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  • Output error in comparing characters from two strings

    - by Andrew Martin
    I'm stuck with my a piece of code I'm creating. My IDE is Eclipse and when I use its debugging feature, to trace what's happening on each line, it outputs perfectly. However, when I click the "run" project, it just outputs a blank screen: public static void compareInterests(Client[] clientDetails) { int interests = 0; for (int p = 0; p < numberOfClients; p++) { for (int q = 0; q < numberOfClients; q++) { String a = clientDetails[p].getClientInterests(); String b = clientDetails[q].getClientInterests(); int count = 0; while (count < a.length()) { if (a.charAt(count) == b.charAt(count)) interests++; count++; } if ((interests >= 3) && (clientDetails[p].getClientName() != clientDetails[q].getClientName())) System.out.print (clientDetails[p].getClientName() + " is compatible with " + clientDetails[q].getClientName()); interests = 0; } } } The code is designed to import an object array which contains information on a client's name and a client's interests. The client's interests are stored in the format "01010", where each 1 means they are interested in that activity, each 0 means they are not. My code compares each character of every client's string with every other client's string and outputs the results for all client's that don't have the same name and have three or more interests in common. When I run this code through Java's debugger, it outputs fine - but when I click run project or compile, I just get a blank screen. Any ideas?

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  • How to pass a parameter in a Javascript confirm function?

    - by Miles M.
    I have something like that in my code: <?php foreach($clients as $client): ?> <tr class="tableContent"> <td onclick="location.href='<?php echo site_url('clients/edit/'.$client->id ) ?>'"><?php echo $client->id ?></td> <td><a class='Right btn btn-danger' onClick="ConfirmMessage('client', <?php $client->id ?>,'clients')"> <i class="icon-remove-sign icon-white"></i> </a></td> </tr> <?php endforeach ?> that's actually the view. So when the user click on the delete button (thr one with the btn-danger class) I'd like him to confirm his choice with a javascript confirmation box message. You can find that script in the header <script> function ConfirmMessage(type, id, types) { if (confirm("Are you sure you want to delete this ",type," ?")) { // Clic sur OK document.location.href='<?php echo site_url(); ?>',types,'/delete/',id; } } </script> So here is my question: I would like the $type to be replaced by a paramenter (like client, article, post .. ) that I'll pass to the function. And i would like to get the $client-id parameter as well. I'm bad in javascript and as you already have guess, It is obviously not working at all.

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  • Recursion: using values passed in parameters

    - by Tom Lilletveit
    I got this line of code that pops a int of the array saves it to int element then removes it from array. then in the return statement return CountCriticalVotes(rest, blockIndex + element); it ads it to the blockIndex variable and if it reaches 10 before the array is empty it returns 1. But my problem is this, I do not want it to add up all the values in the array in the parameter, but only add one then revert the parameter value back to it´s original state, then add a new, revert etc... How would i do this? int NumCriticalVotes :: CountCriticalVotes(Vector<int> & blocks, int blockIndex) { if (blockIndex >= 10) { return 1; } if (blocks.isEmpty()) { return 0; } else { int element = blocks.get(0); Vector<int> rest = blocks; rest.remove(0); return CountCriticalVotes(rest, blockIndex + element);

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  • AngularJS on top of ASP.NET: Moving the MVC framework out to the browser

