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  • Using multiple aggregate functions in an algebraic expression in (ANSI) SQL statement

    - by morpheous
    I have the following aggregate functions (AGG FUNCs): foo(), foobar(), fredstats(), barneystats(). I want to know if I can use multiple AGG FUNCs in an algebraic expression. This may seem a strange/simplistic question for seasoned SQL developers - however, the but the reason I ask is that so far, all AGG FUNCs examples I have seen are of the simplistic variety e.g. max(salary) < 100, rather than using the AGG FUNCs in an expression which involves using multiple AGG FUNCs in an expression (like agg_func1() agg_func2()). The information below should help clarify further. Given tables with the following schemas: CREATE TABLE item (id int, length float, weight float); CREATE TABLE item_info (item_id, name varchar(32)); # Is it legal (ANSI) SQL to write queries of this format ? SELECT id, name, foo, foobar, fredstats FROM A, B (SELECT id, foo(123) as foo, foobar('red') as foobar, fredstats('weight') as fredstats FROM item GROUP BY id HAVING [ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSION] ORDER BY id AS A), item_info AS B WHERE item.id = B.id Where: ALGEBRAIC EXPRESSION is the type of expression that can be used in a WHERE clause - for example: ((foo(x) < foobar(y)) AND foobar(y) IN (1,2,3)) OR (fredstats(x) <> 0)) I am using PostgreSQL as the db, but I would prefer to use ANSI SQL wherever possible. Assuming it is legal to include AGG FUNCS in the way I have done above, I'd like to know: Is there a more efficient way to write the above query ? Is there any way I can speed up the query in terms of a judicious choice of indexes on the tables item and item_info ? Is there a performance hit of using AGG FUNCs in an algebraic expression like I am (i.e. an expression involving the output of aggregate functions rather than constants? Can the expression also include 'scaled' AGG FUNC? (for example: 2*foo(123) < -3*foobar(456) ) - will scaling (i.e. multiplying an AGG FUNC by a number have an effect on performance?) How can I write the query above using INNER JOINS instead?

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  • How can I capture the keystroke that triggers "CellEndEdit" on a DataGridView in C#?

    - by Andy Stampor
    I have a DataGridView that is set to EditOnF2. I do some special processing of data in the CellEndEdit eventhandler that sets the value of the cell. I still want the functionality of the EditOnKeystrokeOrF2 of reverting to the original value when the Esc key is pressed. Unfortunately, at the CellEndEdit eventhandler, I don't see a way to tell what caused the CellEndEdit event to be fired. I only want to change the value of the cell if the Esc key is not pressed. How can I tell if it was or not? Edit: It is worth noting that the KeyDown event does not get fired when the cell is being edited, nor for the final ending keystroke. Edit2: I have tried the KeyPreview suggestion, but the form still does not capture the Escape key being pressed. Edit3: I've been experimenting with trying to get this working. I originally posted some of the following as a separate post, but feel it might be more relevant to include it here. I have a cell in a DataGridView that is now set to EditProgrammatically. To capture the keystroke that starts an edit, I am setting the cell.Value equal to the keystroke. However, this ruins the "Escape" functionality of the cell - when you press escape, instead of reverting to the original value, it reverts to the keystroke that I programmatically inserted into the cell. I believe that if I could set the "EditedFormattedValue" on a cell, this would be where I want to put my keystroke value, however this appears to be read only. How can I accomplish what I am attempting? An example to clarify: If the cell has a value of "54.3" in it, and I press the "9" key, it begins editing the cell and places a "9" there. If I hit Escape, instead of reverting to "54.3" it reverts to "9". What I want is for it to return to its original value of "54.3". So, I am trying to tackle this issue from both the beginning and the end. I think the real problem is that I am overwriting the original value and have no way to determine if I should revert it or not. Edit4: It looks like CellValidating might be worth using, but I am seeing strange behavior when I experiment with it. In a new project, I create the DataGridView and register for the various events and see that CellValidating is fired before the CellEndEdit. However, in my project where I am trying to get this to work, CellEndEdit is firing BEFORE CellValidating. Any ideas on what the difference might be?

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  • MVC Rendered Partial, how to get partial/view model in main model post to controller

    - by user1475788
    I have a text file and when users upload the file, the controller action method parses that file using state machine and uses a generic list to store some values. I pass this back to the view in the form of an IEnumerable. Within my main view, based on this ienumerable list I render a partail view to iterate items and display labels and a textarea. Users could add their input in the text area. When the users hit the save button this ienumrable list from the partial view rendered is null. so please advice any solutions. here is my main view @model RunLog.Domain.Entities.RunLogEntry @{ ViewBag.Title = "Create"; Layout = "~/Views/Shared/_Layout.cshtml"; } @using (Html.BeginForm("Create", "RunLogEntry", FormMethod.Post, new { enctype = "multipart/form-data" })) { <div id="inputTestExceptions" style="display: none;"> <table class="grid" style="width: 450px; margin: 3px 3px 3px 3px;"> <thead> <tr> <th> Exception String </th> <th> Comment </th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> @if (Model.TestExceptions != null) { foreach (var p in Model.TestExceptions) { Html.RenderPartial("RunLogTestExceptionSummary", p); } } </tbody> </table> </div> } partial view as follows: @model RunLog.Domain.Entities.RunLogEntryTestExceptionDisplay <tr> <td> @Model.TestException@ </td> <td>@Html.TextAreaFor(Model.Comment, new { style = "width: 200px; height: 80px;" }) </td> </tr> Controller action [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(RunLogEntry runLogEntry, String ServiceRequest, string Hour, string Minute, string AMPM, string submit, IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> file, String AssayPerformanceIssues1, IEnumerable<RunLogEntryTestExceptionDisplay> models) { } The problem is test exceptions which contains exception string and comment is comming back null.

