Search Results

Search found 5566 results on 223 pages for 'behind'.

Page 190/223 | < Previous Page | 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197  | Next Page >

  • Need some help understanding a weird C behavior

    - by mike
    This part of my code works fine: #include <stdio.h> int main(){ //char somestring[3] = "abc"; int i, j; int count = 5; for((i=0) && (j=0); count > 0; i++ && j++){ printf("i = %d and j = %d\n", i, j); count--; } return 0; } The output as expected: i : 0 and j : 0 i : 1 and j : 1 i : 2 and j : 2 i : 3 and j : 3 i : 4 and j : 4 Things get weird when I uncomment the char string declaration on the first line of the function body. #include <stdio.h> int main(){ char somestring[3] = "abc"; ... } The output: i : 0 and j : 4195392 i : 1 and j : 4195393 i : 2 and j : 4195394 i : 3 and j : 4195395 i : 4 and j : 4195396 What's the logic behind this? I'm using gcc 4.4.1 on Ubuntu 9.10.

    Read the article

  • Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

    - by Dan Tao
    I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

    Read the article

  • templated method on T inside a templated class on TT : Is that possible/correct.

    - by paercebal
    I have a class MyClass which is templated on typename T. But inside, I want a method which is templated on another type TT (which is unrelated to T). After reading/tinkering, I found the following notation: template <typename T> class MyClass { public : template<typename TT> void MyMethod(const TT & param) ; } ; For stylistic reasons (I like to have my templated class declaration in one header file, and the method definitions in another header file), I won't define the method inside the class declaration. So, I have to write it as: template <typename T> // this is the type of the class template <typename TT> // this is the type of the method void MyClass<T>::MyMethod(const TT & param) { // etc. } I knew I had to "declare" the typenames used in the method, but didn't know how exactly, and found through trials and errors. The code above compiles on Visual C++ 2008, but: Is this the correct way to have a method templated on TT inside a class templated on T? As a bonus: Are there hidden problems/surprises/constraints behind this kind of code? (I guess the specializations can be quite amusing to write)

    Read the article

  • Polling a web URL until event

    - by Jaxo
    I'm really sorry about the crappy title - if anybody has a better way of wording it, please edit it! I basically need to have a C# application run a function if the output of a URL is a certain value. For example, if the website says blue the background colour will be blue, red to make it red, etc. The problem is I don't want to spam my webserver with checks. The 4 bytes it downloads each time is negligible, but if I were to deploy this type of system on multiple computers, it would get slower and slower and the bandwidth would add up quickly. So my question is: How can my desktop application run a piece of code only when a web URL has a different output without checking each time? I can't use sockets, and any sort of LAN protocol won't end up working. My reasoning behind this potentially nefarious code is to be able to mute computers by updating a file on the website (as you may have seen in my previous question today, sorry!). I'd like it to be rather quick, and not have the refresh time minutes apart, a few seconds at the most would be ideal. How can I accomplish this? The website's code is easy, but getting the C# application to check when it changes is the part I'm stuck on. Nothing shows up on the website other than the command. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Structuring iPhone/iPad application views

    - by Mark
    I have an idea about an application that I want to build and Im new to iPhone/iPad development (but not new to development in other languages/frameworks such as .NET and Java). I want to layout some views on the screen so that they animate (slide in) from different directions into their places. The question is about the strucuture of the application, if I have say 4 rectanglular areas on the screen that contain business data, such as contacts (name, photo, etc...) and they all take up different widths of the screen (say the first contact takes up one row of the screen, but the next 2 take up half the width of the next row each, and so on). Should I create a custom view for the different sized contact views, (i.e. LargeCustomView and SmallCustomView, and any other special type that I make) or should it all be one type, say, CustomerDetailsView which could be stretched to fit at design time? Also, if there were, say, 3 different instances of the same custom view on the one screen, are there 3 instances of the view controller also? Im a little confused about powering the data behind a view, can someone shed some light on this for me? Do I just set the properties (say an instance variable ContactForView) on the view controller for each instance? Thanks for any help you can give Cheers, Mark

    Read the article

  • Coding style in .NET: whether to refactor into new method or not?

