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• Android pluginable application

  - by Alxandr

  I've been trying to create an android-application the last couple of weeks, and mostly everything has worked out great, but there is one thing that I was wondering about, and that is pluginability trough the use of intents. What I'm trying to create is basically a comic-reader. As of the version I use now, I open the application and get a list of commics that are my favourites, then I enter one to get a detailed view, and finally I enter a page. This is managed trough 3 activities. List, Details and Page. However, as of now the application can only read comics of one source (a specialiced xml-feed comming from my server), and I was hoping to be able to expand this a litle (also, the page-activity and some other stuff needs to be cleaned up in, so I'm thinking about remaking from scratch, and just take the first go as a learning-round). And I came up with an idea which I think sounds great, but I don't know if it's possible, but this is what I'm thinking about: The user enters the application and get an (first time empty) list of comics. The user hits a button to find comics, this launces an intent that says something like "find comic" or something like that. This should cause the system to display all matching activities. This would make it possible to provide different comic-providers trough different applications. Another activity kicks in and might displays some options to the user (for instance a file-browser), or might not (in the example of an xml-feed, which should just load). The list is returned to the first activity and displayed to the user. The second (find) activity is closed. The user picks a comic from the list. This should open some details-activity. The details-activity should receive a key which corresponds to the comic selected. This should be unique amongst the comic-providers. The details-view should get it's data trough some cind of content-provider, or an activity (whichever is most suited, if one of them is). The user can select a page. This should be the same routine as step 5. My question is, is this possible in the android system, and if it is, is it a bad idea? And also, is there any better way to achieve more or less the same thing?

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• Nhibernate: mapping two different properties between the same 2 entities

  - by Carlos Decas

  I have a Class A: public class ClassA { public int ID {get; private set;} public string Code {get; private set;} public ClassB B {get; private set;} public IList<ClassB> ListB {get; private set;} } And a ClassB: public class ClassB { public int ID {get; private set;} public string Code {get; private set;} public ClassA A {get; private set;} //some other attributes... } And the Mappings: public ClassAMap() { Table("ClassA"); Id(classA => classA .ID, "ID").GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(classA => classA.Code, "Code").Unique().Not.Nullable(); //HERE IS THE PROBLEM: -------- References(classA => classA.B,"IDClassB").Cascade.SaveUpdate(); //----- HasMany(classA => classA.ListB).Table("ClassB").KeyColumn("IDClassA").AsBag().Not.LazyLoad().Inverse().Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } ClassB Mappings: public ClassBMap() { Table("ClassB"); Id(classB => classB.ID).GeneratedBy.Identity(); References(classB => classB.A, "IDClassA").ForeignKey("ID").Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } The mappings for ListB in classA worked ok, because at first the was only ListB property and not B, when i had to map B i tried this: References(classA => classA.B,"IDClassB"); The mapping test failed because B wasn't saved, so i did this: References(classA => classA.B,"IDClassB").Cascade.SaveUpdate(); This time B was saved, but by saving B, classA was inserted two times, by A.B and by B.A. How can i solve this problem? Why does it work for the ListB property and not for the B property? Thanks

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• What are the weaknesses of this user authentication method?

  - by byronh

  I'm developing my own PHP framework. It seems all the security articles I have read use vastly different methods for user authentication than I do so I could use some help in finding security holes. Some information that might be useful before I start. I use mod_rewrite for my MVC url's. Passwords are sha1 and md5 encrypted with 24 character salt unique to each user. mysql_real_escape_string and/or variable typecasting on everything going in, and htmlspecialchars on everything coming out. Step-by step process: Top of every page: session_start(); session_regenerate_id(); If user logs in via login form, generate new random token to put in user's MySQL row. Hash is generated based on user's salt (from when they first registered) and the new token. Store the hash and plaintext username in session variables, and duplicate in cookies if 'Remember me' is checked. On every page, check for cookies. If cookies set, copy their values into session variables. Then compare $_SESSION['name'] and $_SESSION['hash'] against MySQL database. Destroy all cookies and session variables if they don't match so they have to log in again. If login is valid, some of the user's information from the MySQL database is stored in an array for easy access. So far, I've assumed that this array is clean so when limiting user access I refer to user.rank and deny access if it's below what's required for that page. I've tried to test all the common attacks like XSS and CSRF, but maybe I'm just not good enough at hacking my own site! My system seems way too simple for it to actually be secure (the security code is only 100 lines long). What am I missing? I've also spent alot of time searching for the vulnerabilities with mysql_real_escape string but I haven't found any information that is up-to-date (everything is from several years ago at least and has apparently been fixed). All I know is that the problem was something to do with encoding. If that problem still exists today, how can I avoid it? Any help will be much appreciated.