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  • Send/cache multidimensional array to php with jQuery

    - by robertdd
    hy, i have a little, big problem here :) after i upload some images i get a list with all the images. I have some jQuery function for rotate, duplicate, delete, shuffle images! when i select a image and hit delete i send a post to php with the alt="" value of the image,i identify the picture and edit. I want to make a save button, Instead of sending a post every time i rotate a image, better send a post after editing the list of images with an array that contains all data? my php array after upload looks like this: [files] => Array ( [lcxkijgr] => lcxkijgr.jpg [xcewxpfv] => xcewxpfv.jpg [rtiurwxf] => rtiurwxf.jpg [gsbxdsdc] => gsbxdsdc.jpg ) say that I uploaded 4 pictures, firs picture i rotate 90 degrees second i want to duplicate third i rotate 270 degrees and the fourth image i delete i can do all this only with jQuery, but on the server the images are the same, after a refresh the images are the same this is the list with the images: <div class="upimage"> <ul id="upimagesQueue"> <li id="upimagesHPVEJM"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesHPVEJM').showlargeimage('HPVEJM')"> <img alt="lcxkijgr" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/lcxkijgr.jpg?1272087830477" id="HPVEJM" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesSTCSAV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesSTCSAV').showlargeimage('STCSAV')"> <img alt="xcewxpfv" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/xcewxpfv.jpg?1272087831360" id="STCSAV" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesBFPUEQ"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesBFPUEQ').showlargeimage('BFPUEQ')"> <img alt="rtiurwxf" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/rtiurwxf.jpg?1272087832162" id="BFPUEQ" style="display: block;" > </a> </li> <li id="upimagesRKXNSV"> <a href="javascript:jQuery('#upimagesRKXNSV').showlargeimage('RKXNSV')"> <img alt="gsbxdsdc" src="uploads/s6id9r9icnp8q9102h8md9kfd7/gsbxdsdc.jpg?1272087832957" id="RKXNSV" style="display: block;"> </a> </li> <ul> </div> is ok if i make one array like this: array{ imgFromLi = array(img1,img2,img3,img4,img5,img6) rotate = array{img1=90, img2=270, img3=90} delete = array{img4,img5,img6} duplicate = array{img2, img3} } how i can send/cache this array?? sorry for my very bad english

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  • how to implement a "soft barrier" in multithreaded c++

    - by Jason
    I have some multithreaded c++ code with the following structure: do_thread_specific_work(); update_shared_variables(); //checkpoint A do_thread_specific_work_not_modifying_shared_variables(); //checkpoint B do_thread_specific_work_requiring_all_threads_have_updated_shared_variables(); What follows checkpoint B is work that could have started if all threads have reached only checkpoint A, hence my notion of a "soft barrier". Typically multithreading libraries only provide "hard barriers" in which all threads must reach some point before any can continue. Obviously a hard barrier could be used at checkpoint B. Using a soft barrier can lead to better execution time, especially since the work between checkpoints A and B may not be load-balanced between the threads (i.e. 1 slow thread who has reached checkpoint A but not B could be causing all the others to wait at the barrier just before checkpoint B). I've tried using atomics to synchronize things and I know with 100% certainty that is it NOT guaranteed to work. For example using openmp syntax, before the parallel section start with: shared_thread_counter = num_threads; //known at compile time #pragma omp flush Then at checkpoint A: #pragma omp atomic shared_thread_counter--; Then at checkpoint B (using polling): #pragma omp flush while (shared_thread_counter > 0) { usleep(1); //can be removed, but better to limit memory bandwidth #pragma omp flush } I've designed some experiments in which I use an atomic to indicate that some operation before it is finished. The experiment would work with 2 threads most of the time but consistently fail when I have lots of threads (like 20 or 30). I suspect this is because of the caching structure of modern CPUs. Even if one thread updates some other value before doing the atomic decrement, it is not guaranteed to be read by another thread in that order. Consider the case when the other value is a cache miss and the atomic decrement is a cache hit. So back to my question, how to CORRECTLY implement this "soft barrier"? Is there any built-in feature that guarantees such functionality? I'd prefer openmp but I'm familiar with most of the other common multithreading libraries. As a workaround right now, I'm using a hard barrier at checkpoint B and I've restructured my code to make the work between checkpoint A and B automatically load-balancing between the threads (which has been rather difficult at times). Thanks for any advice/insight :)

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  • Why Won't My ASP.NET Hyperlink Work in IE?

    - by Giffyguy
    I'm making a very simple ad button system using ASP.NET 2.0 The advertisment is a 150x150px square that is displayed on "the r house." (Scroll down a little and you'll see the bright green "Angry Octopus" on the right side of the screen.) Now, I am not the administrator of "the r house." Instead, I am the administrator of angryoctopus.net Therefore, I don't have the ability to change the ad display code on a whim. So I gave "the r house" this snippet of code to display our ad nicely, while still allowing me to customize the back-end code on my end: <iframe src="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.aspx" frameborder="0" width="150" height="150" scrolling="no" style="padding: 0; margin: 0;"></iframe> You'll find this snippet in the page source to "the r house." On my side, the code looks like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/" Target="_top"> <asp:Panel ID="pnlMain" runat="server" BackColor="#D1E231" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" Width="150" Height="150"> <asp:Image runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.png" BorderStyle="None" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:HyperLink> ... and there's some insignificant back-end C# code for hit-counting. This looks all well and good from the code standpoint, as far as I can tell. Everything works in Firefox and Chrome. Also, everything appears to work in IE8 in all of my tests. I haven't tested IE7. But when you view "the r house" in IE(8) the hyperlink doesn't do anything, and the cursor doesn't indicate that the hyperlink is even there. Although you can see the target URL in the status bar. I've considered the fact that "the r house" uses XHTML 1.0 Strict could be causing problems, but that would probably effect Firefox and Chrome right? (My aspx pages use XHTML 1.0 Transitional) My only other theory is that some random CSS class could be applying a weird attribute to my iframe, but again I would expect that would effect Firefox and Chrome. Is this a security issue with IE? Does anyone know what part of the r house's website could be blocking the hyperlink in IE? And how can I get around this without having to hard code anything on the r house's website? Is there an alternative to iframe that would do the same job without requiring complicated scripting?