    - by Varun Chatterji
    Heavily drawing inspiration from Ruby on Rails, MVC4’s convention over configuration model of development soon became the Holy Grail of .NET web development. The MVC model brought with it the goodness of proper separation of concerns between business logic, data, and the presentation logic. However, the MVC paradigm, was still one in which server side .NET code could be mixed with presentation code. The Razor templating engine, though cleaner than its predecessors, still encouraged and allowed you to mix .NET server side code with presentation logic. Thus, for example, if the developer required a certain <div> tag to be shown if a particular variable ShowDiv was true in the View’s model, the code could look like the following: Fig 1: To show a div or not. Server side .NET code is used in the View Mixing .NET code with HTML in views can soon get very messy. Wouldn’t it be nice if the presentation layer (HTML) could be pure HTML? Also, in the ASP.NET MVC model, some of the business logic invariably resides in the controller. It is tempting to use an anti­pattern like the one shown above to control whether a div should be shown or not. However, best practice would indicate that the Controller should not be aware of the div. The ShowDiv variable in the model should not exist. A controller should ideally, only be used to do the plumbing of getting the data populated in the model and nothing else. The view (ideally pure HTML) should render the presentation layer based on the model. In this article we will see how Angular JS, a new JavaScript framework by Google can be used effectively to build web applications where: 1. Views are pure HTML 2. Controllers (in the server sense) are pure REST based API calls 3. The presentation layer is loaded as needed from partial HTML only files. What is MVVM? MVVM short for Model View View Model is a new paradigm in web development. In this paradigm, the Model and View stuff exists on the client side through javascript instead of being processed on the server through postbacks. These frameworks are JavaScript frameworks that facilitate the clear separation of the “frontend” or the data rendering logic from the “backend” which is typically just a REST based API that loads and processes data through a resource model. The frameworks are called MVVM as a change to the Model (through javascript) gets reflected in the view immediately i.e. Model > View. Also, a change on the view (through manual input) gets reflected in the model immediately i.e. View > Model. The following figure shows this conceptually (comments are shown in red): Fig 2: Demonstration of MVVM in action In Fig 2, two text boxes are bound to the same variable model.myInt. Thus, changing the view manually (changing one text box through keyboard input) also changes the other textbox in real time demonstrating V > M property of a MVVM framework. Furthermore, clicking the button adds 1 to the value of model.myInt thus changing the model through JavaScript. This immediately updates the view (the value in the two textboxes) thus demonstrating the M > V property of a MVVM framework. Thus we see that the model in a MVVM JavaScript framework can be regarded as “the single source of truth“. This is an important concept. Angular is one such MVVM framework. We shall use it to build a simple app that sends SMS messages to a particular number. Application, Routes, Views, Controllers, Scope and Models Angular can be used in many ways to construct web applications. For this article, we shall only focus on building Single Page Applications (SPAs). Many of the approaches we will follow in this article have alternatives. It is beyond the scope of this article to explain every nuance in detail but we shall try to touch upon the basic concepts and end up with a working application that can be used to send SMS messages using Sent.ly Plus (a service that is itself built using Angular). Before you read on, we would like to urge you to forget what you know about Models, Views, Controllers and Routes in the ASP.NET MVC4 framework. All these words have different meanings in the Angular world. Whenever these words are used in this article, they will refer to Angular concepts and not ASP.NET MVC4 concepts. The following figure shows the skeleton of the root page of an SPA: Fig 3: The skeleton of a SPA The skeleton of the application is based on the Bootstrap starter template which can be found at: http://getbootstrap.com/examples/starter­template/ Apart from loading the Angular, jQuery and Bootstrap JavaScript libraries, it also loads our custom scripts /app/js/controllers.js /app/js/app.js These scripts define the routes, views and controllers which we shall come to in a moment. Application Notice that the body tag (Fig. 3) has an extra attribute: ng­app=”smsApp” Providing this tag “bootstraps” our single page application. It tells Angular to load a “module” called smsApp. This “module” is defined /app/js/app.js angular.module('smsApp', ['smsApp.controllers', function () {}]) Fig 4: The definition of our application module The line shows above, declares a module called smsApp. It also declares that this module “depends” on another module called “smsApp.controllers”. The smsApp.controllers module will contain all the controllers for our SPA. Routing and Views Notice that in the Navbar (in Fig 3) we have included two hyperlinks to: “#/app” “#/help” This is how Angular handles routing. Since the URLs start with “#”, they are actually just bookmarks (and not server side resources). However, our route definition (in /app/js/app.js) gives these URLs a special meaning within the Angular framework. angular.module('smsApp', ['smsApp.controllers', function () { }]) //Configure the routes .config(['$routeProvider', function ($routeProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/binding', { templateUrl: '/app/partials/bindingexample.html', controller: 'BindingController' }); }]); Fig 5: The definition of a route with an associated partial view and controller As we can see from the previous code sample, we are using the $routeProvider object in the configuration of our smsApp module. Notice how the code “asks for” the $routeProvider object by specifying it as a dependency in the [] braces and then defining a function that accepts it as a parameter. This is known as dependency injection. Please refer to the following link if you want to delve into this topic: http://docs.angularjs.org/guide/di What the above code snippet is doing is that it is telling Angular that when the URL is “#/binding”, then it should load the HTML snippet (“partial view”) found at /app/partials/bindingexample.html. Also, for this URL, Angular should load the controller called “BindingController”. We have also marked the div with the class “container” (in Fig 3) with the ng­view attribute. This attribute tells Angular that views (partial HTML pages) defined in the routes will be loaded within this div. You can see that the Angular JavaScript framework, unlike many other frameworks, works purely by extending HTML tags and attributes. It also allows you to extend HTML with your own tags and attributes (through directives) if you so desire, you can find out more about directives at the following URL: http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/607873/Extending­HTML­with­AngularJS­Directives Controllers and Models We have seen how we define what views and controllers should be loaded for a particular route. Let us now consider how controllers are defined. Our controllers are defined in the file /app/js/controllers.js. The following snippet shows the definition of the “BindingController” which is loaded when we hit the URL http://localhost:port/index.html#/binding (as we have defined in the route earlier as shown in Fig 5). Remember that we had defined that our application module “smsApp” depends on the “smsApp.controllers” module (see Fig 4). The code snippet below shows how the “BindingController” defined in the route shown in Fig 5 is defined in the module smsApp.controllers: angular.module('smsApp.controllers', [function () { }]) .controller('BindingController', ['$scope', function ($scope) { $scope.model = {}; $scope.model.myInt = 6; $scope.addOne = function () { $scope.model.myInt++; } }]); Fig 6: The definition of a controller in the “smsApp.controllers” module. The pieces are falling in place! Remember Fig.2? That was the code of a partial view that was loaded within the container div of the skeleton SPA shown in Fig 3. The route definition shown in Fig 5 also defined that the controller called “BindingController” (shown in Fig 6.) was loaded when we loaded the URL: http://localhost:22544/index.html#/binding The button in Fig 2 was marked with the attribute ng­click=”addOne()” which added 1 to the value of model.myInt. In Fig 6, we can see that this function is actually defined in the “BindingController”. Scope We can see from Fig 6, that in the definition of “BindingController”, we defined a dependency on $scope and then, as usual, defined a function which “asks for” $scope as per the dependency injection pattern. So what is $scope? Any guesses? As you might have guessed a scope is a particular “address space” where variables and functions may be defined. This has a similar meaning to scope in a programming language like C#. Model: The Scope is not the Model It is tempting to assign variables in the scope directly. For example, we could have defined myInt as $scope.myInt = 6 in Fig 6 instead of $scope.model.myInt = 6. The reason why this is a bad idea is that scope in hierarchical in Angular. Thus if we were to define a controller which was defined within the another controller (nested controllers), then the inner controller would inherit the scope of the parent controller. This inheritance would follow JavaScript prototypal inheritance. Let’s say the parent controller defined a variable through $scope.myInt = 6. The child controller would inherit the scope through java prototypical inheritance. This basically means that the child scope has a variable myInt that points to the parent scopes myInt variable. Now if we assigned the value of myInt in the parent, the child scope would be updated with the same value as the child scope’s myInt variable points to the parent scope’s myInt variable. However, if we were to assign the value of the myInt variable in the child scope, then the link of that variable to the parent scope would be broken as the variable myInt in the child scope now points to the value 6 and not to the parent scope’s myInt variable. But, if we defined a variable model in the parent scope, then the child scope will also have a variable model that points to the model variable in the parent scope. Updating the value of $scope.model.myInt in the parent scope would change the model variable in the child scope too as the variable is pointed to the model variable in the parent scope. Now changing the value of $scope.model.myInt in the child scope would ALSO change the value in the parent scope. This is because the model reference in the child scope is pointed to the scope variable in the parent. We did no new assignment to the model variable in the child scope. We only changed an attribute of the model variable. Since the model variable (in the child scope) points to the model variable in the parent scope, we have successfully changed the value of myInt in the parent scope. Thus the value of $scope.model.myInt in the parent scope becomes the “single source of truth“. This is a tricky concept, thus it is considered good practice to NOT use scope inheritance. More info on prototypal inheritance in Angular can be found in the “JavaScript Prototypal Inheritance” section at the following URL: https://github.com/angular/angular.js/wiki/Understanding­Scopes. Building It: An Angular JS application using a .NET Web API Backend Now that we have a perspective on the basic components of an MVVM application built using Angular, let’s build something useful. We will build an application that can be used to send out SMS messages to a given phone number. The following diagram describes the architecture of the application we are going to build: Fig 7: Broad application architecture We are going to add an HTML Partial to our project. This partial will contain the form fields that will accept the phone number and message that needs to be sent as an SMS. It will also display all the messages that have previously been sent. All the executable code that is run on the occurrence of events (button clicks etc.) in the view resides in the controller. The controller interacts with the ASP.NET WebAPI to get a history of SMS messages, add a message etc. through a REST based API. For the purposes of simplicity, we will use an in memory data structure for the purposes of creating this application. Thus, the tasks ahead of us are: Creating the REST WebApi with GET, PUT, POST, DELETE methods. Creating the SmsView.html partial Creating the SmsController controller with methods that are called from the SmsView.html partial Add a new route that loads the controller and the partial. 