    - by Dione
    Hi As you aware, in .NET code-behind style, we already use a lot of function to accommodate those _Click function, _SelectedIndexChanged function etc etc. In our team there are some developer that make a function in the middle of .NET function, for example: public void Button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) {     some logic here..     some logic there..     DoSomething();     DoSomethingThere();     another logic here..     DoOtherSomething(); } private void DoSomething() { } private void DoSomethingThere() { } private void DoOtherSomething() { } public void DropDown_SelectedIndexChanged() { } public void OtherButton_Click() { } and the function listed above is only used once in that function and not used anywhere else in the page, or called from other part of the solution. They said it make the code more tidier by grouping them and extract them into additional sub-function. I can understand if the sub-function is use over and over again in the code, but if it is only use once, then I think it is not really a good idea to extract them into sub-function, as the code getting bigger and bigger, when you look into the page and trying to understand the logic or to debug by skimming through line by line, it will make you confused by jumping from main function to the sub-function then to main function and to sub-function again. I know this kind of grouping by method is better when you writing old ASP or Cold fusion style, but I am not sure if this kind of style is better for .NET or not. Question is: which is better when you developing .NET, is grouping similar logic into a sub-method better (although they only use once), or just put them together inside main function and add //explanation here on the start of the logic is better? Hope my question is clear enough. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL Queries odd Materialization

    - by ptoinson
    I ran across an interesting Linq to SQL, uh, feature, the other day. Perhaps someone can give me a logical explanation for the reasoning behind the results. Take the code below as my example which utilizes the AdventureWorks database setup in a Linq to SQL DataContext. This is a clip from my unit test. The resulting customer returned from a call to both CustomerQuery_Test_01() and CustomerQuery_Test_02() is the same. However, the query executed on the SQLServer are different is a major way. The method CustomerQuery_Test_01 us causing the entire Customer table to be materialized, which the call to CustomerQuery_Test_02 is only causing the single customer to be materialized. The resulting SQL Queries are at the bottom of this post. Anyone have a good reason for this? To me, it was highly non-intuitive. protected virtual Customer GetByPrimaryKey(Func<Customer, bool> keySelection) { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); return (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(keySelection); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_01() { Customer customer = GetByPrimaryKey(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } [TestMethod] public void CustomerQuery_Test_02() { AdventureWorksDataContext context = new AdventureWorksDataContext(); Customer customer = (from r in context.Customers select r).SingleOrDefault(c => c.CustomerID == 2); } Query for CustomerQuery_Test_01 (notice the lack of a where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] Query for CustomerQuery_Test_02 (notice the where clause) SELECT [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[NameStyle], [t0].[Title], [t0].[FirstName], [t0].[MiddleName], [t0].[LastName], [t0].[Suffix], [t0].[CompanyName], [t0].[SalesPerson], [t0].[EmailAddress], [t0].[Phone], [t0].[PasswordHash], [t0].[PasswordSalt], [t0].[rowguid], [t0].[ModifiedDate] FROM [SalesLT].[Customer] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[CustomerID] = @p0

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to make sure classes implementing an Interface implement static methods?

    - by Tobias Kienzler
    Frist of all, I read erickson's usefull reply to "Why can’t I define a static method in a Java interface?". This question is not about the "why" but about the "how then?". So basically I want one Interface to provide both usual methods and e.g. a getSimilarObject method. For (a made up) example public interface ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) using the parameters */ static abstract public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters); /** @return The function's name */ static abstract public String getName(); } and then public class Parabola implements ParametricFunction { /** @return f(x) = parameters[0] * x² + parameters[1] * x + parameters[2] */ static public double getValue(double x, double[] parameters) { return ( parameters[2] + x*(parameters[1] + x*parameters[0])); } static public String getName() { return "Parabola"; } } Since this is not allowed in the current Java standard, what is the closest thing to this? The idea behind this is putting several ParametricFunction's in a package and use Reflection to list them all, allowing the user to pick e.g. which one to plot. Obviously one could provide a loader class containing an array of the available ParametricFunction's, but every time a new one is implemented one has to remember adding it there, too.

    Read the article

  • GDI+ not clearing my window on repaint for vista

    - by Michael
    on WM_PAINT i do the following: //RectF mNameRect; //WCHAR* mName; //HWND mWin; // this is the window handle { PAINTSTRUCT ps; HDC hdc = BeginPaint(mWin, &ps); Graphics g(hdc); g.Clear(Color::White); StringFormat stringForm; stringForm.SetLineAlignment(StringAlignmentCenter); stringForm.SetAlignment(StringAlignmentCenter); // set the rectangle to the size of the whole window mNameRect.Width = static_cast<float>(size.cx); mNameRect.Height = static_cast<float>(size.cy); g.DrawString(mName, -1, &mNameFont, mNameRect, &stringForm, &mNameBrush); EndPaint(mWin, &ps); } In XP this works fine, the mName is displayed in the middle of the window. However on Vista the text doesn't move, it stays in its location no matter how I resize the window. the g.Clear(Color::White) doesn't seem to do any difference. The text doesn't even change position when the window is hidden behind another window and on focus needs to be repainted again. How do I make mName change position in Vista?