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• Symfony : ajax call cause server to queue next queries

  - by Remiz

  Hello, I've a problem with my application when an ajax call on the server takes too much time : it queue all the others queries from the user until it's done server side (I realized that canceling the call client side has no effect and the user still have to wait). Here is my test case : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="another-page.php">Go to another page on the same server</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = 'http://localserver/some-very-long-complex-query'; $.get(url); </script> So when the get is fired and then after I click on the link, the server finish serving the first call before bringing me to the other page. My problem is that I want to avoid this behavior. I'm on a LAMP server and I'm looking in a way to inform the server that the user aborted the query with function like connection_aborted(), do you think that's the way to go ? Also, I know that the longest part of this PHP script is a MySQL query, so even if I know that connection_aborted() can detect that the user cancel the call, I still need to check this during the MySQL query... I'm not really sure that PHP can handle this kind of "event". So if you have any better idea, I can't wait to hear it. Thank you. Update : After further investigation, I found that the problem happen only with the Symfony framework (that I omitted to precise, my bad). It seems that an Ajax call lock any other future call. It maybe related to the controller or the routing system, I'm looking into it. Also for those interested by the problem here is my new test case : -new project with Symfony 1.4.3, default configuration, I just created an app and a default module. -jquery 1.4 for the ajax query. Here is my actions.class.php (in my unique module) : class defaultActions extends sfActions { public function executeIndex(sfWebRequest $request) { //Do nothing } public function executeNewpage() { //Do also nothing } public function executeWaitingaction(){ // Wait sleep(30); return false; } } Here is my indexSuccess.php template file : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="<?php echo url_for('default/newpage');?>">Go to another symfony action</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = '<?php echo url_for('default/waitingaction');?>'; $.get(url); </script> For the new page template, it's not very relevant... But with this, I'm able to reproduce the lock problem I've on my real application. Is somebody else having the same issue ? Thanks.

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• How do I classify using SVM Classifier?

  - by Gomathi

  I'm doing a project in liver tumor classification. Actually I initially used Region Growing method for liver segmentation and from that I segmented tumor using FCM. I,then, obtained the texture features using Gray Level Co-occurence Matrix. My output for that was stats = autoc: [1.857855266614132e+000 1.857955341199538e+000] contr: [5.103143332457753e-002 5.030548650257343e-002] corrm: [9.512661919561399e-001 9.519459060378332e-001] corrp: [9.512661919561385e-001 9.519459060378338e-001] cprom: [7.885631654779597e+001 7.905268525471267e+001] Now how should I give this as an input to the SVM program. function [itr] = multisvm( T,C,tst ) %MULTISVM(2.0) classifies the class of given training vector according to the % given group and gives us result that which class it belongs. % We have also to input the testing matrix %Inputs: T=Training Matrix, C=Group, tst=Testing matrix %Outputs: itr=Resultant class(Group,USE ROW VECTOR MATRIX) to which tst set belongs %----------------------------------------------------------------------% % IMPORTANT: DON'T USE THIS PROGRAM FOR CLASS LESS THAN 3, % % OTHERWISE USE svmtrain,svmclassify DIRECTLY or % % add an else condition also for that case in this program. % % Modify required data to use Kernel Functions and Plot also% %----------------------------------------------------------------------% % Date:11-08-2011(DD-MM-YYYY) % % This function for multiclass Support Vector Machine is written by % ANAND MISHRA (Machine Vision Lab. CEERI, Pilani, India) % and this is free to use. email: [email protected] % Updated version 2.0 Date:14-10-2011(DD-MM-YYYY) u=unique(C); N=length(u); c4=[]; c3=[]; j=1; k=1; if(N>2) itr=1; classes=0; cond=max(C)-min(C); while((classes~=1)&&(itr<=length(u))&& size(C,2)>1 && cond>0) %This while loop is the multiclass SVM Trick c1=(C==u(itr)); newClass=c1; svmStruct = svmtrain(T,newClass); classes = svmclassify(svmStruct,tst); % This is the loop for Reduction of Training Set for i=1:size(newClass,2) if newClass(1,i)==0; c3(k,:)=T(i,:); k=k+1; end end T=c3; c3=[]; k=1; % This is the loop for reduction of group for i=1:size(newClass,2) if newClass(1,i)==0; c4(1,j)=C(1,i); j=j+1; end end C=c4; c4=[]; j=1; cond=max(C)-min(C); % Condition for avoiding group %to contain similar type of values %and the reduce them to process % This condition can select the particular value of iteration % base on classes if classes~=1 itr=itr+1; end end end end Kindly guide me. Images:

