and one method "getAppropriateStudentGroup" which returns (based on config) a class which extends StudentGroup. This allows calling classes to behave the same regardless of which StudentGroups is actually appropriate. 1) How can I use rJava to call getAppropriateStudentGroup? and 2) How can I call the methods on the returned class? Thank you!

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  • How can I use the "Windows Live Call Button" on my headphone to answer a call with Skype?

    - by Gnoupi
    Webcams and headphones from Microsoft (like for example the LifeChat ZX-6000, in my case) have a button which can be used only with Windows Live Messenger, to answer a call. There is no option provided to configure it so that it would launch a program, or work in another communicator, in the given drivers. Is there a way to make it work with Skype, so that I can answer a call by pressing this button? Maybe there are other drivers?

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  • Editing the registry entry to have Citrix call the local install of an application

    - by jrembold
    We use Citrix to access an app (APP1) remotely. As it currently stands, when APP1 needs to do a merge document, it calls a session of another app (APP2) from the Citrix server. However, due to latency issues, we now want APP1 to call a local version of APP2. This is controlled in the registry entry for APP1. I'm wondering what kind of path entry would need to be made so that APP1 would call the local APP2 while following the rules of the Citrix profile.

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  • How to take a call without forwarding it

    - by ageis23
    Hi I have a traditional telephony system at home. I also got an voip ATA device connected to the telephone socket. On a normal phone you can just plug it into the wall socket then multiple people on different phones can speak a the same time. Currently for me to take this call whoever answered the call will forward it onto my internal number. Is there not a way I can make it work like the analogue system so I can just pick up the phone?

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  • DOM: element created with cloneNode(true) missing element when added to DOM

    - by user149327
    I'm creating a tree control and I'm attempting to use a parent element as a template for its children. To this end I'm using the element.cloneNode(true) method to deep clone the parent element. However when I insert the cloned element into the DOM it is missing certain inner elements despite having an outerHTML value identical to its parent. Surprisingly I observe the same behavior is in IE, Firefox, and Chrome leading me to believe that it is by design. This is the HTML for the node I'm attempting to clone. <SPAN class=node><A class=nodeLink href="/SparklerRestService2.aspx?q={0}" name=http://dbpedia.org/data/Taylor_Swift.rdf> <IMG class=nodeIcon alt="Taylor Swift" src="images/node.png"><SPAN class=nodeText>Taylor Swift</SPAN></A><SPAN class=nodeDescription>Taylor Swift is a swell gall who is realy great.</SPAN></SPAN> Once I've cloned the node using cloneNode(true) I examine the outerHTML property and find that it is indeed identical to the original. <SPAN class=node><A class=nodeLink href="/SparklerRestService2.aspx?q={0}" name=http://dbpedia.org/data/Taylor_Swift.rdf><IMG class=nodeIcon alt="Taylor Swift" src="images/node.png"><SPAN class=nodeText>Taylor Swift</SPAN></A><SPAN class=nodeDescription>Taylor Swift is a swell gall who is realy great.</SPAN></SPAN> However when I insert it into the DOM and inspect the result using FireBug I find that the element has been transformed: <span class="node" style="top: 0px; left: 0px;"<a class=nodeLink href="/SparklerRestService2.aspx?q={0}" name=http://dbpedia.org/data/Taylor_Swift.rdf>Taylor Swift</a><span class="nodeDescription">It's great</span></span> Notice that the grandchildren of the node (the image tag and the span tag surrounding "Taylor Swift") are missing, although strangely the great grandchild "Taylor Swift" text node has made it into the tree. Can anyone shed some light on this behavior? Why would nodes disappear after insertion into the DOM, and why am I seeing the same result in all three major browser engines?

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  • .NET Reference "Copy Local" True / False Being Set Based on Contents of GAC

    - by D-Sect
    We had a very interesting problem with a Win Forms project. It's been resolved. We know what happened, but we want to understand why it happened. This may help other people out in the future who have a similar problem. The WinForms project failed on 2 of our client's PCs. The error was an obscure kernel.dll error. The project ran fine on 3 other PCs. We found that a .DLL (log4net.dll - a very popular open-source logging library) was missing from our release folder. It was previously in our release folder. Why was it missing in this latest release? It was missing because I must have installed a program on my Dev box that used log4net.dll and it was added to the Global Assembly Cache. When I checked the solution's references for log4net.dll, they were changed to "copy local=FALSE". They must have changed automatically because log4net.dll was present in my GAC. Here's where my question starts: Why did my reference for log4net.dll get changed from COPY LOCAL = TRUE to COPY LOCAL = FALSE? I suspect it's because it was added to my GAC by another program. How can we prevent this from happening again? As it stands now, if I install a piece of software that uses a common library and it adds it to my GAC, then my SLNs that reference that DLL will change from Copy Local TRUE to FALSE.