1. Creating the REST WebAPI This is a simple task that should be quite straightforward to any .NET developer. The following listing shows our ApiController: public class SmsMessage { public string to { get; set; } public string message { get; set; } } public class SmsResource : SmsMessage { public int smsId { get; set; } } public class SmsResourceController : ApiController { public static Dictionary<int, SmsResource> messages = new Dictionary<int, SmsResource>(); public static int currentId = 0; // GET api/<controller> public List<SmsResource> Get() { List<SmsResource> result = new List<SmsResource>(); foreach (int key in messages.Keys) { result.Add(messages[key]); } return result; } // GET api/<controller>/5 public SmsResource Get(int id) { if (messages.ContainsKey(id)) return messages[id]; return null; } // POST api/<controller> public List<SmsResource> Post([FromBody] SmsMessage value) { //Synchronize on messages so we don't have id collisions lock (messages) { SmsResource res = (SmsResource) value; res.smsId = currentId++; messages.Add(res.smsId, res); //SentlyPlusSmsSender.SendMessage(value.to, value.message); return Get(); } } // PUT api/<controller>/5 public List<SmsResource> Put(int id, [FromBody] SmsMessage value) { //Synchronize on messages so we don't have id collisions lock (messages) { if (messages.ContainsKey(id)) { //Update the message messages[id].message = value.message; messages[id].to = value.message; } return Get(); } } // DELETE api/<controller>/5 public List<SmsResource> Delete(int id) { if (messages.ContainsKey(id)) { messages.Remove(id); } return Get(); } } Once this class is defined, we should be able to access the WebAPI by a simple GET request using the browser: http://localhost:port/api/SmsResource Notice the commented line: //SentlyPlusSmsSender.SendMessage The SentlyPlusSmsSender class is defined in the attached solution. We have shown this line as commented as we want to explain the core Angular concepts. If you load the attached solution, this line is uncommented in the source and an actual SMS will be sent! By default, the API returns XML. For consumption of the API in Angular, we would like it to return JSON. To change the default to JSON, we make the following change to WebApiConfig.cs file located in the App_Start folder. public static class WebApiConfig { public static void Register(HttpConfiguration config) { config.Routes.MapHttpRoute( name: "DefaultApi", routeTemplate: "api/{controller}/{id}", defaults: new { id = RouteParameter.Optional } ); var appXmlType = config.Formatters.XmlFormatter. SupportedMediaTypes. FirstOrDefault( t => t.MediaType == "application/xml"); config.Formatters.XmlFormatter.SupportedMediaTypes.Remove(appXmlType); } } We now have our backend REST Api which we can consume from Angular! 2. Creating the SmsView.html partial This simple partial will define two fields: the destination phone number (international format starting with a +) and the message. These fields will be bound to model.phoneNumber and model.message. We will also add a button that we shall hook up to sendMessage() in the controller. A list of all previously sent messages (bound to model.allMessages) will also be displayed below the form input. The following code shows the code for the partial: <!--­­ If model.errorMessage is defined, then render the error div -­­> <div class="alert alert-­danger alert-­dismissable" style="margin­-top: 30px;" ng­-show="model.errorMessage != undefined"> <button type="button" class="close" data­dismiss="alert" aria­hidden="true">&times;</button> <strong>Error!</strong> <br /> {{ model.errorMessage }} </div> <!--­­ The input fields bound to the model --­­> <div class="well" style="margin-­top: 30px;"> <table style="width: 100%;"> <tr> <td style="width: 45%; text-­align: center;"> <input type="text" placeholder="Phone number (eg; +44 7778 609466)" ng­-model="model.phoneNumber" class="form-­control" style="width: 90%" onkeypress="return checkPhoneInput();" /> </td> <td style="width: 45%; text-­align: center;"> <input type="text" placeholder="Message" ng­-model="model.message" class="form-­control" style="width: 90%" /> </td> <td style="text-­align: center;"> <button class="btn btn-­danger" ng-­click="sendMessage();" ng-­disabled="model.isAjaxInProgress" style="margin­right: 5px;">Send</button> <img src="/Content/ajax-­loader.gif" ng­-show="model.isAjaxInProgress" /> </td> </tr> </table> </div> <!--­­ The past messages ­­--> <div style="margin-­top: 30px;"> <!­­-- The following div is shown if there are no past messages --­­> <div ng­-show="model.allMessages.length == 0"> No messages have been sent yet! </div> <!--­­ The following div is shown if there are some past messages --­­> <div ng-­show="model.allMessages.length == 0"> <table style="width: 100%;" class="table table-­striped"> <tr> <td>Phone Number</td> <td>Message</td> <td></td> </tr> <!--­­ The ng-­repeat directive is line the repeater control in .NET, but as you can see this partial is pure HTML which is much cleaner --> <tr ng-­repeat="message in model.allMessages"> <td>{{ message.to }}</td> <td>{{ message.message }}</td> <td> <button class="btn btn-­danger" ng-­click="delete(message.smsId);" ng­-disabled="model.isAjaxInProgress">Delete</button> </td> </tr> </table> </div> </div> The above code is commented and should be self explanatory. Conditional rendering is achieved through using the ng-­show=”condition” attribute on various div tags. Input fields are bound to the model and the send button is bound to the sendMessage() function in the controller as through the ng­click=”sendMessage()” attribute defined on the button tag. While AJAX calls are taking place, the controller sets model.isAjaxInProgress to true. Based on this variable, buttons are disabled through the ng-­disabled directive which is added as an attribute to the buttons. The ng-­repeat directive added as an attribute to the tr tag causes the table row to be rendered multiple times much like an ASP.NET repeater. 3. Creating the SmsController controller The penultimate piece of our application is the controller which responds to events from our view and interacts with our MVC4 REST WebAPI. The following listing shows the code we need to add to /app/js/controllers.js. Note that controller definitions can be chained. Also note that this controller “asks for” the $http service. The $http service is a simple way in Angular to do AJAX. So far we have only encountered modules, controllers, views and directives in Angular. The $http is new entity in Angular called a service. More information on Angular services can be found at the following URL: http://docs.angularjs.org/guide/dev_guide.services.understanding_services. .controller('SmsController', ['$scope', '$http', function ($scope, $http) { //We define the model $scope.model = {}; //We define the allMessages array in the model //that will contain all the messages sent so far $scope.model.allMessages = []; //The error if any $scope.model.errorMessage = undefined; //We initially load data so set the isAjaxInProgress = true; $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = true; //Load all the messages $http({ url: '/api/smsresource', method: "GET" }). success(function (data, status, headers, config) { this callback will be called asynchronously //when the response is available $scope.model.allMessages = data; //We are done with AJAX loading $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = false; }). error(function (data, status, headers, config) { //called asynchronously if an error occurs //or server returns response with an error status. $scope.model.errorMessage = "Error occurred status:" + status; //We are done with AJAX loading $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = false; }); $scope.delete = function (id) { //We are making an ajax call so we set this to true $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = true; $http({ url: '/api/smsresource/' + id, method: "DELETE" }). success(function (data, status, headers, config) { // this callback will be called asynchronously // when the response is available $scope.model.allMessages = data; //We are done with AJAX loading $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = false; }); error(function (data, status, headers, config) { // called asynchronously if an error occurs // or server returns response with an error status. $scope.model.errorMessage = "Error occurred status:" + status; //We are done with AJAX loading $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = false; }); } $scope.sendMessage = function () { $scope.model.errorMessage = undefined; var message = ''; if($scope.model.message != undefined) message = $scope.model.message.trim(); if ($scope.model.phoneNumber == undefined || $scope.model.phoneNumber == '' || $scope.model.phoneNumber.length < 10 || $scope.model.phoneNumber[0] != '+') { $scope.model.errorMessage = "You must enter a valid phone number in international format. Eg: +44 7778 609466"; return; } if (message.length == 0) { $scope.model.errorMessage = "You must specify a message!"; return; } //We are making an ajax call so we set this to true $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = true; $http({ url: '/api/smsresource', method: "POST", data: { to: $scope.model.phoneNumber, message: $scope.model.message } }). success(function (data, status, headers, config) { // this callback will be called asynchronously // when the response is available $scope.model.allMessages = data; //We are done with AJAX loading $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = false; }). error(function (data, status, headers, config) { // called asynchronously if an error occurs // or server returns response with an error status. $scope.model.errorMessage = "Error occurred status:" + status // We are done with AJAX loading $scope.model.isAjaxInProgress = false; }); } }]); We can see from the previous listing how the functions that are called from the view are defined in the controller. It should also be evident how easy it is to make AJAX calls to consume our MVC4 REST WebAPI. Now we are left with the final piece. We need to define a route that associates a particular path with the view we have defined and the controller we have defined. 4. Add a new route that loads the controller and the partial This is the easiest part of the puzzle. We simply define another route in the /app/js/app.js file: $routeProvider.when('/sms', { templateUrl: '/app/partials/smsview.html', controller: 'SmsController' }); Conclusion In this article we have seen how much of the server side functionality in the MVC4 framework can be moved to the browser thus delivering a snappy and fast user interface. We have seen how we can build client side HTML only views that avoid the messy syntax offered by server side Razor views. We have built a functioning app from the ground up. The significant advantage of this approach to building web apps is that the front end can be completely platform independent. Even though we used ASP.NET to create our REST API, we could just easily have used any other language such as Node.js, Ruby etc without changing a single line of our front end code. Angular is a rich framework and we have only touched on basic functionality required to create a SPA. For readers who wish to delve further into the Angular framework, we would recommend the following URL as a starting point: http://docs.angularjs.org/misc/started. To get started with the code for this project: Sign up for an account at http://plus.sent.ly (free) Add your phone number Go to the “My Identies Page” Note Down your Sender ID, Consumer Key and Consumer Secret Download the code for this article at: https://docs.google.com/file/d/0BzjEWqSE31yoZjZlV0d0R2Y3eW8/edit?usp=sharing Change the values of Sender Id, Consumer Key and Consumer Secret in the web.config file Run the project through Visual Studio!