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• Mysterious constraints problem with SQL Server 2000

  - by Ramon

  Hi all I'm getting the following error from a VB NET web application written in VS 2003, on framework 1.1. The web app is running on Windows Server 2000, IIS 5, and is reading from a SQL server 2000 database running on the same machine. System.Data.ConstraintException: Failed to enable constraints. One or more rows contain values violating non-null, unique, or foreign-key constraints. at System.Data.DataSet.FailedEnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.EnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.set_EnforceConstraints(Boolean value) at System.Data.DataTable.EndLoadData() at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromReader(Object data, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromCommand(Object data, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet) The problem appears when the web app is under a high load. The system runs fine when volume is low, but when the number of requests becomes high, the system starts rejecting incoming requests with the above exception message. Once the problem appears, very few requests actually make it through and get processed normally, about 2 in every 30. The vast majority of requests fail, until a SQL Server restart or IIS reset is performed. The system then start processing requests normally, and after some time it starts throwing the same error. The error occurs when a data adapter runs the Fill() method against a SELECT statement, to populate a strongly-typed dataset. It appears that the dataset does not like the data it is given and throws this exception. This error occurs on various SELECT statements, acting on different tables. I have regenerated the dataset and checked the relevant constraints, as well as the table from which the data is read. Both the dataset definition and the data in the table are fine. Admittedly, the hardware running both the web app and SQL Server 2000 is seriously outdated, considering the numbers of incoming requests it currently receives. The amount of RAM consumed by SQL Server is dynamically allocated, and at peak times SQL Server can consume up to 2.8 GB out of a total of 3.5 GB on the server. At first I suspected some sort of index or database corruption, but after running DBCC CHECKDB, no errors were found in the database. So now I'm wondering whether this error is a result of the hardware limitations of the system. Is it possible for SQL Server to somehow mess up the data it's supposed to pass to the dataset, resulting in constraint violation due to, say, data type/length mismatch? I tried accessing the RowError messages of the data rows in the retrieved dataset tables but I kept getting empty strings. I know that HasErrors = true for the datatables in question. I have not set the EnableConstraints = false, and I don't want to do that. Thanks in advance. Ray

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• how to create a system-wide independent universal counter object primarily for Database keys?

  - by andora

  I would like to create/use a system-wide independent universal 'counter object' that can be called via COM in a thread-safe manner. The counter object will be passed an ID to identify which counter to return, handle the counting, 'persist' the count (occasionally), have reasonable performance (as fast as possible) perhaps capable of 1000 counts per second or better (1mS) and be accessible cross-process/out-of-process. The current count status must be persisted between object restarts/shutdowns. The counter object is liklely to be a 'singleton' type object implemented in some form of free-threaded dictionary, containing maybe 10 counters (perhaps 50 max). The count needs to be monotonic and consistent, (ie: guaranteed unique sequential values). Each counter should have a few methods, like reset, inc, dec, set, clear, remove. As a luxury, I would like to have a variable-increment (ie: 'step by' value). To support thread-safefty, perhaps some sorm of critical-section or mutex call. It just needs to return a long/4byte signed integer. I really want something that can be called from anywhere, including VBScript, so I figure COM is my preferred solution. The primary use of this is for database keys. I am unable to use autoinc or guid type keys and have ruled out database-generated counting systems at this point. I've spent days researching this and I have really struggled to find a solution. The best I can find is a free-threaded dictionary object that can be instantiated using COM+ from Motobit - it seems to offer all the 'basics' and I guess I could create some form of wrapper for this. So, here are my questions: Does such a 'general purpose counter-object already exist? Can you direct me to it? (MS did do an IIS/ASP object called 'MSWC.Counter' but this isn't 'cross-process'/ out-of-process component and isn't thread-safe. (but if it was, it would do!) What is the best way of creating such a Component? (I'd prefer VB6 right-now, [don't ask!] but can do in VB.NET2005 if I had to). I don't have the skills/knowledge/tools to use anything else. I am desparate for a workable solution. I need specific guidance! If anybody can code something up for me I am prepared to pay for it.

