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• Mysterious constraints problem with SQL Server 2000

  - by Ramon

  Hi all I'm getting the following error from a VB NET web application written in VS 2003, on framework 1.1. The web app is running on Windows Server 2000, IIS 5, and is reading from a SQL server 2000 database running on the same machine. System.Data.ConstraintException: Failed to enable constraints. One or more rows contain values violating non-null, unique, or foreign-key constraints. at System.Data.DataSet.FailedEnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.EnableConstraints() at System.Data.DataSet.set_EnforceConstraints(Boolean value) at System.Data.DataTable.EndLoadData() at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromReader(Object data, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillFromCommand(Object data, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet) The problem appears when the web app is under a high load. The system runs fine when volume is low, but when the number of requests becomes high, the system starts rejecting incoming requests with the above exception message. Once the problem appears, very few requests actually make it through and get processed normally, about 2 in every 30. The vast majority of requests fail, until a SQL Server restart or IIS reset is performed. The system then start processing requests normally, and after some time it starts throwing the same error. The error occurs when a data adapter runs the Fill() method against a SELECT statement, to populate a strongly-typed dataset. It appears that the dataset does not like the data it is given and throws this exception. This error occurs on various SELECT statements, acting on different tables. I have regenerated the dataset and checked the relevant constraints, as well as the table from which the data is read. Both the dataset definition and the data in the table are fine. Admittedly, the hardware running both the web app and SQL Server 2000 is seriously outdated, considering the numbers of incoming requests it currently receives. The amount of RAM consumed by SQL Server is dynamically allocated, and at peak times SQL Server can consume up to 2.8 GB out of a total of 3.5 GB on the server. At first I suspected some sort of index or database corruption, but after running DBCC CHECKDB, no errors were found in the database. So now I'm wondering whether this error is a result of the hardware limitations of the system. Is it possible for SQL Server to somehow mess up the data it's supposed to pass to the dataset, resulting in constraint violation due to, say, data type/length mismatch? I tried accessing the RowError messages of the data rows in the retrieved dataset tables but I kept getting empty strings. I know that HasErrors = true for the datatables in question. I have not set the EnableConstraints = false, and I don't want to do that. Thanks in advance. Ray

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• JSF 2.0: Preserving component state across multiple views

  - by tlind

  The web application I am developing using MyFaces 2.0.3 / PrimeFaces 2.2RC2 is divided into a content and a navigation area. In the navigation area, which is included into multiple pages using templating (i.e. <ui:define>), there are some widgets (e.g. a navigation tree, collapsible panels etc.) of which I want to preserve the component state across views. For example, let's say I am on the home page. When I navigate to a product details page by clicking on a product in the navigation tree, my Java code triggers a redirect using navigationHandler.handleNavigation(context, null, "/detailspage.jsf?faces-redirect=true") Another way of getting to that details page would be by directly clicking on a product teaser that is shown on the home page. The corresponding <h:link> would lead us to the details page. In both cases, the expansion state of my navigation tree (a PrimeFaces tree component) and my collapsible panels is lost. I understand this is because the redirect / h:link results in the creation of a new view. What is the best way of dealing with this? I am already using MyFaces Orchestra in my project along with its conversation scope, but I am not sure if this is of any help here (since I'd have to bind the expansion/collapsed state of the widgets to a backing bean... but as far as I know, this is not possible). Is there a way of telling JSF which component states to propagate to the next view, assuming that the same component exists in that view? I guess I could need a pointer into the right direction here. Thanks! Update 1: I just tried binding the panels and the tree to a session-scoped bean, but this seems to have no effect. Also, I guess I would have to bind all child components (if any) manually, so this doesn't seem like the way to go. Update 2: Binding UI components to non-request scoped beans is not a good idea (see link I posted in a comment below). If there is no easier approach, I might have to proceed as follows: When a panel is collapsed or the tree is expanded, save the current state in a session-scoped backing bean (!= the UI component itself) The components' states are stored in a map. The map key is the component's (hopefully) unique, relative ID. I cannot use the whole absolute component path here, since the IDs of the parent naming containers might change if the view changes, assuming these IDs are generated programmatically. As soon as a new view gets constructed, retrieve the components' states from the map and apply them to the components. For example, in case of the panels, I can set the collapsed attribute to a value retrieved from my session-scoped backing bean.