    Read the article

  • How to display in a form the next object of a collection?

    - by user359706
    I have a list of objects produced. after click on next I want to display the next product in the form my products list: Private List listProduct; listProduits = new List<Product>(); Product objProduit_1 = new Produit; objProduct_1.ref = "001"; objProduct_1.article = "G900"; objProduct_1.quantity = 30; listProducts.Add(objProduct_1); ProductobjProduit_2 = new Product; objProduct_2.ref = "002"; objProduct_2.article = "G900"; objProduct_2.quantity = 35; listProduits.Add(objProduct_2); in my asp page I have the following form: <form id="formNF" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="txtRef" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtArticle" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:TextBox ID="txtQauntity" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="ButtonNext" runat="server" Text="Next product" OnClick="ButtonNext_Click"/> </form> In my code-behind: protected void ButtonNext_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // I do not know how to retrieve the following product // How to stop and continue after click on next button? foreach (Product prd in listProduct){ txtRef.Text = prd.ref; txtRef.Text = prd.article; txtRef.Text = prd.quantity; } } Thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • Hide / Show menu code not working after postback

    - by WraithNath
    I have a button on my web page that toggles the menu, After a postback the menu comes back despite me updating a hidden field value to store its state. Am I doing something wrong here? If there is a better way of doing it, let me know! Markup: <asp:Button ID="btnMenu" runat="server" Text="Hide Menu" UseSubmitBehavior="False" OnClientClick="return toggleMenu(this);" /> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlMenuToggle"> //Main Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="pnlSubMenuToggle"> //Sub Menu </asp:Panel> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfMenuState" runat="server" Value="true" /> <script> //Toggles menu visibility function toggleMenu(menuButton) { var menuVisible = $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val() == 'true' ? true : false; $('#<%=pnlMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggleWidth(); $('#<%=pnlSubMenuToggle.ClientID%>').slideToggle('slow'); //Update whether the menu is visible menuVisible = !menuVisible; //Update menu button text $(menuButton).val(menuVisible ? 'Hide Menu' : 'Show Menu'); $('#<%=hfMenuState.ClientID%>').val(menuVisible) return false; } </script> Code Behind: (Page Load) bool menu = Convert.ToBoolean( hfMenuState.Value ); pnlMenuToggle.Visible = menu; pnlSubMenuToggle.Visible = menu; The javascripts updates the hidden field value but it looks like this is never posted back to the server. What can I do to make sure the menu stays hidden after postbacks. I have also tried putting the hidden field in an Update Panel with Update Mode set to Always

    Read the article

  • wpautop() - when shortcode attributes are on new lines -breaks args array

    - by Luca
    I have a custom shortcode tag with a few attributes, and I would like to be able to display its attributes on new lines - to make it more readable to content editors: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" attr3 ="another" attr4 ="value" ... attrN ="valueN"] The reason behind this requirement is that a few attributes might be quite verbose in content. Unfortunately, wpautop() adds some nasty extra markup that breaks the args array like this (using php print_r($args)): Array ( [0] => attr1 [1] => ="value1" /> [3] => attr2 = [4] => "value [5] => of [6] => the [7] => second [8] => one" /> [10] => "" //...and more like this) I've tried with the attributes inline: [component attr1 ="value1" attr2 ="value of the second one" ="value"... attrN ="valueN"] and the output is as expected: Array ( [attr1] => value1 [attr2] => value of the second one [attr3] => //...and so on) is there any way to have the attributes intented and avoid that extra markup that breaks the $args array?

    Read the article

  • How to synchronize two (or n) replication processes for SQL Server databases?