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• Modular GWT design concerns

  - by GlGuru

  Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

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• NHibernate Many to Many delete all my data in the table

  - by Daoming Yang

  I would love to thank @Stefan Steinegger and @David helped me out yesterday with many-to-many mapping. I have 3 tables which are "News", "Tags" and "News_Tags" with Many-To-Many relationship and the "News_Tags" is the link table. If I delete one of the news records, the following mappings will delete all my news records which have the same tags. One thing I need to notice, I only allowed unique tag stored in the "Tag" table. This mapping make sense for me, it will delete the tag and related News records, but how can I implement a tagging system with NHibernate? Can anyone give me some suggestion? Many thanks. Daoming. News Mapping: <class name="New" table="News" lazy="false"> <id name="NewID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Title" type="String"></property> <property name="Description" type="String"></property> <set name="TagsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" inverse="true" cascade="all"> <key column="NewID" /> <many-to-many class="Tag" column="TagID" /> </set> </class> Tag Mapping: <class name="Tag" table="Tags" lazy="false"> <id name="TagID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="TagName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> <!--inverse="true" has been defined in the "News mapping"--> <set name="NewsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" cascade="all"> <key column="TagID" /> <many-to-many class="New" column="NewID" /> </set> </class>

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• How To Load Images into Custom UITableViewCell?

  - by Clifton Burt

  This problem is simple, but crucial and urgent. Here's what needs to be done: load 66px x 66px images into the table cells in the MainViewController table. each TableCell has a unique image. But how? Would we use cell.image?... cell.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"image.png"]; If so, where? Is an if/else statement required? Help? Here's the project code, hosted on Google Code, for easy and quick reference... http://www.google.com/codesearch/p?hl=en#Fcn2OtVUXnY/trunk/apple-sample-code/NavBar/NavBar/MyCustomCell.m&q=MyCustomCell%20lang:objectivec To load each cell's labels, MainViewController uses an NSDictionary and NSLocalizedString like so... //cell one menuList addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneTitle", @""), kTitleKey, NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneExplain", @""), kExplainKey, nil]]; //cell two menuList addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneTitle", @""), kTitleKey, NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneExplain", @""), kExplainKey, nil]]; ... // this is where MainViewController loads the cell content - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { MyCustomCell *cell = (MyCustomCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:kCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[MyCustomCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:kCellIdentifier] autorelease]; } ... // MyCustomCell.m adds the subviews - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)aRect reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)identifier { self = [super initWithFrame:aRect reuseIdentifier:identifier]; if (self) { // you can do this here specifically or at the table level for all cells self.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; // Create label views to contain the various pieces of text that make up the cell. // Add these as subviews. nameLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // layoutSubViews will decide the final frame nameLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; nameLabel.opaque = NO; nameLabel.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; nameLabel.highlightedTextColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; nameLabel.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:18]; [self.contentView addSubview:nameLabel]; explainLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // layoutSubViews will decide the final frame explainLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; explainLabel.opaque = NO; explainLabel.textColor = [UIColor grayColor]; explainLabel.highlightedTextColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; explainLabel.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:14]; [self.contentView addSubview:explainLabel]; //added to mark where the thumbnail image should go imageView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 66, 66)]; [self.contentView addSubview:imageView]; } return self; } HELP?

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• Normalizing Item Names & Synonyms

  - by RabidFire

  Consider an e-commerce application with multiple stores. Each store owner can edit the item catalog of his store. My current database schema is as follows: item_names: id | name | description | picture | common(BOOL) items: id | item_name_id | picture | price | description | picture item_synonyms: id | item_name_id | name | error(BOOL) Notes: error indicates a wrong spelling (eg. "Ericson"). description and picture of the item_names table are "globals" that can optionally be overridden by "local" description and picture fields of the items table (in case the store owner wants to supply a different picture for an item). common helps separate unique item names ("Jimmy Joe's Cheese Pizza" from "Cheese Pizza") I think the bright side of this schema is: Optimized searching & Handling Synonyms: I can query the item_names & item_synonyms tables using name LIKE %QUERY% and obtain the list of item_name_ids that need to be joined with the items table. (Examples of synonyms: "Sony Ericsson", "Sony Ericson", "X10", "X 10") Autocompletion: Again, a simple query to the item_names table. I can avoid the usage of DISTINCT and it minimizes number of variations ("Sony Ericsson Xperia™ X10", "Sony Ericsson - Xperia X10", "Xperia X10, Sony Ericsson") The down side would be: Overhead: When inserting an item, I query item_names to see if this name already exists. If not, I create a new entry. When deleting an item, I count the number of entries with the same name. If this is the only item with that name, I delete the entry from the item_names table (just to keep things clean; accounts for possible erroneous submissions). And updating is the combination of both. Weird Item Names: Store owners sometimes use sentences like "Harry Potter 1, 2 Books + CDs + Magic Hat". There's something off about having so much overhead to accommodate cases like this. This would perhaps be the prime reason I'm tempted to go for a schema like this: items: id | name | picture | price | description | picture (... with item_names and item_synonyms as utility tables that I could query) Is there a better schema you would suggested? Should item names be normalized for autocomplete? Is this probably what Facebook does for "School", "City" entries? Is the first schema or the second better/optimal for search? Thanks in advance! References: (1) Is normalizing a person's name going too far?, (2) Avoiding DISTINCT