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• Sort/Group XML data with PHP?

  - by Volmar

  I'm trying to make a page using data from the discogs.com (XML)-API. i've been parsing it with simpleXML and it's working pretty well but there is some things i'm not sure how to do. Here is part of the XML: <releases> <release id="1468764" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>Versions</title> <format>12", EP</format> <label>Not On Label</label> <year>1999</year> </release> <release id="72246" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>The M.O.F Blend</title> <format>LP</format> <label>Blenda Records</label> <year>2002</year> </release> <release id="890064" status="Accepted" type="Main"> <title>The M.O.F Blend</title> <format>CD</format> <label>Blenda Records</label> <year>2002</year> </release> <release id="1563561" status="Accepted" type="TrackAppearance"> <title>Ännu En Gång Vol. 3</title> <trackinfo>Backtrack</trackinfo> <format>Cass, Comp, Mix</format> <label>Hemmalaget</label> <year>2001</year> </release> </releases> What i want to achieve is something similair to how discogs presents the releases: http://www.discogs.com/artist/Mics+Of+Fury where diferent versions of the same release are sorted together. (see. The M.O.F Blend in my link) This is done on discogs with having a master release that features the other releases. unfortunately this information isn't present in the API data, so i want to do the same thing by grouping the <release>-nodes with the same <title>-tags, or add a flag to the <releases> that don't have a unique <title>? any good ideas on the best way of doing this? i also like to know if it's possible to count the <release>-nodes (child of releases) that have the same type-attribute? like in this example count the releases with the type "Main"? maybe it's better to do this things with XMLReader or XPath?

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• Array within Form collecting multiple values with the same name possible?

  - by JM4

  Good afternoon, I will first start with the goal I am trying to accomplish and then give a very basic sample of what I need to do. Goal Instead of collecting several variables and naming them with keys individually, I have decided to give in and use an array structure to handle all inputs of the same type and rules. Once I have the variables, I will validate against them and if 'ok' store them in a MySQL table. The table will hold consumer information and will need to store multiple rows of the same type of information. First Pass I will leave out the validation portion of this question because I feel I need to first understand the basics. <form action="?" method="POST" name="Form"> Member 1 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 2 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 3 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Continue" /> </form> I am hoping that each input given for First Name (a required field) will generate a unique key for that particular entry and not overwrite any data entered. Because I am carrying information from page to page (checkout form), I am turning the POST variables into SESSION variables then storing in a mysql database in the end. My hope is to have: <?php $conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "username", "password"); mysql_select_db("DBname",$conn); $sql = "INSERT INTO tablename VALUES ('$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member1LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member1Email]', '$_SESSION[Member2FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member2LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member2Email]', '$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member3LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member3Email]')"; $result = mysql_query($sql, $conn) or die(mysql_error()); Header ("Location: completed.php"); ?> Where Member1, Member2, and Member3 values will appear on their own row within the table. I KNOW my code is wrong but I am giving a first shot at the overall business purpose I am trying to achieve and trying to learn how to code the right way. I am very, very new to programming so any 'baby advice' is greatly appreciated.

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• Normalizing Item Names & Synonyms