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  • Which workaround to use for the following SQL deadlock?

    - by Marko
    I found a SQL deadlock scenario in my application during concurrency. I belive that the two statements that cause the deadlock are (note - I'm using LINQ2SQL and DataContext.ExecuteCommand(), that's where this.studioId.ToString() comes into play): exec sp_executesql N'INSERT INTO HQ.dbo.SynchronizingRows ([StudioId], [UpdatedRowId]) SELECT @p0, [t0].[Id] FROM [dbo].[UpdatedRows] AS [t0] WHERE NOT (EXISTS( SELECT NULL AS [EMPTY] FROM [dbo].[ReceivedUpdatedRows] AS [t1] WHERE ([t1].[StudioId] = @p0) AND ([t1].[UpdatedRowId] = [t0].[Id]) ))',N'@p0 uniqueidentifier',@p0='" + this.studioId.ToString() + "'; and exec sp_executesql N'INSERT INTO HQ.dbo.ReceivedUpdatedRows ([UpdatedRowId], [StudioId], [ReceiveDateTime]) SELECT [t0].[UpdatedRowId], @p0, GETDATE() FROM [dbo].[SynchronizingRows] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[StudioId] = @p0)',N'@p0 uniqueidentifier',@p0='" + this.studioId.ToString() + "'; The basic logic of my (client-server) application is this: Every time someone inserts or updates a row on the server side, I also insert a row into the table UpdatedRows, specifying the RowId of the modified row. When a client tries to synchronize data, it first copies all of the rows in the UpdatedRows table, that don't contain a reference row for the specific client in the table ReceivedUpdatedRows, to the table SynchronizingRows (the first statement taking part in the deadlock). Afterwards, during the synchronization I look for modified rows via lookup of the SynchronizingRows table. This step is required, otherwise if someone inserts new rows or modifies rows on the server side during synchronization I will miss them and won't get them during the next synchronization (explanation scenario to long to write here...). Once synchronization is complete, I insert rows to the ReceivedUpdatedRows table specifying that this client has received the UpdatedRows contained in the SynchronizingRows table (the second statement taking part in the deadlock). Finally I delete all rows from the SynchronizingRows table that belong to the current client. The way I see it, the deadlock is occuring on tables SynchronizingRows (abbreviation SR) and ReceivedUpdatedRows (abbreviation RUR) during steps 2 and 3 (one client is in step 2 and is inserting into SR and selecting from RUR; while another client is in step 3 inserting into RUR and selecting from SR). I googled a bit about SQL deadlocks and came to a conclusion that I have three options. Inorder to make a decision I need more input about each option/workaround: Workaround 1: The first advice given on the web about SQL deadlocks - restructure tables/queries so that deadlocks don't happen in the first place. Only problem with this is that with my IQ I don't see a way to do the synchronization logic any differently. If someone wishes to dwelve deeper into my current synchronization logic, how and why it is set up the way it is, I'll post a link for the explanation. Perhaps, with the help of someone smarter than me, it's possible to create a logic that is deadlock free. Workaround 2: The second most common advice seems to be the use of WITH(NOLOCK) hint. The problem with this is that NOLOCK might miss or duplicate some rows. Duplication is not a problem, but missing rows is catastrophic! Another option is the WITH(READPAST) hint. On the face of it, this seems to be a perfect solution. I really don't care about rows that other clients are inserting/modifying, because each row belongs only to a specific client, so I may very well skip locked rows. But the MSDN documentaion makes me a bit worried - "When READPAST is specified, both row-level and page-level locks are skipped". As I said, row-level locks would not be a problem, but page-level locks may very well be, since a page might contain rows that belong to multiple clients (including the current one). While there are lots of blog posts specifically mentioning that NOLOCK might miss rows, there seems to be none about READPAST (never) missing rows. This makes me skeptical and nervous to implement it, since there is no easy way to test it (implementing would be a piece of cake, just pop WITH(READPAST) into both statements SELECT clause and job done). Can someone confirm whether the READPAST hint can miss rows? Workaround 3: The final option is to use ALLOW_SNAPSHOT_ISOLATION and READ_COMMITED_SNAPSHOT. This would seem to be the only option to work 100% - at least I can't find any information that would contradict with it. But it is a little bit trickier to setup (I don't care much about the performance hit), because I'm using LINQ. Off the top of my head I probably need to manually open a SQL connection and pass it to the LINQ2SQL DataContext, etc... I haven't looked into the specifics very deeply. Mostly I would prefer option 2 if somone could only reassure me that READPAST will never miss rows concerning the current client (as I said before, each client has and only ever deals with it's own set of rows). Otherwise I'll likely have to implement option 3, since option 1 is probably impossible... I'll post the table definitions for the three tables as well, just in case: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[UpdatedRows]( [Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL ROWGUIDCOL DEFAULT NEWSEQUENTIALID() PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED, [RowId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [UpdateDateTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, ) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_RowId ON dbo.UpdatedRows ([RowId] ASC) WITH (STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[ReceivedUpdatedRows]( [Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL ROWGUIDCOL DEFAULT NEWSEQUENTIALID() PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED, [UpdatedRowId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL REFERENCES [dbo].[UpdatedRows] ([Id]), [StudioId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL REFERENCES, [ReceiveDateTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, ) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Studios ON dbo.ReceivedUpdatedRows ([StudioId] ASC) WITH (STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE TABLE [dbo].[SynchronizingRows]( [StudioId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL [UpdatedRowId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL REFERENCES [dbo].[UpdatedRows] ([Id]) PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ([StudioId], [UpdatedRowId]) ) ON [PRIMARY] GO PS! Studio = Client. PS2! I just noticed that the index definitions have ALLOW_PAGE_LOCK=ON. If I would turn it off, would that make any difference to READPAST? Are there any negative downsides for turning it off?

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  • MySQL won't start or won't installed

    - by Owen
    Hi there, I'm trying to get a local LAMP setup on my Ubuntu desktop. I'm successfully got PHP install but I'm having trouble with MySQL If PHP tries to connet to MySQL I get this error: Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' (2) in /var/www/testing.php on line 3 Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' (2) If I try via command line I get much the same error: owen@desktop:~$ mysql ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' (13) Weirdly "/var/run/mysqld" does not exist. Running a whereis command I get the following: owen@desktop:~$ whereis mysqld.sock mysqld: /usr/sbin/mysqld /usr/share/man/man8/mysqld.8.gz So is MySQL even installed? Well acording to dpkg owen@desktop:~$ dpkg -l | grep mysql ii libapache2-mod-auth-mysql 4.3.9-13ubuntu1 Apache 2 module for MySQL authentication ii libdbd-mysql-perl 4.016-1 Perl5 database interface to the MySQL database ii libmysqlclient15off 5.1.30really5.0.83-0ubuntu3 MySQL database client library ii libmysqlclient16 5.1.49-1ubuntu8.1 MySQL database client library ii mysql-admin 5.0r14+openSUSE-2.1 GUI tool for intuitive MySQL administration ii mysql-client-5.1 5.1.49-1ubuntu8.1 MySQL database client binaries ii mysql-client-core-5.1 5.1.49-1ubuntu8.1 MySQL database core client binaries ii mysql-common 5.1.49-1ubuntu8.1 MySQL database common files, e.g. /etc/mysql/my.cnf ii mysql-gui-tools-common 5.0r14+openSUSE-2.1 Architecture independent files for MySQL GUI Tools ii mysql-query-browser 5.0r14+openSUSE-2.1 Official GUI tool to query MySQL database ii mysql-server 5.1.49-1ubuntu8.1 MySQL database server (metapackage depending on the latest version) ii mysql-server-5.1 5.1.49-1ubuntu8.1 MySQL database server binaries and system database setup ii mysql-server-core-5.0 5.1.30really5.0.83-0ubuntu3 MySQL database core server files ii mysql-server-core-5.1 5.1.49-1ubuntu8.1 MySQL database server binaries ii php5-mysql Can someone please help I'm really confused as what to do next. I'm not a Linux expert at all most of these commands I've ran I found of diffrent blogs and help forums.