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• Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

  - by Shane N

  I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

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• How to parse an XML string in TDI

  - by ongle

  I am new to TDI. I have a TDI assembly line that calls a web service (ibmdi.InvokeSoapWS) which returns the result as a string in the work attribute 'xmlString'. I then have an AttributeMap that attempts to parse the xml and extract a value (the node it seeks is a few nodes deep). var parser = system.getParser('ibmdi.SOAP'); var xmlString = work.getString('xmlString'); var entity = parser.parseRequest(xmlString); task.dump(entity); The trouble is, the parsed object does not contain an accurate representation of the XML. It contains only two attributes, the first is correctly the first node following the soap body (e.g., ns0:SomeNodeReply), the second being a node inside the first (e.g., ns0:DetailCount). And as far as I can determine, both attributes are just strings so I cannot recurse into the object graph. Below is a sample soap reply: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns0:SomeNodeReply xmlns:ns0="http://xmlns.example.com/unique/default/namespace/1136581686664"> <ns0:Status> <ns0:StatusCD>000</ns0:StatusCD> <ns0:StatusDesc /> </ns0:Status> <ns0:DetailCount>1</ns0:DetailCount> <ns0:SomeDetail> <ns0:CodeA>Foo</ns0:CodeA> <ns0:CodeB>Bar</ns0:CodeB> </ns0:SomeDetail> </ns0:SomeNodeReply> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> And below is a sample dump of the parsed string: 19:03:23 CTGDIS003I *** Start dumping Entry 19:03:23 Operation: generic 19:03:23 Entry attributes: 19:03:23 SOAP_CALL (replace): 'ns0:SomeNodeReply' 19:03:23 ns0:DetailCount(replace): '1' 19:03:23 CTGDIS004I *** Finished dumping Entry All I really need to do is be able to parse out a value that may or may not be there, depending on the value of another node (e.g., DetailCount == 1, get CodeA otherwise return empty string). I am open to changing anything about how this works if I can extract the data into the work Entry.

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• What to name 2 methods with same signatures

  - by coffeeaddict

  Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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• JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

  - by tlind

  The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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• Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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• What is causing this SQL 2005 Primary Key Deadlock between two real-time bulk upserts?

  - by skimania

  Here's the scenario: I've got a table called MarketDataCurrent (MDC) that has live updating stock prices. I've got one process called 'LiveFeed' which reads prices streaming from the wire, queues up inserts, and uses a 'bulk upload to temp table then insert/update to MDC table.' (BulkUpsert) I've got another process which then reads this data, computes other data, and then saves the results back into the same table, using a similar BulkUpsert stored proc. Thirdly, there are a multitude of users running a C# Gui polling the MDC table and reading updates from it. Now, during the day when the data is changing rapidly, things run pretty smoothly, but then, after market hours, we've recently started seeing an increasing number of Deadlock exceptions coming out of the database, nowadays we see 10-20 a day. The imporant thing to note here is that these happen when the values are NOT changing. Here's all the relevant info: Table Def: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent]( [MDID] [int] NOT NULL, [LastUpdate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [Value] [float] NOT NULL, [Source] [varchar](20) NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MarketDataCurrent] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [MDID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] - stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][1] [1]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4049/4690759452_6b94ff7b34.jpg I've got a Sql Profiler Trace Running, catching the deadlocks, and here's what all the graphs look like. stackoverflow wont let me post images until my reputation goes up to 10, so i'll add them as soon as you bump me up, hopefully as a result of this question. ![alt text][2] [2]: http://farm5.static.flickr.com/4035/4690125231_78d84c9e15_b.jpg Process 258 is called the following 'BulkUpsert' stored proc, repeatedly, while 73 is calling the next one: ALTER proc [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_BulkUpload] @updateTime datetime, @source varchar(10) as begin transaction update c with (rowlock) set LastUpdate = getdate(), Value = t.Value, Source = @source from MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #MDTUP t ON c.MDID = t.mdid where c.lastUpdate < @updateTime and c.mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') and c.value <> t.value insert into MarketDataCurrent with (rowlock) select MDID, getdate(), Value, @source from #MDTUP where mdid not in (select mdid from MarketDataCurrent with (nolock)) and mdid not in (select mdid from MarketData where LiveFeedTicker is not null and PriceSource like 'LiveFeed.%') commit And the other one: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MarketDataCurrent_LiveFeedUpload] AS begin transaction -- Update existing mdid UPDATE c WITH (ROWLOCK) SET LastUpdate = t.LastUpdate, Value = t.Value, Source = t.Source FROM MarketDataCurrent c INNER JOIN #TEMPTABLE2 t ON c.MDID = t.mdid; -- Insert new MDID INSERT INTO MarketDataCurrent with (ROWLOCK) SELECT * FROM #TEMPTABLE2 WHERE MDID NOT IN (SELECT MDID FROM MarketDataCurrent with (NOLOCK)) -- Clean up the temp table DELETE #TEMPTABLE2 commit To clarify, those Temp Tables are being created by the C# code on the same connection and are populated using the C# SqlBulkCopy class. To me it looks like it's deadlocking on the PK of the table, so I tried removing that PK and switching to a Unique Constraint instead but that increased the number of deadlocks 10-fold. I'm totally lost as to what to do about this situation and am open to just about any suggestion. HELP!!