    - by Yauheni Sivukha
    There are two master databases and two read-only copies updated by standard transactional replication. It is needed to map some entity from both read-only databases, lets say that A databases contains orders and B databases contains lines. The problem is that replication to one database can lag behind replication of second database, and at the moment of mapping R-databases will have inconsistent data. For example. We stored 2 orders with lines at 19:00 and 19:03. Mapping process started at 19:05, but to the moment of mapping A database replication processed all changes up to 19:03, but B database replication processed only changes up to 19:00. After mapping we will have order entity with order as of 19:03 and lines as of 19:00. The troubles are guaranteed:) In my particular case both databases have temporal model, so it is possible to fetch data for every time slice, but the problem is to identify time of latest replication. Question: How to synchronize replication processes for several databases to avoid situation described above? Or, in other words, how to compare last time of replication in each database? UPD: The only way I see to synchronize is to continuously write timestamps into service tables in each database and to check these timestamps on replicated servers. Is that acceptable solution?

    Read the article

  • Properly handling NSURLConnection errors

    - by Cal S
    Hi, I have a simple form interface set up that send username and password information to a server: (working) NSString *postData = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"user=%@&pass=%@",[self urlEncodeValue:sysUsername],[self urlEncodeValue:password]]; NSLog(@"Post data -> %@", postData); /// NSData* postVariables = [postData dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:YES]; NSMutableURLRequest* request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; NSString* postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postVariables length]]; NSURL* postUrl = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://localhost/~csmith/cocoa/test.php"]; [request setURL:postUrl]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody: postVariables]; NSData *returnData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:NULL error:NULL]; NSLog(@"Post data SENT & returned -> %@", returnData); How do I handle connection errors such as no internet connection, firewall, etc. Also, does this method use the system-wide proxy settings? Many of my users are behind a proxy. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • onKeypress Enter Key event on textfield not working in Chrome

    - by rlcrews
    I have a question along the same vein as the one asked here regarding how the enter key is handled in chrome. The effect I am trying to accomplish is to allow the enter key to call a click event of one a button while focus in within the current field. To accomplish this I am using the following code: javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> //attempting to capture keypress for chrome here but this is not working $("#txtContainer").keypress(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == '13') { e.preventDefault(); doClick(buttonname, e); return false; } }); function doClick(buttonName, e) { var key; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; //IE else key = e.which; //firefox if (key == 13) { var btn = document.getElementById(buttonName); if (btn != null) { btn.click(); event.keyCode = 0 } } } </script> within the aspx <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:LinkButton ID="newBtn" runat="server" OnClick="btnLogin_Click" Text="ASP Link" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtContainer" runat="server" Width="100" /> <asp:Label ID="time_lbl" runat="server" /> </div> </form> and within the code behind aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { txtContainer.Attributes.Add("onKeyPress", "doClick('" + newBtn.ClientID + "',event)"); } } public void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { time_lbl.Text = txtContainer.Text; } The above code works fine in FF and IE however chrome continues to submit the entire form vs. capturing the keypress on the enterkey. Thank you for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • CSS Heart with Text within

    - by user3696456
    I would like to put a name into a heart made with CSS. And I can't seem to figure out how to do it. I have this code already: #heart { position:relative; width:100px; height:100px; } #heart:before,#heart:after { position:absolute; content:""; left:50px; top:0; width:50px; height:80px; background:#F00000; -moz-border-radius:50px 50px 0 0; border-radius:50px 50px 0 0; -webkit-transform:rotate(-45deg); -moz-transform:rotate(-45deg); -ms-transform:rotate(-45deg); -o-transform:rotate(-45deg); transform:rotate(-45deg); -webkit-transform-origin:0 100%; -moz-transform-origin:0 100%; -ms-transform-origin:0 100%; -o-transform-origin:0 100%; transform-origin:0 100%; } #heart:after { left: 0; -webkit-transform:rotate(45deg); -moz-transform:rotate(45deg); -ms-transform:rotate(45deg); -o-transform:rotate(45deg); transform:rotate(45deg); -webkit-transform-origin:100% 100%; -moz-transform-origin:100% 100%; -ms-transform-origin:100% 100%; -o-transform-origin:100% 100%; transform-origin:100% 100%; } When I try to write the name directly into the div: "#heart", it just puts the text behind. Thanks in advance for any help!

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to rotate an html table?