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  • Data Access Layer - static list objects and caching

    - by Truegilly
    Hello, i am devloping a site using .net MVC i have a data access layer which basically consists of static list objects that are created from data within my database. The method that rebuilds this data first clears all the list objects. Once they are empty it then add the data. Here is an example of one of the lists im using. its a method which generates all the UK postcodes. there are about 50 methods similar to this in my application that return all sorts of information, such as towns, regions, members, emails etc. public static List<PostCode> AllPostCodes = new List<PostCode>(); when the rebuild method is called it first clears the list. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); next it re-bulilds the data, by calling the GetAllPostCodes() method /// <summary> /// static method that returns all the UK postcodes /// </summary> public static void GetAllPostCodes() { using (fab_dataContextDataContext db = new fab_dataContextDataContext()) { IQueryable AllPostcodeData = from data in db.PostCodeTables select data; IDbCommand cmd = db.GetCommand(AllPostcodeData); SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); adapter.SelectCommand = (SqlCommand)cmd; DataSet dataSet = new DataSet(); cmd.Connection.Open(); adapter.FillSchema(dataSet, SchemaType.Source); adapter.Fill(dataSet); cmd.Connection.Close(); // crete the objects foreach (DataRow row in dataSet.Tables[0].Rows) { PostCode postcode = new PostCode(); postcode.ID = Convert.ToInt32(row["PostcodeID"]); postcode.Outcode = row["OutCode"].ToString(); postcode.Latitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Latitude"]); postcode.Longitude = Convert.ToDouble(row["Longitude"]); postcode.TownID = Convert.ToInt32(row["TownID"]); AllPostCodes.Add(postcode); postcode = null; } } } The rebuild occurs every 1 hour. this ensures that every 1 hour the site will have fresh set of cached data. the issue ive got is that occasionally if during a rebuild, the server will be hit by a request and an exception is thrown. The exception is "Index was outside the bounds of the array." it is due to when a list is being cleared. ListPostCodes.AllPostCodes.Clear(); - // throws exception - although its not always in regard to this list. Once this exception is thrown application dies, All users are affected. I have to restart the server to fix it. i have 2 questions... If i utilise caching instead of static objects would this help ? Is there any way i can say "while the rebuild is taking place, wait for it to complete until accepting requests" any help is most appricaiated ;) truegilly

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  • Special scheduling Algorithm (pattern expansion)

    - by tovare
    Question Do you think genetic algorithms worth trying out for the problem below, or will I hit local-minima issues? I think maybe aspects of the problem is great for a generator / fitness-function style setup. (If you've botched a similar project I would love hear from you, and not do something similar) Thank you for any tips on how to structure things and nail this right. The problem I'm searching a good scheduling algorithm to use for the following real-world problem. I have a sequence with 15 slots like this (The digits may vary from 0 to 20) : 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 (And there are in total 10 different sequences of this type) Each sequence needs to expand into an array, where each slot can take 1 position. 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 1 1 The constraints on the matrix is that: [row-wise, i.e. horizontally] The number of ones placed, must either be 11 or 111 [row-wise] The distance between two sequences of 1 needs to be a minimum of 00 The sum of each column should match the original array. The number of rows in the matrix should be optimized. The array then needs to allocate one of 4 different matrixes, which may have different number of rows: A, B, C, D A, B, C and D are real-world departments. The load needs to be placed reasonably fair during the course of a 10-day period, not to interfere with other department goals. Each of the matrix is compared with expansion of 10 different original sequences so you have: A1, A2, A3, A4, A5, A6, A7, A8, A9, A10 B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, B7, B8, B9, B10 C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, C6, C7, C8, C9, C10 D1, D2, D3, D4, D5, D6, D7, D8, D9, D10 Certain spots on these may be reserved (Not sure if I should make it just reserved/not reserved or function-based). The reserved spots might be meetings and other events The sum of each row (for instance all the A's) should be approximately the same within 2%. i.e. sum(A1 through A10) should be approximately the same as (B1 through B10) etc. The number of rows can vary, so you have for instance: A1: 5 rows A2: 5 rows A3: 1 row, where that single row could for instance be: 0 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 etc.. Sub problem* I'de be very happy to solve only part of the problem. For instance being able to input: 1 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 4 2 2 3 3 2 3 And get an appropriate array of sequences with 1's and 0's minimized on the number of rows following th constraints above.

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 files work in one folder, but NOT in another