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• Patterns: Local Singleton vs. Global Singleton?

  - by Mike Rosenblum

  There is a pattern that I use from time to time, but I'm not quite sure what it is called. I was hoping that the SO community could help me out. The pattern is pretty simple, and consists of two parts: A singleton factory, which creates objects based on the arguments passed to the factory method. Objects created by the factory. So far this is just a standard "singleton" pattern or "factory pattern". The issue that I'm asking about, however, is that the singleton factory in this case maintains a set of references to every object that it ever creates, held within a dictionary. These references can sometimes be strong references and sometimes weak references, but it can always reference any object that it has ever created. When receiving a request for a "new" object, the factory first searches the dictionary to see if an object with the required arguments already exits. If it does, it returns that object, if not, it returns a new object and also stores a reference to the new object within the dictionary. This pattern prevents having duplicative objects representing the same underlying "thing". This is useful where the created objects are relatively expensive. It can also be useful where these objects perform event handling or messaging - having one object per item being represented can prevent multiple messages/events for a single underlying source. There are probably other reasons to use this pattern, but this is where I've found this useful. My question is: what to call this? In a sense, each object is a singleton, at least with respect to the data it contains. Each is unique. But there are multiple instances of this class, however, so it's not at all a true singleton. In my own personal terminology, I tend to call the factory method a "global singleton". I then call the created objects "local singletons". I sometimes also say that the created objects have "reference equality", meaning that if two variables reference the same data (the same underlying item) then the reference they each hold must be to the same exact object, hence "reference equality". But these are my own invented terms, and I am not sure that they are good ones. Is there standard terminology for this concept? And if not, could some naming suggestions be made? Thanks in advance...

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• how to refactor user-permission system?

  - by John

  Sorry for lengthy question. I can't tell if this should be a programming question or a project management question. Any advice will help. I inherited a reasonably large web project (1 year old) from a solo freelancer who architected it then abandoned it. The project was a mess, but I cleaned up what I could, and now the system is more maintainable. I need suggestions on how to extend the user-permission system. As it is now, the database has a t_user table with the column t_user.membership_type. Currently, there are 4 membership types with the following properties: 3 of the membership types are almost functionally the same, except for the different monthly fees each must pay 1 of the membership type is a "fake-user" type which has limited access ( different business logic also applies) With regards to the fake-user type, if you look in the system's business logic files, you will see a lot of hard-coded IF statements that do something like if (fake-user) { // do something } else { // a paid member of type 1,2 or 3 // proceed normally } My client asked me to add 3 more membership types to the system, each of them with unique features to be implemented this month, and substantive "to-be-determined" features next month. My first reaction is that I need to refactor the user-permission system. But it concerns me that I don't have enough information on the "to-be-determined" membership type features for next month. Refactoring the user-permission system will take a substantive amount of time. I don't want to refactor something and throw it out the following month. I get substantive feature requests on a monthly basis that come out of the blue. There is no project road map. I've asked my client to provide me with a roadmap of what they intend to do with the new membership types, but their answer is along the lines of "We just want to do [feature here] this month. We'll think of something new next month." So questions that come to mind are: 1) Is it dangerous for me to refactor the user permission system not knowing what membership type features exist beyond a month from now? 2) Should I refactor the user permission system regardless? Or just continue adding IF statements as needed in all my controller files? Or can you recommend a different approach to user permission systems? Maybe role-based ? 3) Should this project have a road map? For a 1 year old project like mine, how far into the future should this roadmap project? 4) Any general advice on the best way to add 3 new membership types?