    - by Josh
    Is there a way to rotate an html table? So, say I had a table like this: <table id="table-1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td>1</td></tr> <tr><td>2</td></tr> <tr><td>3</td></tr> <tr><td>4</td></tr> <tr><td>5</td></tr> <tr><td>6</td></tr> </table> and wanted to some sort of button that had javascript behind it that could rotate the table any which direction. For example, clicking the right button, results in: <table id="table-1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="2"> <tr><td>6</td><td>5</td><td>4</td><td>3</td><td>2</td><td>1</td></tr> </table> I have a drag and drop plugin that uses a table, and I am trying to do a piece that allows for a user to add to a queue (that results in the table), and then they can also rotate it around as well. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight: Why doesn't this binding expression work?

    - by Rosarch
    I'm having difficulty with a binding expression in Silverlight 3 for the Windows Phone 7. <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Transparent"> <controls:Pivot ItemsSource="{Binding SectionViewModels}"> <!-- ... --> <controls:Pivot.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <!-- this is the troublesome binding --> <TextBlock Style="{StaticResource disabledText}" Visibility="{Binding ElementName=LayoutRoot, Path=DataContext.NoStoryContent}"> Do you have a network connection? </TextBlock> <!-- ... --> The style, in app.xaml: <Style x:Key="disabledText" TargetType="TextBlock"> <Setter Property="Foreground" Value="{StaticResource PhoneDisabledBrush}" /> <Setter Property="TextWrapping" Value="Wrap" /> <Setter Property="FontSize" Value="{StaticResource PhoneFontSizeLarge}" /> </Style> Code behind: public Visibility NoStoryContent { get { // trivial return value for debugging // no breakpoint here is hit return Visibility.Collapsed; } } public Sections() { InitializeComponent(); LayoutRoot.DataContext = this; } What am I doing wrong here? I suspect I have a mistake in the binding expression, but I'm not sure where.

    Read the article

  • OCR combined with font recognition?

    - by Adam
    I have a bold idea where a user could take an image like the following and in a few seconds of processing, be able to edit a document which looks roughly the same. The software would use WhatTheFont (or something similar) to recognize the fonts used, and OCR and other software to handle the font size, color, line-spacing, and of course the text content itself. In the case of the example image, there would be three separate "textboxes" produced, each starting at the upper left corner of the text, and extending as far to the bottom right as it could before running into another text box. So the user would then see something like this: (The rectangles are just used to show the boundaries of each textbox.) From here, the user would be able to edit the text in each of these boxes to create a new document. Of course there are tons of obvious uses for such an application, especially on a mobile phone with a built in camera. So my questions are the following: I doubt the answer is yes, but does anything do this already? If I'm going to try to build this, what should I write it in? Can I use Python? What would be the best OCR libraries to start with? Is there a service other than WhatTheFont for font recognition that has better API support? Anybody want to help me build it? :) etc. etc. Update: One thing I wanted to mention (but forgot) is I would also like the background to be preserved. In other words, if the example above had an image behind the text, I'd like the document to use that image with text removed. I know this complicates things a lot because that would require some image editing techniques too (something akin to Photoshop CS5' "content-aware fill"). But if we can solve diminished reality on iPhones, I think we can figure this out!

    Read the article

  • initalizing two pointers to same value in "for" loop

    - by MCP
    I'm working with a linked list and am trying to initalize two pointers equal to the "first"/"head" pointer. I'm trying to do this cleanly in a "for" loop. The point of all this being so that I can run two pointers through the linked list, one right behind the other (so that I can modify as needed)... Something like: //listHead = main pointer to the linked list for (blockT *front, *back = listHead; front != NULL; front = front->next) //...// back = back->next; The idea being I can increment front early so that it's one ahead, doing the work, and not incrementing "back" until the bottom of the code block in case I need to backup in order to modify the linked list... Regardless as to the "why" of this, in addition to the above I've tried: for (blockT *front = *back = listHead; /.../ for (blockT *front = listHead, blockT *back = listHead; /.../ I would like to avoid pointer to a pointer. Do I just need to initialize these before the loop? As always, thanks!

    Read the article

  • Choose 'better' or more familiar technologies for a new project?

    - by John
    I am looking to start work on a brand-new project, something I've been thinking about for a while as my first independent sellable project. It's broadly speaking a web-based service application, and my first choice, server-language is quite easy... I know Java pretty well from working on Java web-apps in the past. However my experience doing web-apps involved JSP, Servlets and JSTL... I know the ideas behind newer technologies like Hibernate/Spring but have never used them. So we wrote our own DAOs, handled AJAX by writing special mini-JSP pages that generated XML/JSON pages, etc. I'm not hugely into the idea that Spring/Hibernate are the 'only' or 'right' way to do any Java web-project, but they are widely used. On the other hand, not only would trying to learn these increase initial development time, but I'd be using my learning attempts to build a production system. I remember one of Joel's early articles said (I'll paraphrase since I can't find it) "regardless what's cool, always use the technologies that the lead developer (or dev team?) knows best" I wondered what people thought about that? ps: should this be CW?