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  • .NET Reference "Copy Local" True / Fasle Being Set Based on Contents of General Assembly

    - by D-Sect
    Hello All. First question for me here. We had a very interesting problem with a Win Forms project. It's been resolved. We know what happened, but we want to understand why it happened. This may help other people out in the future who have a similar problem. The WinForms project failed on 2 of our client's PCs. The error was an obscure kernel.dll error. The project ran fine on 3 other PCs. We found that a .DLL (log4net.dll - a very popular open-source logging library) was missing from our release folder. It was previously in our release folder. Why was it missing in this latest release? It was missing because I must have installed a program on my Dev box that used log4net.dll and it was added to the general assembly. When I checked the SLN's references for log4net.dll, they were changed to "copy local=FALSE". They must have changed automagicially because log4net.dll was present in my GAC. Here's where my question starts: Why did my reference for log4net.dll get changed from COPY LOCAL = TRUE to COPY LOCAL = FALSE? I suspect it's because it was added to my GAC by another program. How can we prevent this from happening again? As it stands now, if I install a piece of software that uses a common library and it adds it to my GAC, then my SLNs that REF that DLL will change from Copy Local TRUE to FALSE. Thank you so much. I hope this helps people out who have a piece of software that runs in some places, but not in others, when it used to run fine in ALL places.

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  • SQL Server 2008 - Editing Tables: Bit columns require 'True' or 'False'

    - by CJM
    Not so much a question as an observation... I'm just upgrading to SQL Server 2008 on my development machine in anticipation of upgrading my live applications. I didn't anticipate any problems since [I think] I generally use standard T-SQL, and probably not too far from ANSI standard SQL. So far so good, but I was really thrown by a very simple change: I was creating a simple, small look-up table to store a list of codes and including a bit column to indicate the current default code. But when I used the new/modified 'Edit Top 200 Rows' option, and entered my 0s and 1s in the the bit column I got an error: 'Invalid value for cell - String was not recognised as a valid boolean' After a bit of head-scratching, I tried True and False - and they worked. So it seems this new Edit feature requires 4 or 5 characters to be typed, rather than the previous 1. Checking further, we can still use '...where bitval = 1' but can now also use '...where bitval = 'true''. But any results returned render these bit columns as 0 or 1 still. It all sounds like half a step backwards. Not the end of the world, but and unnecessary annoyance. Does anybody have any insight on this issue? Or there any other new Gotchas with SQL Server 2008?

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  • Getting browser to make an AJAX call ASAP, while page is still loading

    - by Chris
    I'm looking for tips on how to get the browser to kick off an AJAX call as soon as possible into processing a web page, ideally before the page is fully downloaded. Here's my approximate motivation: I have a web page that takes, say, 5 seconds to load. It calls a web service that takes, say, 10 seconds to load. If loading the page and calling the web service happened sequentially, the user would have to wait 15 seconds to see all the information. However, if I can get the web service call started before the 5 second page load is complete, then at least some of the work can happened in parallel. Ideally I'd like as much of the work to happen in parallel as possible. My initial theory was that I should place the AJAX-calling javascript as high up as possible in the web page HTML source (being mindful of putting it after the jquery.js include, because I'm making the call using jquery ajax). I'm also being mindful not to wrap the AJAX call in a jquery ready event handler. (I mention this because ready events are popular in a lot of jquery example code.) However, the AJAX call still doesn't seem to get kicked off as early as I'm hoping (at least as judged by the Google Chrome "Timeline" feature), so I'm wondering what other considerations apply. One thing that might potentially be detrimental is that the AJAX call is back to the same web server that's serving the original web page, so I might be in danger of hitting a browser limit on the # of HTTP connections back to that one machine? (The HTML page loads a number of images, css files, etc..)

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  • "Cannot open user default database" error with "User Instance=True"

    - by Keith
    I have a desktop application that uses Sql user instancing. This is my connection string: "Data Source=.\SqlExpress; AttachDbFilename=C:\path\file.mdf; Integrated Security=True; User Instance=True; Connect Timeout=100;" My application creates this DB, downloads a load of data into it from a web service and then does a lot of actions with it. The problem comes when I attempt to re-open the connection. I get a SqlException: "Cannot open user default database. Login failed. Login failed for user 'myDomain\myusername'." This error makes no sense in this context - I have no default database. I'm logging in to an instance created just for the current application, running separately from SqlExpress. There's no other way to connect to this DB. If I start the SqlExpress service and connect to the default instance it won't be visible. It only exists for this application. The file on disk is locked by the SqlExpress instance service running under the application. if I stop the app and restart it the connection works first time, but fails on re-opening. If I just stop the app I can delete the .mdf files and begin again, but it still crashes when I re-open the connection. As my app started the instance running as me my current user should have access to every DB in the instance. This doesn't happen for other users of the same code, which suggests that it's a SQL config issue. Does anyone have any idea what causes this and how to work around it?