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• IOC/Autofac problem

  - by Krazzy

  I am currently using Autofac, but am open to commentary regarding other IOC containers as well. I would prefer a solution using Autofac if possible. I am also somewhat new to IOC so I may be grossly misunderstanding what I should be using an IOC container for. Basically, the situation is as follows: I have a topmost IOC container for my app. I have a tree of child containers/scopes where I would like the same "service" (IWhatever) to resolve differently depending on which level in the tree it is resolved. Furthermore if a service is not registered at some level in the tree I would like the tree to be transversed upward until a suitable implementation is found. Furthermore, when constructing a given component, it is quite possible that I will need access to the parent container/scope. In many cases the component that I'm registering will have a dependency on the same or a different service in a parent scope. Is there any way to express this dependency with Autofac? Something like: builder.Register(c=> { var parentComponent = ?.Resolve<ISomeService>(); var childComponent = new ConcreteService(parentComponent, args...); return childComponent; }).As<ISomeService>(); I can't get anything similar to the above pseudocode to work for serveral reasons: A) It seems that all levels in the scope tree share a common set of registrations. I can't seem to find a way to make a given registration confined a certain "scope". B) I can't seem to find a way to get a hold of the parent scope of a given scope. I CAN resolve ILifetimeScope in the container and then case it to a concrete LifetimeScope instance which provides its parent scope, but I'm guessing it is probably note meant to be used this way. Is this safe? C) I'm not sure how to tell Autofac which container owns the resolved object. For many components I would like component to be "owned" by the scope in which it is constructed. Could tagged contexts help me here? Would I have to tag every level of the tree with a unique tag? This would be difficult because the tree depth is determined at runtime. Sorry for the extremely lengthy question. In summary: 1) Is there any way to do what I want to do using Autofac? 2) Is there another container more suited to this kind of dependency structure? 3) Is IOC the wrong tool for this altogether?

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• Change the Session Variable Output

  - by user567230

  Hello I am using Dreamweaver CS5 with Coldfusion 9 to build a dynamic website. I have a MS Access Database that stores login information which includes ID, FullName, FirstName, LastName, Username, Pawword, AcessLevels. My question is this: I currently have session variable to track the Username when it is entered into the login page. However I would like to use that Username to pull the User's FullName to display throughout the web pages and use for querying data. How do I change the session variable to read that when they are not entering their FullName on the login page but only Username and password. I have listed my login information code below if there is any additional information needed please let me know. This is the path for which the FullName values reside DataSource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" I want the FullName to be unique based on the Username submitted from the Login page. I apologize in advance for any rookie mistake I may have made I am new to this but learning fast! Ha. <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess="members_page.cfm"> <cfset MM_redirectLoginFailed="sorry.cfm"> <cfquery name="MM_rsUser" datasource="Access"> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.username#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> AND Password=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.password#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> </cfquery> <cfif MM_rsUser.RecordCount NEQ 0> <cftry> <cflock scope="Session" timeout="30" type="Exclusive"> <cfset Session.MM_Username=FORM.username> <cfset Session.MM_UserAuthorization=MM_rsUser.AccessLevels[1]> </cflock> <cfif IsDefined("URL.accessdenied") AND false> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess=URL.accessdenied> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginSuccess#" addtoken="no"> <cfcatch type="Lock"> <!--- code for handling timeout of cflock ---> </cfcatch> </cftry> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginFailed#" addtoken="no"> <cfelse> <cfset MM_LoginAction=CGI.SCRIPT_NAME> <cfif CGI.QUERY_STRING NEQ ""> <cfset MM_LoginAction=MM_LoginAction & "?" & XMLFormat(CGI.QUERY_STRING)> </cfif> </cfif>

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• asp:Button is not calling server-side function

  - by Richard Neil Ilagan

  Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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• Several client waiting for the same event

  - by ff8mania

  I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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• PHP running as a FastCGI application (php-cgi) - how to issue concurrent requests?