    Read the article

  • Guidance on E-commerce in a Python Framework

    - by Ant
    I am looking for guidance in making decisions on using Python for E-commerce. My reasoning to use Python in the first place is i do a lot of 3D so it's a real help to use Python for web server side as well as 3D so I do not need to learn a new language. When I say E-commerce i mean the logic behind displaying products and a check out system that is Robust....and yes I really want to build this myself so I can change it. I do not want to use an out the box solution that costs a lot of money every month. I want control of server side, data bases, e-commerce etc. My questions are: What Frameworks are out there? I looked at previous questions on stackoverflow but only found old posts about Sachmo and Get paid. What is the learning path, I do not want to make a mistake that costs six months of studying? Python then Django? How long if I spent 10 hours a day studying this would it take to get up and running? I write javaScript badly, so I am not a complete noob, I understand the basics of programming languages. many thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Creating a new window that stays on top even when in full screen mode (Qt on Linux)

    - by Lorenz03Tx
    I'm using Qt 4.6.3, and ubuntu linux on an embedded target. I call dlg->setWindowState(Qt::WindowFullScreen); on my windows in my application (so I don't loose any real-estate on the touch screen to task bar and status panel on the top and bottom of the screen. This all works fine and as expected. The issue comes in when I want to popup the on screen keyboard to allow the user to input some data. I use m_keyProc= new QProcess(); m_keyProc->start("onboard -s 640x120"); This pops up the keyboard but it is behind the full screen window. The onbaord keyboards preferences are set such that it is always on top, but that seems to actually mean "except for full screen windows". I guess that makes sense and probably meets most use cases, but I need it to be really on top. Can I either A) Not be full screen mode (so the keyboard works) and programmatically hide the task bars? or B) Force the keyboard to be on top despite my full screen status? Note: On windows we call m_keyProc->start("C:\\Windows\\system32\\osk.exe"); and the osk keyboard is on top despite the full screen status. So, I'm guessing this is a difference in window mangers on the different operating systems. So do I need to set some flag on the window with the linux window manager?

    Read the article

  • Manipulate method functionality call

    - by danrichardson
    Hello, is it possibly in c# to have some sort of base class functionality which is manipulated slightly based on the class. For instance say i have the following code (which will quite obviously not compile it's meant to only be for demonstrative purposes) class BaseFunctionality { public virtual bool adminCall public static string MethodName(int id, string parameter) { if (adminCall) return dbcall.Execute(); else return dbcall.ExecuteMe(); } } class Admin : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = true; } class Front : BaseFunctionality { override bool adminCall = false; } Now what i would like to be able to do is; string AdminCall = Admin.MethodName(1, "foo"); string FrontCall = Front.MethodName(2, "bar"); Is their any way to do something like this? I'm trying to do everything with static methods so i do not have to instantiate classes all the time, and have nice clean code which is only being manipulated in one place. The idea behind this is so that there is minimal code repeating and makes things easier to expand on, so for instance another class could implement the BaseFunctionality later on. Thanks Dan

    Read the article

  • Silverlight ~ MVVM ~ Dynamic setting of Style property based on model value

    - by eponymous23
    I have a class called Question that represents a question and it's answer. I have an application that renders an ObservableCollection of Question objects. Each Question is rendered as a StackPanel that contains a TextBlock for the question verbiage, and a TextBox for the user to enter in an answer. The questions are rendered using an ItemsControl, and I have initially set the Style of the Questions's StackPanel using a StaticResource key called 'IncorrectQuestion' (defined in UserControl.Resources section of the page). In the UserControl.Resources section, I've also defined a key calld 'CorrectQuestion' which I need to somehow apply to the Question's StackPanel when the user correctly answers the question. My problem is I'm not sure how to dynamically change the Style of the StackPanel, specifically within the constraints of a ViewModel class (i.e. I don't want to put any style selection code in the View's code-behind). My Question class has an IsCorrect property which is accurately being set when the correction is answered. I'd like to somehow reflect the IsCorrect value in the form of a Style selection. How do I do that?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197  | Next Page >