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  • Apache is reponding a blank white page

    - by Bruno Araujo
    I have the following situation: A site hosted in apache 2.4, with ssl, that works like a charm for a while now, but out of no where, without modifications to the site, apache started serving random blank pages. The workaround this is to delete the cookies of the browser or restart the browser. I've switched the vitualhost to log in debug mode but it didn't got me anywhere. Here is the debug log of a failed page load: [Wed Oct 24 10:57:35.762547 2012] [ssl:info] [pid 27854:tid 140617706374912] [client 192.168.10.150:58917] AH01964: Connection to child 147 established (server xxx.com.br:443) [Wed Oct 24 10:57:35.762739 2012] [ssl:debug] [pid 27854:tid 140617706374912] ssl_engine_kernel.c(1966): [client 192.168.10.150:58917] AH02043: SSL virtual host for servername xxx.com.br found [Wed Oct 24 10:57:35.777479 2012] [ssl:debug] [pid 27854:tid 140617706374912] ssl_engine_kernel.c(1899): [client 192.168.10.150:58917] AH02041: Protocol: TLSv1, Cipher: DHE-RSA-AES256-SHA (256/256 bits) [Wed Oct 24 10:57:35.779912 2012] [ssl:debug] [pid 27854:tid 140617706374912] ssl_engine_kernel.c(243): [client 192.168.10.150:58917] AH02034: Initial (No.1) HTTPS request received for child 147 (server xxx.com.br:443) [Wed Oct 24 10:57:35.780044 2012] [authz_core:debug] [pid 27854:tid 140617706374912] mod_authz_core.c(809): [client 192.168.10.150:58917] AH01628: authorization result: granted (no directives) [Wed Oct 24 10:57:40.783950 2012] [ssl:info] [pid 27854:tid 140617706374912] (70007)The timeout specified has expired: [client 192.168.10.150:58917] AH01991: SSL input filter read failed. [Wed Oct 24 10:57:40.784077 2012] [ssl:debug] [pid 27854:tid 140617706374912] ssl_engine_io.c(988): [remote 192.168.10.150:58917] AH02001: Connection closed to child 147 with standard shutdown (server xxx.com.br:443)

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  • Apache2 Permission denied: access to / denied

    - by futureled
    Hi, after installing and starting apache2 i can't open the website and got the error "Forbidden You don't have permission to access / on this server." I tried some different options in the httpd.conf, but nothing helped me solving this problem. All permissions for every directory are "drwxr-xr-x". The directory /www contains a file names index.html with the same permissions. Please do not wonder, the time in the errorlog is not correctly. I have no idea what the problem is, i hope someone can help me. my httpd.conf: ServerRoot "/etc/apache2" Listen 80 User daemon Group daemon ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot "/var/www" Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order Deny,Allow Deny from all Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all DirectoryIndex index.html Order allow,deny Deny from all Satisfy All ErrorLog /var/apache2/logs/error_log LogLevel warn LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\"" combined LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b" common <IfModule logio_module> LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %>s %b \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\" %I %O" combinedio </IfModule> CustomLog /var/apache2/logs/access_log common ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ "/usr/share/apache2/cgi-bin/" AllowOverride None Options None Order allow,deny Allow from all DefaultType text/plain TypesConfig /etc/apache2/mime.types AddType application/x-compress .Z AddType application/x-gzip .gz .tgz SSLRandomSeed startup builtin SSLRandomSeed connect builtin my error_log: [Sat Jan 01 00:50:26 2000] [notice] caught SIGTERM, shutting down [Sat Jan 01 00:50:33 2000] [warn] Init: Session Cache is not configured [hint: SSLSessionCache] [Sat Jan 01 00:50:34 2000] [notice] Apache/2.2.3 (Unix) mod_ssl/2.2.3 OpenSSL/0.9.8j configured -- resuming normal operations [Sat Jan 01 00:50:36 2000] [error] [client 192.168.1.44] (13)Permission denied: access to / denied [Sat Jan 01 00:50:37 2000] [error] [client 192.168.1.44] (13)Permission denied: access to / denied [Sat Jan 01 00:50:37 2000] [error] [client 192.168.1.44] (13)Permission denied: access to / denied [Sat Jan 01 00:50:37 2000] [error] [client 192.168.1.44] (13)Permission denied: access to / denied [Sat Jan 01 00:50:38 2000] [error] [client 192.168.1.44] (13)Permission denied: access to / denied [Sat Jan 01 00:50:38 2000] [error] [client 192.168.1.44] (13)Permission denied: access to / denied

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  • openvpn TCP/UDP slow SSH/SMB performance

    - by Petr Latal
    I have question about strange behavior of my openVPN configuration on Debian lenny. I have 2 server configs (one proto tcp-server based and one proto udp based). ISP bandwidth is 7Mbit/7Mbit. When I uses proto tcp-server my download server rate is fine around 6,4 Mbit/s, but upload rate is about 3Mbit/s. When I uses proto udp, my download server rate is around 3Mbit/s and upload rate around 6,4Mbit/s. I tried to handle the MTU, MSSFIX and cipher on/off on server and client configs to synchronize rates, but without solution. Here is TCP based SERVER config: mode server tls-server port 1194 proto tcp-server dev tap0 ifconfig 11.10.15.1 255.255.255.0 ifconfig-pool 11.10.15.2 11.10.15.20 255.255.255.0 push "route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0" push "dhcp-option DNS 192.168.1.200" push "route-gateway 11.10.15.1" push "dhcp-option WINS 192.168.1.200" route-up /etc/openvpn/routeup.sh duplicate-cn ca /etc/openvpn/ca.crt cert /etc/openvpn/server.crt key /etc/openvpn/server.key dh /etc/openvpn/dh2048.pem log-append /var/log/openvpn.log status /var/run/vpn.status 10 user nobody group nogroup keepalive 10 120 comp-lzo verb 3 script-security 3 plugin /usr/lib/openvpn/openvpn-auth-pam.so system-auth persist-tun persist-key mssfix cipher BF-CBC Here is UDP based SERVER config: port 1194 proto udp dev tun0 local xx.xx.xx.xx server 11.10.15.0 255.255.255.0 ca /etc/openvpn/ca.crt cert /etc/openvpn/server.crt key /etc/openvpn/server.key dh /etc/openvpn/dh2048.pem log-append /var/log/openvpn.log status /var/run/vpn.status 10 user nobody group nogroup keepalive 10 120 comp-lzo verb 3 duplicate-cn script-security 3 plugin /usr/lib/openvpn/openvpn-auth-pam.so system-auth persist-tun persist-key tun-mtu 1500 mssfix 1212 client-to-client ifconfig-pool-persist ipp.txt Here is TCP/UDP based windows CLIENT config: remote xx.xx.xx.xx --socket-flags TCP_NODELAY tls-client port 1194 proto tcp-client #proto udp dev tap #dev tun pull ca ca.crt cert latis.crt key latis.key mute 0 comp-lzo adaptive verb 3 resolv-retry infinite nobind persist-key auth-user-pass auth-nocache script-security 2 mssfix cipher BF-CBC

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  • Skype performance in IPSEC VPN

    - by dunxd
    I've been challenged to "improve Skype performance" for calls within my organisation. Having read the Skype IT Administrators Guide I am wondering whether we might have a performance issue where the Skype Clients in a call are all on our WAN. The call is initiated by a Skype Client at our head office, and terminated on a Skype Client in a remote office connected via IPSEC VPN. Where this happens, I assume the trafficfrom Client A (encrypted by Skype) goes to our ASA 5510, where it is furtehr encrypted, sent to the remote ASA 5505 decrypted, then passed to Client B which decrypts the Skype encryption. Would the call quality benefit if the traffic didn't go over the VPN, but instead only relied on Skype's encryption? I imagine I could achieve this by setting up a SOCKS5 proxy in our HQ DMZ for Skype traffic. Then the traffic goes from Client A to Proxy, over the Skype relay network, then arrives at Cisco ASA 5505 as any other internet traffic, and then to Client B. Is there likely to be any performance benefit in doing this? If so, is there a way to do it that doesn't require a proxy? Has anyone else tackled this?