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  • jQuery ajax call doesn't seem to do anything at all

    - by icemanind
    I am having a problem with making an ajax call in jQuery. Having done this a million times, I know I am missing something really silly here. Here is my javascript code for making the ajax call: function editEmployee(id) { $('#<%= imgNewEmployeeWait.ClientID %>').hide(); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog input[type=text]').val(''); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog select option:first-child').attr("selected", "selected"); $('#divAddNewEmployeeDialog').dialog('open'); $('#createEditEmployeeId').text(id); var inputEmp = {}; inputEmp.id = id; var jsonInputEmp = JSON.stringify(inputEmp); debugger; alert('Before Ajax Call!'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Configuration.aspx/GetEmployee", data: jsonInputEmp, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { alert('success'); }, error: function (msg) { alert('failure'); } }); } Here is my CS code that is trying to be called: [WebMethod] public static string GetEmployee(int id) { var employee = new Employee(id); return Newtonsoft.Json.JsonConvert.SerializeObject(employee, Newtonsoft.Json.Formatting.Indented); } When I try to run this, I do get the alert that says Before Ajax Call!. However, I never get an alert back that says success or an alert that says failure. I did go into my CS code and put a breakpoint on the GetEmployee method. The breakpoint did hit, so I know jQuery is successfully calling the method. I stepped through the method and it executed just fine with no errors. I can only assume the error is happening when the jQuery ajax call is returning from the call. Also, I looked in my event logs just to make sure there wasn't an ASPX error occurring. There is no error in the logs. I also looked at the console. There are no script errors. Anyone have any ideas what I am missing here? `

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  • documentFragment.cloneNode(true) doesn't clone jQuery data

    - by taber
    I have a documentFragment with several child nodes containing some .data() added like so: myDocumentFragment = document.createDocumentFragment(); for(...) { myDocumentFragment.appendChild( $('').addClass('button') .attr('href', 'javascript:void(0)') .html('click me') .data('rowData', { 'id': 103, 'test': 'testy' }) .get(0) ); } When I try to append the documentFragment to a div on the page: $('#div').append( myDocumentFragment ); I can access the data just fine: alert( $('#div a:first').data('rowData').id ); // alerts '103' But if I clone the node with cloneNode(true), I can't access the node's data. :( $('#div').append( myDocumentFragment.cloneNode(true) ); ... alert( $('#div a:first').data('rowData').id ); // alerts undefined Has anyone else done this or know of a workaround? I guess I could store the row's data in jQuery.data('#some_random_parent_div', 'rows', [array of ids]), but that kinda defeats the purpose of making the data immediately/easily available to each row. I've also read that jQuery uses documentFragments, but I'm not sure exactly how, or in what methods. Does anyone have any more details there? Thanks!

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  • TextBox doesn't fire TextChanged Event on IE 8, AutoPostback is true

    - by MaikoID
    Hi guys, I have the same thing, there are many TextBoxes with the event TextChanged set and with AutoPostback = true, and works in all browsers (Chrome, Opera, Firefox 3.6) except in IE 8, IE 6/7 I didn't test. I don't want to put the onblur event in all my TextBoxs because there are many pages with many TextBox that use this event. Description I'm using a masterPage, in the aspx i have <asp:TextBox ID="txtCnpj" runat="server" CssClass="txt" Width="200px" onkeyup="Mascara(this,Cnpj)" onkeydown="Mascara(this,Cnpj)" MaxLength="18" AutoPostBack="true" ValidationGroup="txtCnpj" OnTextChanged="txtCnpj_TextChanged"></asp:TextBox> in the aspx.cs protected void txtCnpj_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (CredorInvestimento.GetCredorInvestimento(txtCnpj.Text) != null) { ((TextBox)sender).Text = ""; ((TextBox)sender).Focus(); rfvCnpj.ErrorMessage = "Duplicado"; Page.Validate(txtCnpj.ID); } else txtNome.Focus(); } Thanks! ps: I really doesn't like of asp.net I spend more time fixing errors than developing new functions. ps: sorry for my english. ps: if i remove the onkeydown and onkeyup events the textchanged fire in IE, but i realy this events too.