  - by RabidFire

  Consider an e-commerce application with multiple stores. Each store owner can edit the item catalog of his store. My current database schema is as follows: item_names: id | name | description | picture | common(BOOL) items: id | item_name_id | picture | price | description | picture item_synonyms: id | item_name_id | name | error(BOOL) Notes: error indicates a wrong spelling (eg. "Ericson"). description and picture of the item_names table are "globals" that can optionally be overridden by "local" description and picture fields of the items table (in case the store owner wants to supply a different picture for an item). common helps separate unique item names ("Jimmy Joe's Cheese Pizza" from "Cheese Pizza") I think the bright side of this schema is: Optimized searching & Handling Synonyms: I can query the item_names & item_synonyms tables using name LIKE %QUERY% and obtain the list of item_name_ids that need to be joined with the items table. (Examples of synonyms: "Sony Ericsson", "Sony Ericson", "X10", "X 10") Autocompletion: Again, a simple query to the item_names table. I can avoid the usage of DISTINCT and it minimizes number of variations ("Sony Ericsson Xperia™ X10", "Sony Ericsson - Xperia X10", "Xperia X10, Sony Ericsson") The down side would be: Overhead: When inserting an item, I query item_names to see if this name already exists. If not, I create a new entry. When deleting an item, I count the number of entries with the same name. If this is the only item with that name, I delete the entry from the item_names table (just to keep things clean; accounts for possible erroneous submissions). And updating is the combination of both. Weird Item Names: Store owners sometimes use sentences like "Harry Potter 1, 2 Books + CDs + Magic Hat". There's something off about having so much overhead to accommodate cases like this. This would perhaps be the prime reason I'm tempted to go for a schema like this: items: id | name | picture | price | description | picture (... with item_names and item_synonyms as utility tables that I could query) Is there a better schema you would suggested? Should item names be normalized for autocomplete? Is this probably what Facebook does for "School", "City" entries? Is the first schema or the second better/optimal for search? Thanks in advance! References: (1) Is normalizing a person's name going too far?, (2) Avoiding DISTINCT

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• Nhibernate: mapping two different properties between the same 2 entities

  - by Carlos Decas

  I have a Class A: public class ClassA { public int ID {get; private set;} public string Code {get; private set;} public ClassB B {get; private set;} public IList<ClassB> ListB {get; private set;} } And a ClassB: public class ClassB { public int ID {get; private set;} public string Code {get; private set;} public ClassA A {get; private set;} //some other attributes... } And the Mappings: public ClassAMap() { Table("ClassA"); Id(classA => classA .ID, "ID").GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(classA => classA.Code, "Code").Unique().Not.Nullable(); //HERE IS THE PROBLEM: -------- References(classA => classA.B,"IDClassB").Cascade.SaveUpdate(); //----- HasMany(classA => classA.ListB).Table("ClassB").KeyColumn("IDClassA").AsBag().Not.LazyLoad().Inverse().Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan(); } ClassB Mappings: public ClassBMap() { Table("ClassB"); Id(classB => classB.ID).GeneratedBy.Identity(); References(classB => classB.A, "IDClassA").ForeignKey("ID").Cascade.SaveUpdate(); } The mappings for ListB in classA worked ok, because at first the was only ListB property and not B, when i had to map B i tried this: References(classA => classA.B,"IDClassB"); The mapping test failed because B wasn't saved, so i did this: References(classA => classA.B,"IDClassB").Cascade.SaveUpdate(); This time B was saved, but by saving B, classA was inserted two times, by A.B and by B.A. How can i solve this problem? Why does it work for the ListB property and not for the B property? Thanks

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• What are the weaknesses of this user authentication method?

  - by byronh

  I'm developing my own PHP framework. It seems all the security articles I have read use vastly different methods for user authentication than I do so I could use some help in finding security holes. Some information that might be useful before I start. I use mod_rewrite for my MVC url's. Passwords are sha1 and md5 encrypted with 24 character salt unique to each user. mysql_real_escape_string and/or variable typecasting on everything going in, and htmlspecialchars on everything coming out. Step-by step process: Top of every page: session_start(); session_regenerate_id(); If user logs in via login form, generate new random token to put in user's MySQL row. Hash is generated based on user's salt (from when they first registered) and the new token. Store the hash and plaintext username in session variables, and duplicate in cookies if 'Remember me' is checked. On every page, check for cookies. If cookies set, copy their values into session variables. Then compare $_SESSION['name'] and $_SESSION['hash'] against MySQL database. Destroy all cookies and session variables if they don't match so they have to log in again. If login is valid, some of the user's information from the MySQL database is stored in an array for easy access. So far, I've assumed that this array is clean so when limiting user access I refer to user.rank and deny access if it's below what's required for that page. I've tried to test all the common attacks like XSS and CSRF, but maybe I'm just not good enough at hacking my own site! My system seems way too simple for it to actually be secure (the security code is only 100 lines long). What am I missing? I've also spent alot of time searching for the vulnerabilities with mysql_real_escape string but I haven't found any information that is up-to-date (everything is from several years ago at least and has apparently been fixed). All I know is that the problem was something to do with encoding. If that problem still exists today, how can I avoid it? Any help will be much appreciated.