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  • Grant access for users on a separate domain to SharePoint

    - by Geo Ego
    Hello. I just completed development of a SharePoint site on a virtual server and am currently in the process of granting users from a different domain to the site. The SharePoint domain is SHAREPOINT, and the domain with the users I want to give access to is COMPANY. I have provided them with a link to the site and added them as users via SharePoint, which is all I thought I would need to do. However, when they go to the link, the site shows them a SharePoint error page. In the security event log, I am showing the following: Event Type: Failure Audit Event Source: Security Event Category: Object Access Event ID: 560 Date: 3/18/2010 Time: 11:11:49 AM User: COMPANY\ThisUser Computer: SHAREPOINT Description: Object Open: Object Server: Security Account Manager Object Type: SAM_ALIAS Object Name: DOMAINS\Account\Aliases\00000404 Handle ID: - Operation ID: {0,1719489} Process ID: 416 Image File Name: C:\WINDOWS\system32\lsass.exe Primary User Name: SHAREPOINT$ Primary Domain: COMPANY Primary Logon ID: (0x0,0x3E7) Client User Name: ThisUser Client Domain: PRINTRON Client Logon ID: (0x0,0x1A3BC2) Accesses: AddMember RemoveMember ListMembers ReadInformation Privileges: - Restricted Sid Count: 0 Access Mask: 0xF Then, four of these in a row: Event Type: Failure Audit Event Source: Security Event Category: Object Access Event ID: 560 Date: 3/18/2010 Time: 11:12:08 AM User: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Computer: SHAREPOINT Description: Object Open: Object Server: SC Manager Object Type: SERVICE OBJECT Object Name: WinHttpAutoProxySvc Handle ID: - Operation ID: {0,1727132} Process ID: 404 Image File Name: C:\WINDOWS\system32\services.exe Primary User Name: SHAREPOINT$ Primary Domain: COMPANY Primary Logon ID: (0x0,0x3E7) Client User Name: NETWORK SERVICE Client Domain: NT AUTHORITY Client Logon ID: (0x0,0x3E4) Accesses: Query status of service Start the service Query information from service Privileges: - Restricted Sid Count: 0 Access Mask: 0x94 Any ideas what permissions I need to grant to the user to get them access to SharePoint?

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  • Always failed in connecting to the Outlook Anywhere through TMG 2010 with certificate ?

    - by Albert Widjaja
    Hi, I have successfully published Exchange Activesync using TMG 2010 and OWA internally only but somehow when I tried to publish the Outlook Anywhere it failed ( as can be seen from the https://www.testexchangeconnectivity.com ) Settings: IIS 7 settings, I have unchecked the require SSL and "Ignore" the client certificate Exchange CAS settings: ServerName : ExCAS02-VM SSLOffloading : True ExternalHostname : activesync.domain.com ClientAuthenticationMethod : Basic IISAuthenticationMethods : {Basic} MetabasePath : IIS://ExCAS02-VM.domainad.com/W3SVC/1/ROOT/Rpc Path : C:\Windows\System32\RpcProxy Server : ExCAS02-VM AdminDisplayName : ExchangeVersion : 0.1 (8.0.535.0) Name : Rpc (Default Web Site) DistinguishedName : CN=Rpc (Default Web Site),CN=HTTP,CN=Protocols,CN=ExCAS02-VM,CN=Servers,CN=Exchange Administrative....... Identity : ExCAS02-VM\Rpc (Default Web Site) Guid : 59873fe5-3e09-456e-9540-f67abc893f5e ObjectCategory : domainad.com/Configuration/Schema/ms-Exch-Rpc-Http-Virtual-Directory ObjectClass : {top, msExchVirtualDirectory, msExchRpcHttpVirtualDirectory} WhenChanged : 18/02/2011 4:31:54 PM WhenCreated : 18/02/2011 4:30:27 PM OriginatingServer : ADDC01.domainad.com IsValid : True Test-OutlookWebServices settings: 1013 Error When contacting https://activesync.domain.com/Rpc received the error The remote server returned an error: (500) Internal Server Error. 1017 Error [EXPR]-Error when contacting the RPC/HTTP service at https://activesync.domain.com/Rpc. The elapsed time was 0 milliseconds. https://www.testexchangeconnectivity.com testing result: Checking the IIS configuration for client certificate authentication. Client certificate authentication was detected. Additional Details Accept/Require client certificates were found. Set the IIS configuration to Ignore Client Certificates if you aren't using this type of authentication. environment: Windows Server 2008 (HT-CAS) Exchange Server 2007 SP1 TMG 2010 Standard Outlook 2007 client SP2. Any kind of help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Ghost Solution Suite: Booting over PXE to WinPE for re-imaging, then booting to installed OS

    - by uberdanzik
    I have 40 networked computers that need to be re-imaged each night over a network via an automatic and unattended process. This is to reset the computers to a default state, as well as update the computers to the latest software loads. I'm using Symantec Ghost Solution Suite 2.5. My process so far is the following: Client begins in a powered down WakeOnLan accepting state. Ghost Console task uses WakeOnLan and PXE to boot the client into the WinPE environment. The client connects to the ghost console and reimages itself successfully. The client closes WinPE and restarts. PROBLEM: The client boots into the WinPE environment again, instead of the newly installed OS (Win7) I need it to boot into Win7 once so that I can run a few configuration batch files, then shut down into the WakeOnLan state again. Ghost console even reports an error on the process, that it never rebooted into the OS. Right now it seems that there is not an option to stop it from booting into the PXE server's WinPE image after re-imaging. Even if I set up a PXE boot menu with other boot options, its pointless, because it will always boot the default option. I would expect the ghost console task to be able to influence the PXE boot choice somehow. What do they expect us to do, turn the PXE server on and off manually? How can I get the client to boot to the OS after re-imaging? Thank you.

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  • Windows Server 2003 DHCP not handing out IPs

    - by SnOrfus
    I'm trying to setup a home server (to tinker with) as a domain controller. I've setup the domain and I've installed DHCP and setup a scope without any exclusions (with the default range of 192.168.0.1-254). My client machine is a Windows 7 (RC) machine and it has a connection but can't get an IP address. Even if I try setting the IP to a static 192.168.0.2 and there is still no connectivity. I can ping it from the server, but pinging the server from the client just times out. The only thing between the server and the client is a 24 port switch (D-Link DES-1024D). edit Ok, it turned out that the interfaces were setup backwards in the NAT settings (the internal nic connection was set to public and the external nic connection was set to private). I changed this and all was OK.... sort-of. Problem is now: If I set a static ip on the client (where I am typing this from) all is fine. BUT; when I set it to get it from DHCP, I get a correct IP from the server (192.168.0.2) but there is no internet on the client; but I can still ping the server fine from the client (which makes sense cause I was able to get an IP from it). edit I ended up just removing the Routing and DHCP server roles and just going with ICS for the time being until I get my hands on some better learning tools.