  - by Sbm007

  Some background information: I'm writing my own webserver in Java and a couple of days ago I asked on SO how exactly Apache interfaces with PHP, so I can implement PHP support. I learnt that FastCGI is the best approach (since mod_php is not an option). So I have looked at the FastCGI protocol specification and have managed to write a working FastCGI wrapper for my server. I have tested phpinfo() and it works, in fact all PHP functions seem to work just fine (posting data, sessions, date/time, etc etc). My webserver is able to serve requests concurrently (ie user1 can retrieve file1.html at the same time as user2 requesting some_large_binary_file.zip), it does this by spawning a new Java thread for each user request (terminating when completed or user connection with client is cancelled). However, it cannot deal with 2 (or more) FastCGI requests at the same time. What it does is, it queues them up, so when request 1 is completed immediately thereafter it starts processing request 2. I tested this with 2 PHP pages, one contains sleep(10) and the other phpinfo(). How would I go about dealing with multiple requests as I know it can be done (PHP under IIS runs as FastCGI and it can deal with multiple requests just fine). Some more info: I am coding under windows and my batch file used to execute php-cgi.exe contains: set PHP_FCGI_CHILDREN=8 set PHP_FCGI_MAX_REQUESTS=500 php-cgi.exe -b 9000 But it does not spawn 8 children, the service simply terminates after 500 requests. I have done research and from Wikipedia: Processing of multiple requests simultaneously is achieved either by using a single connection with internal multiplexing (ie. multiple requests over a single connection) and/or by using multiple connections Now clearly the multiple connections isn't working for me, as everytime a client requests something that involves FastCGI it creates a new socket to the FastCGI application, but it does not work concurrently (it queues them up instead). I know that internal multiplexing of FastCGI requests under the same connection is accomplished by issuing each unique FastCGI request with a different request ID. (also see the last 3 paragraphs of 'The Communication Protocol' heading in this article). I have not tested this, but how would I go about implementing that? I take it I need some kind of FastCGI Java thread which contains a Map of some sort and a static function which I can use to add requests to. Then in the Thread's run() function it would have a while loop and for every cycle it would check whether the Map contains new requests, if so it would assign them a request ID and write them to the FastCGI stream. And then wait for input etc etc, As you can see this becomes too complicated. Does anyone know the correct way of doing this? Or any thoughts at all? Thanks very much. Note, if required I can supply the code for my FastCGI wrapper.

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• small scale web site - global javascript file style/format/pattern - improving maintainability

  - by yaya3

  I frequently create (and inherit) small to medium websites where I have the following sort of code in a single file (normally named global.js or application.js or projectname.js). If functions get big, I normally put them in a seperate file, and call them at the bottom of the file below in the $(document).ready() section. If I have a few functions that are unique to certain pages, I normally have another switch statement for the body class inside the $(document).ready() section. How could I restructure this code to make it more maintainable? Note: I am less interested in the functions innards, more so the structure, and how different types of functions should be dealt with. I've also posted the code here - http://pastie.org/999932 in case it makes it any easier var ProjectNameEnvironment = {}; function someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable () { $('.foo').hide(); $('.bar').click(function(){ $('.foo').show(); }); } function functionThatIsWorthMakingConfigurable(config) { var foo = config.foo || 700; var bar = 200; return foo * bar; } function globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger (tooltip_string) { var tooltipTrigger = $(tooltip_string); tooltipTrigger.tooltip({ showURL: false ... }); } function minorUtilityOneLiner (selector) { $(selector).find('li:even').not('li ul li').addClass('even'); } var Lightbox = {}; Lightbox.setup = function(){ $('li#foo a').attr('href','#alpha'); $('li#bar a').attr('href','#beta'); } Lightbox.init = function (config){ if (typeof $.fn.fancybox =='function') { Lightbox.setup(); var fade_in_speed = config.fade_in_speed || 1000; var frame_height = config.frame_height || 1700; $(config.selector).fancybox({ frameHeight : frame_height, callbackOnShow: function() { var content_to_load = config.content_to_load; ... }, callbackOnClose : function(){ $('body').height($('body').height()); } }); } else { if (ProjectNameEnvironment.debug) { alert('the fancybox plugin has not been loaded'); } } } // ---------- order of execution ----------- $(document).ready(function () { urls = urlConfig(); (function globalFunctions() { $('.tooltip-trigger').each(function(){ globallyRequiredJqueryPluginTrigger(this); }); minorUtilityOneLiner('ul.foo') Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#a-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); Lightbox.init({ selector : 'a#another-lightbox-trigger-js', ... }); })(); if ( $('body').attr('id') == 'home-page' ) { (function homeFunctions() { someFunctionUniqueToTheHomepageNotWorthMakingConfigurable (); })(); } });

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