    - by Steve
    I am about to leap of a building. I have created an app for a client and all the files are in a folder on their D drive. Now it is time to go production, so I copied all my files and folders to their excisting classic asp folder on the same drive. BUT NOTHING WORKS. The only difference I can see is that DEV does not require HTTPS like the production site. I also made sure all the permissions are the same on both folder. I made sure that the GAC has read rights using the aspnet_regiis tool. I am at the end of my debug knowlegde, could someone please help me out. Here are the error messages I get from the application event log. Failed to initialize the AppDomain:/LM/W3SVC/3/Root Exception: System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException Message: Exception of type 'System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException' was thrown. StackTrace: at System.Web.Configuration.ErrorRuntimeConfig.ErrorConfigRecord.System.Configuration.Internal.IInternalConfigRecord.GetLkgSection(String configKey) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfigLKG.GetSectionObject(String sectionName) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfig.GetSection(String sectionName, Type type, ResultsIndex index) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfig.get_HostingEnvironment() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.StartMonitoringForIdleTimeout() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.ApplicationManager.CreateAppDomainWithHostingEnvironment(String appId, IApplicationHost appHost, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.ApplicationManager.CreateAppDomainWithHostingEnvironmentAndReportErrors(String appId, IApplicationHost appHost, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. ------------------------ Failed to execute the request because the ASP.NET process identity does not have read permissions to the global assembly cache. Error: 0x80131902 For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. ------------------------- aspnet_wp.exe (PID: 4568) stopped unexpectedly. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. Here is the web error message: Server Application Unavailable The web application you are attempting to access on this web server is currently unavailable. Please hit the "Refresh" button in your web browser to retry your request. Administrator Note: An error message detailing the cause of this specific request failure can be found in the application event log of the web server. Please review this log entry to discover what caused this error to occur. Thank you for your help, Steve

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  • How to know when a user has really released a key in Java?

    - by Luis Soeiro
    (Edited for clarity) I want to detect when a user presses and releases a key in Java Swing, ignoring the keyboard auto repeat feature. I also would like a pure Java approach the works on Linux, Mac OS and Windows. Requirements: When the user presses some key I want to know what key is that; When the user releases some key, I want to know what key is that; I want to ignore the system auto repeat options: I want to receive just one keypress event for each key press and just one key release event for each key release; If possible, I would use items 1 to 3 to know if the user is holding more than one key at a time (i.e, she hits 'a' and without releasing it, she hits "Enter"). The problem I'm facing in Java is that under Linux, when the user holds some key, there are many keyPress and keyRelease events being fired (because of the keyboard repeat feature). I've tried some approaches with no success: Get the last time a key event occurred - in Linux, they seem to be zero for key repeat, however, in Mac OS they are not; Consider an event only if the current keyCode is different from the last one - this way the user can't hit twice the same key in a row; Here is the basic (non working) part of code: import java.awt.event.KeyListener; public class Example implements KeyListener { public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) { } public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyPressed: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyReleased: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } } When a user holds a key (i.e, 'p') the system shows: KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271673 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637272023 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637272023 ... At least under Linux, the JVM keeps resending all the key events when a key is being hold. To make things more difficult, on my system (Kubuntu 9.04 Core 2 Duo) the timestamps keep changing. The JVM sends a key new release and new key press with the same timestamp. This makes it hard to know when a key is really released. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • should I ever put a major version number into a C#/Java namespace?

    - by Andrew Patterson
    I am designing a set of 'service' layer objects (data objects and interface definitions) for a WCF web service (that will be consumed by third party clients i.e. not in-house, so outside my direct control). I know that I am not going to get the interface definition exactly right - and am wanting to prepare for the time when I know that I will have to introduce a breaking set of new data objects. However, the reality of the world I am in is that I will also need to run my first version simultaneously for quite a while. The first version of my service will have URL of http://host/app/v1service.svc and when the times comes by new version will live at http://host/app/v2service.svc However, when it comes to the data objects and interfaces, I am toying with putting the 'major' version of the interface number into the actual namespace of the classes. namespace Company.Product.V1 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v1")] public class Widget { [DataMember] string widgetName; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } When the time comes for a fundamental change to the service, I will introduce some classes like namespace Company.Product.V2 { [DataContract(Namespace = "company-product-v2")] public class Widget { [DataMember] int widgetCode; [DataMember] int widgetExpiry; } public interface IFunction { Widget GetWidgetData(int code); } } The advantages as I see it are that I will be able to have a single set of code serving both interface versions, sharing functionality where possible. This is because I will be able to reference both interface versions as a distinct set of C# objects. Similarly, clients may use both interface versions simultaneously, perhaps using V1.Widget in some legacy code whilst new bits move on to V2.Widget. Can anyone tell why this is a stupid idea? I have a nagging feeling that this is a bit smelly.. notes: I am obviously not proposing every single new version of the service would be in a new namespace. Presumably I will do as many non-breaking interface changes as possible, but I know that I will hit a point where all the data modelling will probably need a significant rewrite. I understand assembly versioning etc but I think this question is tangential to that type of versioning. But I could be wrong.

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  • Delphi getting property value of a member from ClassType

    - by Kayode Yusuf
    I am implementing a Boilerplate feature - allow users to Change descriptions of some components - like Tlabels - at run time. e.g. TFooClass = Class ( TBaseClass) Label : Tlabel; ... End; Var FooClass : TFooClass; ... At Design time, the value Label's caption property is say - 'First Name', when the application is run, there is a feature that allows the user to change the caption value to say 'Other Name'. Once this is changed, the caption for the label for the class instance of FooClass is updated immediately. The problem now is if the user for whatever reason wants to revert back to the design time value of say 'First Name' , it seems impossible. I can use the RTTIContext methods and all that but I at the end of the day, it seems to require the instance of the class for me to change the value and since this has already being changed - I seem to to have hit a brick wall getting around it. My question is this - is there a way using the old RTTI methods or the new RTTIContext stuff to the property of a class' member without instantiating the class - i.e. getting the property from the ClassType definition. This is code snippet of my attempt at doing that : c : TRttiContext; z : TRttiInstanceType; w : TRttiProperty; Aform : Tform; .... Begin ..... Aform := Tform(FooClass); for vCount := 0 to AForm.ComponentCount-1 do begin vDummyComponent := AForm.Components[vCount]; if IsPublishedProp(vDummyComponent,'Caption') then begin c := TRttiContext.Create; try z := (c.GetType(vDummyComponent.ClassInfo) as TRttiInstanceType); w := z.GetProperty('Caption'); if w <> nil then Values[vOffset, 1] := w.GetValue(vDummyComponent.ClassType).AsString ..... ..... .... .... I am getting all sorts of errors and any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to customize android analog clock widget through configuration screen