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  • Why is button background defaulting to grey when IsPressed is true

    - by Dave Colwell
    Hey all, I have a simple problem. Using the IsPressed trigger i want to be able to set the background color of a button to something other than the default grey. Here is what the button looks like when it is not pressed and here is what it looks like when it is clicked Here is the trigger for the button. I know the trigger is firing correctly because of the glow effect around the edge of the button when it is clicked. I also know that the brush is correct because i tried it out as a background brush to see what it looked like. <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonHoverBrush}"/> <Setter Property="BitmapEffect" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonHoverGlow}"/> </Trigger> <!-- This is the trigger which is working but the background color wont change --> <Trigger Property="IsPressed" Value="True"> <Setter Property="BitmapEffect" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonHoverGlow}"/> <Setter Property="Background" Value="{DynamicResource ButtonPressedBrush}" /> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers>

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  • Why is OCR(MODI.MiLANGUAGES.miLANG_ENGLISH, true, true) causing an OCR running error?

    - by Ian Wells
    Hi folks, I am using MODI to read tiff images and do what I need to do with the text. Some images work fine and then other tiff images always cause the method, OCR(MODI.MiLANGUAGES.miLANG_ENGLISH, true, true) to fail. I have researched this and tried different variations such as 'false','false' in the parameter list. I have also tried SYSDEFAULT instead of English but I still get the error. Can anyone please tell me why it would fail on some tiff images and not on others? I have done some research and found this answer: One possible cause is MODI trying to process a file without any recognisable text. A blank document, or one which has only drawings/scribbles and is effectively blank, will cause this exception. Obviously this is not good enough as there is no way I can have an app that decides to OCR some images and not others. I handle the exception, but the OCR object is not then initalised so I can't do what I need to do from there. This is a bloody nightmare! Why can't the method just do it's bloody job and if the image has some unreadable pages then just ignore them? I am using Windows 7 Ultimate and Office 2007 Ultimate. Visual Studio version is 2008 Thanks, IW

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  • tail call generated by clang 1.1 and 1.0 (llvm 2.7 and 2.6)

    - by ony
    After compilation next snippet of code with clang -O2 (or with online demo): #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int flop(int x); int flip(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+1)*flop(x-1); } int flop(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+0)*flip(x-1); } int main(int argc, char **argv) { printf("%d\n", flip(atoi(argv[1]))); } I'm getting next snippet of llvm assembly in flip: bb1.i: ; preds = %bb1 %4 = add nsw i32 %x, -2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] %5 = tail call i32 @flip(i32 %4) nounwind ; <i32> [#uses=1] %6 = mul nsw i32 %5, %2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] br label %flop.exit I thought that tail call means dropping current stack (i.e. return will be to the upper frame, so next instruction should be ret %5), but according to this code it will do mul for it. And in native assembly there is simple call without tail optimisation (even with appropriate flag for llc) Can sombody explain why clang generates such code? As well I can't understand why llvm have tail call if it can simply check that next ret will use result of prev call and later do appropriate optimisation or generate native equivalent of tail-call instruction?

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  • JDBC call not executing

    - by dbyrne
    I am working on one of the DAOs for a medium sized web application. Unfortunately, it contains very convoluted logic, and makes hundreds of JDBC stored proc calls in loops. This is out of my control. I am working on a method inside the DAO which makes a single JDBC call. The simplified version of what this method looks like is this: DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.sybase.jdbc2.jdbc.SybDriver()); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection((String)connectionDetails.get("DATABASE_URL") (String)connectionDetails.get("USERID"), (String)connectionDetails.get("PASSWORD")); String sqlToExecute = "{call " + STORED_PROC + "(?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?,?)}"; CallableStatement stmt = con.prepareCall(sqlToExecute); //Maybe I should try calling clearParameters here? stmt.setString(1,someData); //....Set of parameters.... if (!stmt.execute()) { //execute method never returns false } stmt.close(); Its pretty much a textbook JDBC call. All this stored proc does is insert a single row. Here is where things get crazy: This code works when you run it through a debugger line by line, but fails when you run it "full speed". Not only does it fail, but it doesn't throw any exception! The execute method always returns true. It just breezes right through the JDBC call without inserting a row to the database. If you go through the log files, copy the stored proc call and run it manually, it works (just like it does in debug mode). Whats strange is that the rest of the DAO, with all its hundreds of looped stored proc calls, works fine. My thinking is that Connection or CallableStatement is caching some value behind the scenes that is screwing things up. Has anyone ever seen anything like this before? A JDBC call failing with no exceptions? I know it will be impossible to provide a complete solution to this without seeing the whole application, I am just looking for suggestions on possible issues to investigate.

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