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  • How to redirect all Internet traffic to OpenVPN Server

    - by JuliaS
    I have seen working solutions around the issue of forcing Internet traffic to go through the OpenVPN server but they are all done in Linux, all I want to know is how to add an entry to the route table in windows to make this happen. connectivity between the client and server is fine, my Windows 7 client can establish a connection to the Windows 2008 Server, but when established Internet traffic is still going from the local Windows 7 machine. Here are the details: Server: Windows 2008 Server with one NIC OpenVPN IP Address: 192.168.0.1 Local NIC IP Address (connects the server to the Internet): 10.242.69.107 Client: Windows 7 with one NIC OpenVPN IP Address: 192.168.0.2 ISP allocated IP Address: 10.0.8.2 (gateway 10.0.8.1) Server OpenVPN Config: dev tun ifconfig 192.168.0.1 192.168.0.2 secret static.key push "redirect-gateway def1" Client OpenVPN Config: remote xxx.xxx.com dev tun ifconfig 192.168.0.2 192.168.0.1 secret static.key I'm not an expert with adding routes...etc. I would be grateful if someone could let me know how to add this entry in my server/client route table. EDIT: Output from the client's netstat -rnv IPv4 Route Table =========================================================================== Active Routes: Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.8.1 10.0.8.2 20 10.0.8.0 255.255.255.252 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 10.0.8.2 255.255.255.255 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 10.0.8.3 255.255.255.255 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 127.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.252 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 192.168.0.3 255.255.255.255 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 10.0.8.2 276 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 192.168.0.2 286 ===========================================================================

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  • Kerberos authentication not working for one single domain

    - by Buddy Casino
    We have a strange problem regarding Kerberos authentication with Apache mod_auth_kerb. We use a very simple krb5.conf, where only a single (main) AD server is configured. There are many domains in the forest, and it seems that SSO is working for most of them, except one. I don't know what is special about that domain, the error message that I see in the Apache logs is "Server not found in Kerberos database": [Wed Aug 31 14:56:02 2011] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(1025): [client xx.xxx.xxx.xxx] Using HTTP/[email protected] as server principal for password verification [Wed Aug 31 14:56:02 2011] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(714): [client xx.xxx.xxx.xxx] Trying to get TGT for user [email protected] [Wed Aug 31 14:56:02 2011] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(625): [client xx.xxx.xxx.xxx] Trying to verify authenticity of KDC using principal HTTP/[email protected] [Wed Aug 31 14:56:02 2011] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(640): [client xx.xxx.xxx.xxx] krb5_get_credentials() failed when verifying KDC [Wed Aug 31 14:56:02 2011] [error] [client xx.xxx.xxx.xxx] failed to verify krb5 credentials: Server not found in Kerberos database [Wed Aug 31 14:56:02 2011] [debug] src/mod_auth_kerb.c(1110): [client xx.xxx.xxx.xxx] kerb_authenticate_user_krb5pwd ret=401 user=(NULL) authtype=(NULL) When I try to kinit that user on the machine on which Apache is running, it works. I also checked that DNS lookups work, including reverse lookup. Who can tell me whats going?

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  • Can't connect to Sql Server 2008 named instance

    - by eidylon
    I just installed Sql 2008 Express on a new server running Windows Server 2008. I know Sql is working properly, because I can connect to the db fine locally, on the server. I cannot connect to it from a client machine though, neither by IP address nor by machine name (iporname\instance). I know I have the correct IP address, because I am RDCing into the server to perform all this configuration and setup, and if I ping the server name, it is resolving to the correct IP address as well. On the server, I have set up an inbound firewall exception allowing all traffic on any port on any protocol to sqlservr.exe. In SSMS, in server > Properties > Connections Allow remote connections to this server is enabled. In Sql Server Configuration Manager, TCP/IP is enabled in both the Protocols for <instance> and the Client Protocols sections. I looked in the Windows logs, but don't see anything about connections being denied or dropped. As far as I can see, I have everything set right, but cannot connect from a client machine. The client CAN connect to other Sql 2008 Express servers okay, so I know the client configuration is correct. Any ideas where else I can look for info of what/where/how this connection is dropping, greatly apprecaited! The error being returned by the client is: **TITLE: Connect to Server** Cannot connect to [MY.IP.ADD.RSS]\[MYINSTNAME]. ADDITIONAL INFORMATION: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: -1)

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  • Windows Server 2003 DHCP not handing out IPs

    - by SnOrfus
    I'm trying to setup a home server (to tinker with) as a domain controller. I've setup the domain and I've installed DHCP and setup a scope without any exclusions (with the default range of 192.168.0.1-254). My client machine is a Windows 7 (RC) machine and it has a connection but can't get an IP address. Even if I try setting the IP to a static 192.168.0.2 and there is still no connectivity. I can ping it from the server, but pinging the server from the client just times out. The only thing between the server and the client is a 24 port switch (D-Link DES-1024D). edit Ok, it turned out that the interfaces were setup backwards in the NAT settings (the internal nic connection was set to public and the external nic connection was set to private). I changed this and all was OK.... sort-of. Problem is now: If I set a static ip on the client (where I am typing this from) all is fine. BUT; when I set it to get it from DHCP, I get a correct IP from the server (192.168.0.2) but there is no internet on the client; but I can still ping the server fine from the client (which makes sense cause I was able to get an IP from it). edit I ended up just removing the Routing and DHCP server roles and just going with ICS for the time being until I get my hands on some better learning tools.

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  • Steps after installing vCenter Server?

    - by goober
    I'm working with: Two new ESX servers that I'm configuring A new Server 2008 R2 machine that I'm using for vCenter. I took the following steps: Installed the Hypervisor on the 2 ESX machines Checked their setup/connectivity (appears to be fine; can ping, etc.) Installed vCenter Server on the Win2k8R2 box. This included the install of a SQL Express database (we're a small shop) FYI, I changed some of the ports (443 -- 8443, 80 --8080, etc.) Installed vCenter Web Client Server on the Win2k8R2 box Problems my vSphere Client on my Desktop fails to connect. Part of this is that it asks me for a username and password, but I don't recall specifying one when I set up the install. I receive the error "vSphere Client could not connect to [machinename]. An unknown connection error occurred. (The request failed because of a connection failure. (Unable to connect to the remote server))" I have also tried to use local machine admin credentials, including the format machinename\localuseracct. I have also tried using my domain credentials which are an admin for that box. I have also checked and the service is running. I also tried to connect via vSphere client locally installed on the server. It translates "localhost" to the correct name but gives the same error. I cannot register the vCenter server from the vCenter Web Client Server. I'm not sure if this is necessary, as they're both on the same machine, but it seems like the logical next step. I also receive a "failed to connect" error in this case as well. FYI, both the vCenter server and the vCenter Web Client Server are installed on the same Win2k8R2 server. What am I missing here? What is the best way to test in this case?

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  • Pinging an external server through OpenVPN tunnel doesn’t work

    - by qdii
    I have an OpenVPN server and a client, and I want to use this tunnel to access not only 10.0.8.0/24 but the whole internet. So far, pinging the server from the client through the tun0 interface works, and vice versa. However, pinging www.google.com from the client through tun0 doesn’t work (all packets are lost). I figured that I should configure the server so that any packet coming from tun0 in destination of the internet be forwarded, so I came up with this iptables config line: interface_connecting_to_the_internet='eth0' interface_openvpn='tun0' internet_ip_address=`ifconfig "$interface_connecting_to_the_internet" | sed -n s'/.*inet \([0-9.]*\).*/\1/p'` iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -o "${interface_connecting_to_the_internet}" -j SNAT --to-source "${internet_ip_address}" echo '1' > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward Yet, this doesn’t work, the packets are still lost and I am wondering what could possibly be wrong with my setup. Some details: ip route gives on the server: default via 176.31.127.254 dev eth0 metric 3 10.8.0.0/24 via 10.8.0.2 dev tun0 10.8.0.2 dev tun0 proto kernel scope link src 10.8.0.1 127.0.0.0/8 via 127.0.0.1 dev lo 176.31.127.0/24 dev eth0 proto kernel scope link src 176.31.127.109 ip route gives on the client: default via 192.168.1.1 dev wlan0 proto static 10.8.0.1 via 10.8.0.5 dev tun0 10.8.0.5 dev tun0 proto kernel scope link src 10.8.0.6 127.0.0.0/8 via 127.0.0.1 dev lo scope link 192.168.1.0/24 dev wlan0 proto kernel scope link src 192.168.1.109 client uses wifi adapter wlan0 and TUN adapter tun0. server uses ethernet adapter eth0 and TUN adapter tun0. the VPN spans on 10.0.8.0/24 both client and linux are using Linux 3.6.1.