    - by michJ
    I'm trying to develop my own analog clock widget on the home screen. It's based on the stock ICS analog clock widget, but when added to the homescreen, my widget opens a configuration screen first. On this screen you can choose the color you want the clock to be (through a colorpicker dialog). You also see a preview of the clock in the chosen color on this screen. (See picture). My problem is changing the color of the widget on the home screen to the chosen color (when you hit the apply button). I have three .png files that I use for the dial, hour hand and minute hand. I color them using this code in my widgetconfig class: Drawable dial = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.clockbackground); dial.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //hour Drawable hour = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.hourhand); hour.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); //minute Drawable min = getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.minutehand); min.setColorFilter(color, PorterDuff.Mode.MULTIPLY); // clock AnalogClock clockpreview = (AnalogClock) findViewById(R.id.ACconfig); clockpreview.setBackgroundDrawable(dial); This works fine because I can find the AnalogClock since it's in the layout xml file of the configuration screen, which I set in the OnCreate() through setContentView(). The problem is that for the clock widget on my screen I have to use RemoteViews. So I tried setting the new background of the clock widget through RemoteViews. But RemoteViews seems too limited to do this. I need something like setTextViewText() but then for the background of my analog clock widget, like for example: RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(context.getPackageName(), R.layout.clockwidget); views.setAnalogClockBackgroundDrawable(dial); The clock widget background seems sort of unchangeable. How can I recolor my clockwidget on homescreen in widgetconfig class? There must be a way because it seems so easy to do at first... My project consists of the widget config class and clockwidget class, widgetconfig.xml, clockwidget.xml, and widget_info.xml (for appwidgetprovider).

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  • generated service mock: everything but RhinoMocks fails?

    - by hko
    I have the "quest" to search for the next Mocking Framework for my company, and basically it's down to NSubstitute (simplest syntax, but no strict mocks), FakeItEasy(best reviews, Roy Osherove bonus, and slightly better lib support than NSubstitute), Moq (best "other libs support", biggest featureset, downside: mock.Object). We definitely want to move on from RhinoMocks, e.g. because of the unusefull interactiontest error messages (it should tell me what the parameter was instead, when a verification fails). So I was pretty surprised the other day (that was yesterday) when I found out RhinoMocks could do a thing where every other mock framework fails at: Mocking an autogenerated SomethingService (a typical VS autogenerated service with a default construtor in a partial class). Please don't argue about the design.. I intend to write lightweight integration tests (and some unit tests), and I can't mess around with the service, the product is installed on too many customers system. See this code: // here the NSubstitute and FakeItEasy equivalents throw an exception.. see below TicketStoreService fakeTicketStoreService = MockRepository.GenerateMock<TicketStoreService>(); fakeTicketStoreService.Expect(service => service.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())).Return(new Guid()); fakeTicketStoreService.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())); fakeTicketStoreService.VerifyAllExpectations(); Note that DoSomething is a non-virtual methodcall in an autogenerated class. So it shouldn't work, according to common knowledge. But it does. Problem is that it's the only (non commercial) framework that can do this: Rhino.Mocks works, and verification works too FakeItEasy says it doesn't find a default constructor (probably just wrong exception message): No default constructor was found on the type SomeNamespace.TicketStoreService Moq gives something sane and understandable: Invalid setup on a non-virtual (overridable in VB) member: service=> service.DoSomething Nsubstitute gives a message System.NotSupportedException: Cannot serialize member System.ComponentModel.Component.Site of type System.ComponentModel.ISite because it is an interface. I'm really wondering what's going on here with the frameworks, except Moq. The "fancy new" frameworks seem to have an initial perf hit too, probably preparing some Type cache and serializing stuff, whilst RhinoMocks somehow manages to create a very "slim" mock without recursion. I have to admit I didn't like RhinoMocks very well, but here it shines.. unfortunately. So, is there a way to get that to work with newer (non-commercial!) mocking frameworks, or somehow get a sane error message out of Rhino.Mocks? And why can Rhino.Mocks achieve this, when clearly every Mocking framework states it can only work with virtual methods when given a concrete class? Let's not derail the discussion by talking about alternative approaches like Extract&Override or runtime-proxy Mocking frameworks like JustMock/TypeMock/Moles or the new Fakes framework, I know these, but that would be less ideal solutions, for reasons beyond this topic. Any help appreciated..

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  • a4j:support within a rich:modalPanel

    - by Andy Deighton
    Hi all, I've hit a wall. I know the a4j and rich tags pretty well (I use Seam 2.2.0 and Richfaces 3.3.1). However, I'm trying to do something quite simple, but in a rich:modalPanel. It seems that rich:modalPanels do not allow Ajax events to be fired. Here's a simple breakdown: I have a h:selectOneMenu with some items in it and whose value is attached to a backing bean. Attached to that h:selectOneMenu is a a4j:support tag so that whenever the change event is fired, the backing bean should get updated. Truly simple stuff eh? However, when this h:selectOneMenu is in a rich:modalPanel the onchange event doesn't update the backing bean until the rich:modalPanel closes. I can confirm this because I'm running it in Eclipse debug mode and I have a breakpoint on the setter of the property that's hooked up to the h:selectOneMenu. This is driving me mad! This is vanilla stuff for Ajax, but rich:modalPanels don't seem to allow it. So, the question is: can I do Ajax stuff within a rich:modalPanel? I'm basically trying to use the rich:modalPanel as a form (I've tried a4j:form and h:form to no avail) that reacts to changes to the drop down (e.g. when the user changes the drop down, a certain part of the form should get reRendered). Am I trying to do something that's not possible? Here's a simplified version of the modalPanel: <rich:modalPanel id="quickAddPanel"> <div> <a4j:form id="quickAddPaymentForm" ajaxSubmit="true"> <s:decorate id="paymentTypeDecorator"> <a4j:region> <h:selectOneMenu id="paymentType" required="true" value="#{backingBean.paymentType}" tabindex="1"> <s:selectItems label="#{type.description}" noSelectionLabel="Please select..." value="#{incomingPaymentTypes}" var="type"/> <s:convertEnum/> <a4j:support ajaxSingle="true" event="onchange" eventsQueue="paymentQueue" immediate="true" limitToList="true" reRender="paymentTypeDecorator, paymentDetailsOutputPanel, quickAddPaymentForm"/> </h:selectOneMenu> </a4j:region> </s:decorate> </fieldset> <fieldset class="standard-form"> <div class="form-title">Payment details</div> <a4j:outputPanel id="paymentDetailsOutputPanel"> <h:outputText value="This should change whenever dropdown changes: #{backingBean.paymentType}"/> </a4j:outputPanel> </fieldset> </a4j:form> </div> </rich:modalPanel> Regards, Andy

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  • usercontrol hosted in IE renders as a textbox

    - by coxymla
    On my ongoing saga to mirror the hosting of a legacy app on a clean box, I've hit my next snag. One page relies on a big .NET UserControl that on the new machine renders only as a big, greyed out textarea (greyed out vertical scrollbar on the right hand edge. Inspecting the source shows the expected object tag.) This is particularly tricky because nobody seems to know much about hosted UserControls and all the discussions data back to 2002-2004. The page is quite simple: <%@ Page language="c#" Codebehind="DataExport.aspx.cs" AutoEventWireup="false" Inherits="yyyyy.Web.DataExport" %> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN" > <html> <head> <title>DataExport</title> <link rel="Configuration" href="/xxxxx/yyyyy/DataExport.config"> </head> <body style="margin:0px;padding:0px;overflow:hidden"> <OBJECT id="DataExport" style="WIDTH: 100%; HEIGHT: 100%; position:absolute; left: 0px; top:0px" classid="yyyyy.Common.dll#yyyyy.Controls.DataExport" VIEWASTEXT> </OBJECT> </body> </html> The config file referenced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <sectionGroup name="yyyyy"> <section name="dataExport" type="yyyyy.Controls.DataExportSectionHandler,yyyyy.Common" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <yyyyy> <dataExport> <layoutFile>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/layout.xml</layoutFile> <webServiceUrl>http://vm2/xxxxx/yyyyy/services/yyyyy.asmx</webServiceUrl> </dataExport> </yyyyy> </configuration> What I've checked: Security permissions should be OK, the site is trusted and adding a URL exception to grant FullTrust doesn't change anything. Config file is acessible over the web, layout.xml is accessible, ASMX shows the expected command list Machine.config grants GET permission for the usercontrol.config file. What perhaps looks fishy to me: The DataExport UserControl references Aspose.Excel to generate the spreadsheets it exports. When I navigate to the page and get a blank textbox, then run gacutil /ldl, nothing is in the local download cache. On the working machine, running the same command after viewing the page shows a laundry list of DLLs including the control DLL and the Aspose DLL.

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  • IE6 CSS tooltip not appearing

    - by Lauren
    I'm using a tooltip that works in FF, Chrome, and IE7-8, but in IE6 it doesn't appear. You can go to this page http://www.avaline.com/ Bags/ Eco-Friendly-Bags/R1500 and login with [email protected] password:test02, then hit the "add to cart" button and hover over the question marks to see (or not see) the tooltips. This is the relevant HTML and CSS: <DIV class=oewBox id=oewImpLocDiv style="BACKGROUND-IMAGE: url(/images/img/org4.gif)"> <A class=tooltip href="#"><SPAN class=""><STRONG>More than 2 imprint locations?</STRONG> Test </SPAN></A> </DIV> <style> /* Rule from element "style" attribute */ element.style { BACKGROUND-IMAGE: url(/images/img/org4.gif) } /* Rule N°8 from inline stylesheet */ .oewBox { PADDING-RIGHT: 8px; PADDING-LEFT: 40px; PADDING-BOTTOM: 16px; MARGIN: 0px 0px 6px; PADDING-TOP: 6px; BORDER-BOTTOM: #ff7c14 3px solid } /* Rule N°7 from inline stylesheet */ .oewBox { BACKGROUND-POSITION: 0px 0px; BACKGROUND-IMAGE: none; BACKGROUND-REPEAT: no-repeat } /* Rule N°11 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A:active { COLOR: #3b88c4; TEXT-DECORATION: none } /* Rule N°10 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A:hover { COLOR: #000; TEXT-DECORATION: none } /* Rule N°9 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A:visited { COLOR: #3b88c4; TEXT-DECORATION: underline } /* Rule N°8 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A:link { COLOR: #3b88c4; TEXT-DECORATION: underline } /* Rule N°7 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A { COLOR: #3b88c4; TEXT-DECORATION: underline } /* Rule N°52 from inline stylesheet */ A.tooltip { BACKGROUND: url(/images/img/question.gif) no-repeat; FLOAT: right; WIDTH: 19px; HEIGHT: 20px } /* Rule N°54 from inline stylesheet */ A.tooltip:hover SPAN { BORDER-RIGHT: #ff7c14 1px solid; BORDER-TOP: #ff7c14 1px solid; DISPLAY: inline; BACKGROUND: #ffffff; BORDER-LEFT: #ff7c14 1px solid; COLOR: #000; BORDER-BOTTOM: #ff7c14 1px solid; POSITION: absolute } /* Rule N°53 from inline stylesheet */ A.tooltip SPAN { PADDING-RIGHT: 3px; DISPLAY: none; PADDING-LEFT: 3px; FONT-WEIGHT: normal; FONT-SIZE: 11px; PADDING-BOTTOM: 2px; MARGIN-LEFT: -245px; WIDTH: 230px; PADDING-TOP: 2px } </style>

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  • UIButtons creating a native-like keyboard behavior.