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  • Outlook 2007/2010 autodiscovering old Exchange info

    - by Dan
    I currently have an Exchange setup as follows: two Exchange 2003 servers clustered together set up as the current mailbox stores, one Exchange 2003 setup as a frontend, one Exchange 2007 set up as a frontend (was set up for testing by my predecessor, never really used intentionally), and now four Exchange 2010 servers - two mailboxes in a DAG and two with Hub/CAS. Everything seems to be working fine with one exception - Outlook 2007/2010 clients are still autodiscovering the test 2007 frontend and not the 2010 CAS array. I know this because there's an expired cert on the 2007 box so the client displays a cert error when you attempt to autocreate the outlook profile. From what I've read, there is an SCP (Service Connection Point) in AD that is pointing to the old server and it is getting returned first, causing Outlook to try it first. How can I prevent Outlook from even attempting to connect to this 2007 box from now on? http://www.msexchange.org/articles_tutorials/exchange-server-2010/management-administration/exchange-autodiscover.html When Outlook 2007 is installed on a domain joined workstation then the Outlook client will query Active Directory for the Autodiscover information. Active Directory will return a list of SCP’s and the Outlook client will automatically select the first SCP in this list. Using the information found in the SCP the Outlook client will contact the Client Access Server for its configuration information and the Outlook client will be configured automatically.

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  • Can I configure Thunderbird 3 to refresh the folder list for an Exchange IMAP account?

    - by Howiecamp
    Background: When used as an IMAP client against Gmail, Thunderbird 3 (may be the case in v2 also, not sure) will refresh it's list of folders (the folders correspond to Gmail labels) when you do "Download/Sync Now..." or restart the Thunderbird client. Any new folders (labels) created in Gmail will sync to the client and any folders moved/changed/deleted folders in Gmail will move/change/delete on the client as well. (Note: Thunderbird has the concept of "subscribing" to IMAP folders (assumingly allowing you to determine which folders you want, rather than bringing all of them down and dragging loads of data across the wire). When used against Gmail, Thunderbird appears to automatically subscribe to all folders (including when folders are newly created in Gmail), so this might be why the refresh is happening properly.) This behavior is what I want with Exchange. When using Thunderbird with Exchange (2007), the folder list doesn't refresh when folders are added/changed/deleted on the server and/or from a different mail client. When I look at the subscription options, some are checked and some are not (not sure why Thunderbird picked some and not others). And when I add new folders on the server and/or from another client, they never even appear in Thunderbird's list of folders, preventing me from subscribing to them.

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  • VSFTPD - FTP over TLS - Upload stops after exactly 82k?

    - by Redsandro
    I installed a VSFTP daemon on a CentOS server, using a RSA certificate for logging in using explicit TLS. Now, I cannot upload more than 82k. With files under that limit, there is no problem. The FTP works like a charm. But as soon as a file reaches 82k with FileZilla (81,952 bytes to be exact), the transfer will stop, and the FTP client hangs until time out is reached. FTP client console: 15:10:21 Command: STOR jquery-1.7.2.min.js 15:10:21 Response: 150 Ok to send data. 15:11:21 Error: Connection timed out 15:11:21 Error: File transfer failed after transferring 82 KB in 60 seconds /var/log/vsftpd.log FTP command: Client "x.x.x.x", "STOR jquery-1.7.2.min.js" FTP response: Client "x.x.x.x", "150 Ok to send data." OK UPLOAD: Client "x.x.x.x", "jquery-1.7.2.min.js", 81952 bytes, 1.32Kbyte/sec FTP response: Client "x.x.x.x", "226 File receive OK." // NOT okay, file is bigger // No mention of error here I cannot find relevant info about this problem, apart from a possible problem with trans_chunk_size (not mentioned in default config), but I tried different sizes and it has no impact on the problem. trans_chunk_size=4096 trans_chunk_size=8192 trans_chunk_size=9999 Ofcourse, after every configuration change, I restarted the server: /etc/init.d/vsftpd restart What else can cause this? It's not the latest version, but it's the latest update within the repositories that has been deemed fit for enterprise usage: Package info: $ yum info vsftpd Loaded plugins: fastestmirror Installed Packages Name : vsftpd Arch : x86_64 Version : 2.0.5 Release : 24.el5_8.1 Size : 286 k Repo : installed Summary : vsftpd - Very Secure Ftp Daemon URL : http://vsftpd.beasts.org/ License : GPL Description: vsftpd is a Very Secure FTP daemon. It was written completely from scratch.

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  • Synergy: Cannot send media keys from Linux to Mac

    - by CraftyThumber
    I have a Linux Synergy server (Si-Linux) serving just one Mac client (Macbook Pro UK) (SiBook-Pro.local). On my Linux server I am using a USB Apple keyboard with the exact layout of the laptops keyboard (the compact UK aluminium keyboard). I would like to send the media keys to the Mac client at all times and I have attempted the following in my synergy.conf: keystroke(AudioPlay) = keystroke(AudioPlay,SiBook-Pro.local) This did not seem to work so I ran both the server and client as foreground processes and with debugging enabled and observed the following: Server Log: DEBUG1: activate actions DEBUG1: hotkey: keyDown(AudioPlay,SiBook-Pro.local) DEBUG1: onKeyDown id=57523 mask=0x0000 button=0x0000 DEBUG1: send key down to "SiBook-Pro.local" id=57523, mask=0x0000, button=0x0000 DEBUG1: deactivate actions DEBUG1: hotkey: keyUp(AudioPlay,SiBook-Pro.local) DEBUG1: onKeyUp id=57523 mask=0x0000 button=0x0000 DEBUG1: send key up to "SiBook-Pro.local" id=57523, mask=0x0000, button=0x0000 Client Log: DEBUG1: recv key down id=0x0000e0b3, mask=0x0000, button=0x0000 DEBUG1: mapKey e0b3 (57523) with mask 0000, start state: 0000 DEBUG1: key e0b3 is not on keyboard DEBUG1: recv key up id=0x0000e0b3, mask=0x0000, button=0x0000 DEBUG1: recv enter, 1279,386 5 2000 As you can see, the client claims the key received is not on keyboard. I don't understand since it is the same key as is on the Macbook's keyboard. I tried to reverse the client-server config to see if I could capture the key being sent if I pressed the Play button on the Macbook but the key doesn't seem to even make it to Synergy. Almost all keyboard presses get logged but the media keys seem to bypass the logs and just execute their function locally. E.g. I press play on the Macbook (with the Macbook as the server) and the key plays music on the Macbook and the key is not logged to the debug log.

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  • LDAP SSL connect problem

    - by juergen
    I set up a test domain for my LDAP SSL tests and it is not working. I am using Windows Server 2008 R2 SP 1. I came so far: 1. i generated and installed my self signed certificate on the test domain controller 2. on the server i can log into ldap over SSL with the MS ldp.exe tool. 3. using ldp.exe on a client that is no in this domain the login fails with error 0x51 = "failed to connect". (i don't have a client computer that is in this domain right now) 4. I testet the certificate by using it in the IIS on the test server and I can reach the default page of the test server over SSL. (from the client that is not in the domain) 5. analysing the traffic between client and server I can see that the server is sending a certificate to the client. why isn't this working on my client computer?

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