    - by camilo
    Greets. A somehow detailed explanation on my problem, and what I have already done, and what I cannot do. I want to create a behavior resembling the one in the iPhone's keyboard. Basically, I want a view to appear when the user taps a button and WHILE the user taps that button. This, I accomplished. When the user lets go of the button WHILE his finger is on that button's area, I want to trigger an action "doing stuff". This, I was also able to do. Since all the buttons are near (like in the keyboard) and I don't want the user to select other button than the one he pressed, I reduced the hit area for the button using the -(BOOL)pointInside:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent )event function. When the user presses the button, not lifting its finger, and dragging outside the button area, I want another action to trigger. This is the first problem... This function only triggers when the user's finger is far from the buttons' area, and this time the pointInside function is not being my friend. How can I detect the user finger "left" the button area the moment it exits its bounds? This, in case you didn't realize... was problem 1. The second problem is related with the drag enter. Again, I need to limit the area like in the drag exit. But I suppose that when I solve one of these, the other is the same. The problem is that in order to have a behavior like in the keyboard, I may need to detect the user started the touch in another button, never lifted his finger, and changed to another button. I can detect drag enter and drag exit IN THIS ORDER while on the same button. I cannot detect drag enter when the user first touched anywhere else other than the button where I want to detect the drag enter event. Basically what I need is to detect touch on any button (and not anywhere else in the view), and while the user is changing buttons without lifting the finger, I want to detect the new button being touched. This gigantic paragraph was problem #2. Any help, as you might guess, is highly appreciated. Best Regards. Thanks a lot!

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  • Coolstack MySQL Crash Unable to Restart

    - by rayblasdel
    Environment: Solaris 10 This mysql server has been up and running for 6 months now. Today all of a sudden it crashed. When typing 'mysql' as user it gives the error MYSQL" Error 2002 (HY000): Can't Connect to Local MySQL server though socket '/tmp/mysql.sock' The server try to open mysql, it stays open for 9-10 seconds and restarts the process. Below are the application logs. Application-database-mysql_mysql-csk.log [ May 30 22:37:52 Enabled. ] [ May 30 22:37:58 Rereading configuration. ] [ May 30 22:37:59 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:37:59 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] I am hoping someone might have run into this before and might know how to fix it. The following is an excerpt from the MySQL Error log 100530 22:44:03 mysqld_safe mysqld from pid file /dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid ended 100530 22:44:04 mysqld_safe Starting mysqld daemon with databases from /dbpool1/data InnoDB: Log scan progressed past the checkpoint lsn 32 727170612 100530 22:44:13 InnoDB: Database was not shut down normally! InnoDB: Starting crash recovery. InnoDB: Reading tablespace information from the .ibd files... InnoDB: Restoring possible half-written data pages from the doublewrite InnoDB: buffer... InnoDB: Doing recovery: scanned up to log sequence number 32 727200901 100530 22:44:14 InnoDB: Starting an apply batch of log records to the database... InnoDB: Progress in percents: 100530 22:44:14 - mysqld got signal 11 ; This could be because you hit a bug. It is also possible that this binary or one of the libraries it was linked against is corrupt, improperly built, or misconfigured. This error can also be caused by malfunctioning hardware. We will try our best to scrape up some info that will hopefully help diagnose the problem, but since we have already crashed, something is definitely wrong and this may fail. key_buffer_size=209715200 read_buffer_size=1048576 max_used_connections=0 max_threads=10000 threads_connected=0 It is possible that mysqld could use up to key_buffer_size + (read_buffer_size + sort_buffer_size)*max_threads = 31024253 K bytes of memory Hope that's ok; if not, decrease some variables in the equation. enter code here

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  • is there any way we can disable on mouse over event on certain columns of an data grid

    - by prince23
    hi, here wat i am trying to do is that on mouse over of first column i need to hit mouse MouseEnter event and show the pop up which i have kept there rest all other column i dnt need to to show the pop up so i am having this fuction there MouseLeave="Row_MouseLeave" <sdk:DataGrid MinHeight="100" x:Name="dgCounty" AutoGenerateColumns="False" VerticalAlignment="Top" Grid.Row="1" IsReadOnly="True" Margin="5,5,5,0" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgCounty_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" SelectionMode="Extended" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected" MouseEnter="dgCounty_MouseEnter" MouseLeave="dgCounty_MouseLeave" SelectionChanged="dgCounty_SelectionChanged" LoadingRow="dgCounty_LoadingRow1" UnloadingRow="dgCounty_UnloadingRow"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="myButton" Width="24" Height="24" Click="Details_Click"> <Image x:Name="img" Source="Images/detail.JPG" Stretch="None"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="ID"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeID}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Name"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeFName}" MouseLeave="Row_MouseLeave" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="MailID"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeMailID}" MouseLeave="Row_MouseLeave" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> in code behind void Row_MouseLeave(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { Show.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; PoPGrid.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; } void Row_MouseEnter(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { } the pop up her is like the ajax modal pop up wat we do in asp.net i am able to show data in pop up now the main issue is i need to show pop up only on the 2 column. rest all other column i need to hide the pop up when i move mouse over on that column. i am trying this concept it is not working is there any way i can achive it as i said only need to show pop up on mouse over of the 2 column thanks in advance prince

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  • Create Menu with css and li elements compatible for all browsers.

    - by Cesar Lopez
    Hi all, I am trying to create a simple menu using li elements, but it only works on IE7, in FF and Chrome, the alignment get weird. Also the :hover and :Active only works on IE7. Could anybody give me a hit on this? I would really appreciate it. CSS: #heading{ width: 700px; height:auto; margin: 0 auto; background-color:#FFFFFF; margin-top:5px; margin-bottom:5px; display:block; } #imglogo{ float:left; } #barDescription{ float:right; } #navigation{ text-align: right; margin-top: 70px; } #navigation li{ float: right; display: block; text-align: center; list-style-type: none; } #navigation li a{ color:#A08019; background-image: url('Images/Menu1.png'); background-repeat:repeat-x; background-position: center center; text-decoration:none; font-weight:bold; display: block; height:25px; vertical-align:middle; padding-right:10px; padding-left:10px; } HTML: <div id="heading" > <div id="imglogo"> <img id="logo" src="Images/logo.png" alt="logo" /> </div> <div id="barDescription"> <h4>Especialidad en tapas,vinos y menus</h4> <h5>Restaurante de cocina creativa tradicional. Vinos y tapas</h5> </div> <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="#">Contacto</a></li> <li><a href="#">Ubicacion</a></li> <li><a href="#">Reservas</a></li> <li><a href="#">Menus</a></li> <li><a href="#">Local</a></li> </ul> </div>

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  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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  • drupal jQuery 1.4 on specific pages

    - by Mark
    I'm looking for a way to force drupal to use 1.4 on specific pages. This is the same as this old question:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2842792/drupal-jquery-1-4-on-specific-pages It look me a while to try the answer which I marked correct. But because I'm new to module dev overall I couldn't figure it out based on the answer. The code from that answer looked like this: /** * Implementation of hook_theme_registry_alter(). * Based on the jquery_update module. * * Make this page preprocess function runs *last*, * so that a theme can't call drupal_get_js(). */ function MYMODULE_theme_registry_alter(&$theme_registry) { if (isset($theme_registry['page'])) { // See if our preprocess function is loaded, if so remove it. if ($key = array_search('MYMODULE_preprocess_page', $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'])) { unset($theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][$key]); } // Now add it on at the end of the array so that it runs last. $theme_registry['page']['preprocess functions'][] = 'MYMODULE_preprocess_page'; } } /** * Implementation of moduleName_preprocess_hook(). * Based on the jquery_update module functions. * * Strips out JS and CSS for a path. */ function MYMODULE_preprocess_page(&$variables, $arg = 'my_page', $delta=0) { // I needed a one hit wonder. Can be altered to use function arguments // to increase it's flexibility. if(arg($delta) == $arg) { $scripts = drupal_add_js(); $css = drupal_add_css(); // Only do this for pages that have JavaScript on them. if (!empty($variables['scripts'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($scripts['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.js']); $variables['scripts'] = drupal_get_js('header', $scripts); } // Similar process for CSS but there are 2 Css realted variables. // $variables['css'] and $variables['styles'] are both used. if (!empty($variables['css'])) { $path = drupal_get_path('module', 'admin_menu'); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.css']); unset($css['all']['module'][$path . '/admin_menu.color.css']); $variables['styles'] = drupal_get_css($css); } } } I need the jquery_update 1.3.2 to be unset on the node-types of 'blog' and 'video'. Can someone help me out? Thank you.

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  • Can i store a Queue in viewstate? only will store the first item i add to queue

    - by Mausimo
    Hey, as the question states i am trying to store a Queue in a viewstate (to track postbacks and refreshes to stop a form from resubmitting). Here is just the viewstate code: private Queue<string> p_tempQue { set { ViewState["sTemp"] = value; } get { return (Queue<string>)ViewState["sTemp"]; } } //BasePage constructor public BasePage() { //create a Queue of string //sTemp = new Queue(); this.Load += new EventHandler(this.Page_Load); this.Init += new EventHandler(this.Page_Init); } //In the 'page_Init' event we have created a simple hidden field by name 'hdnGuid' which is attached to the page on the first hit itself. protected void Page_Init(object sender, EventArgs e) { //initializing the hidden field //create a hidden field with a ID HiddenField hdnGuid = new HiddenField(); hdnGuid.ID = "hdnGuid"; //if it is the first time the page is loaded, create a new guid and assign it as the hidden field value if (!Page.IsPostBack) hdnGuid.Value = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); //add the hidden field to the page Page.Form.Controls.Add(hdnGuid); } //In the 'page_Load' event we check if the hidden field value is same as the old value. In case the value is not same that means it's a 'postback' //and if the value is same then its 'refresh'. As per situation we set the 'httpContent.Items["Refresh"]' value. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(p_tempQue != null) sTemp = p_tempQue; else sTemp = new Queue<string>(); //The hdnGuid will be set the first time page is loaded, else the hdnGuid //will be set after each time the form is submitted using javascript. //assign the hidden field currently on the page for manipulation HiddenField h1 = (HiddenField)(Page.Form.FindControl("hdnGuid")); //create an instance of the GuidClass GuidClass currentGuid = new GuidClass(); //set the GuidClass Guid property to the value of the hidden field currentGuid.Guid = h1.Value; //check to see if the Queue of strings contains the string which is the current Guid property of the GuidClass //if the are equal, then the page was refreshed if (sTemp.Contains<string>(currentGuid.Guid)) { //adds item as key/value pair to share data between an System.Web.IHttpModule interface and an System.Web.IHttpHandler interface during an HTTP request. System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Items.Add("IsRefresh", true); } //if they are not requal, the page is not refreshed else { //if the current Guid property in the GuidClass is not null or not an empty string //add the new Guid to the Queue if (!(currentGuid.Guid.Equals(null) || currentGuid.Guid.Equals(""))) sTemp.Enqueue(currentGuid.Guid); System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Items.Add("IsRefresh", false); } p_tempQue = sTemp; }

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  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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