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• How to Sync CI (Hudson) Activity into an existing automated Build Process (phing, svn)?

  - by maraspin

  OUR CURRENT BUILD PROCESS We're a small team of developers (2 to 4 people depending on project) who currently use Phing to deploy code to a staging environment, before going live. We keep our code in a SVN repo, where the trunk holds current active development and, at certain times, we do make branches that we test and then (if successful), tag and export to the staging env. If everything goes well there too, we finally deploy'em in production servers. Actions are highly automated, but always triggered by human intervention. THE DOUBT We'd now like to introduce Continuous Integration (with Hudson) in the process; unfortunately we have a few doubts about activity syncing, since we're afraid that CI could somewhat interfere with our build process and cause certain problems. Considering that an automated CI cycle has a certain frequency of automatically executed actions, we see 2 possible cases for "integration", each with its own problems: Case A: each CI cycle produces a new branch with its own name; we do use such a name to manually (through phing as it happens now) export the code from the SVN to the staging env. The problem I see here is that (unless specific countermeasures are taken - IE deletion) the number of branches we have can easily grow out of control (let's suppose we commit often, so that we have a fresh new build/branch every N minutes). Case B: each CI cycle creates a new branch named 'current', which is then tagged with a unique name only when we manually decide to export it to staging; the current branch, at any case is then deleted, as soon as the next CI cycle starts up. The problem we see here is that a new cycle could kick in while someone is tagging/exporting the 'current' branch to staging thus creating an inconsistent build (but maybe here I'm just too pessimist, since I confess I don't know whether SVN offers some built-in protection against this). With all this being said, I was wondering if anyone with similar experiences could be so kind to give us some hints on the subject, since none of the approaches depicted above looks completely satisfing to us. Is there something important we just completely left off in the overall picture? Thanks for your attention & (in advance) for your help!

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• how to create a system-wide independent universal counter object primarily for Database keys?

  - by andora

  I would like to create/use a system-wide independent universal 'counter object' that can be called via COM in a thread-safe manner. The counter object will be passed an ID to identify which counter to return, handle the counting, 'persist' the count (occasionally), have reasonable performance (as fast as possible) perhaps capable of 1000 counts per second or better (1mS) and be accessible cross-process/out-of-process. The current count status must be persisted between object restarts/shutdowns. The counter object is liklely to be a 'singleton' type object implemented in some form of free-threaded dictionary, containing maybe 10 counters (perhaps 50 max). The count needs to be monotonic and consistent, (ie: guaranteed unique sequential values). Each counter should have a few methods, like reset, inc, dec, set, clear, remove. As a luxury, I would like to have a variable-increment (ie: 'step by' value). To support thread-safefty, perhaps some sorm of critical-section or mutex call. It just needs to return a long/4byte signed integer. I really want something that can be called from anywhere, including VBScript, so I figure COM is my preferred solution. The primary use of this is for database keys. I am unable to use autoinc or guid type keys and have ruled out database-generated counting systems at this point. I've spent days researching this and I have really struggled to find a solution. The best I can find is a free-threaded dictionary object that can be instantiated using COM+ from Motobit - it seems to offer all the 'basics' and I guess I could create some form of wrapper for this. So, here are my questions: Does such a 'general purpose counter-object already exist? Can you direct me to it? (MS did do an IIS/ASP object called 'MSWC.Counter' but this isn't 'cross-process'/ out-of-process component and isn't thread-safe. (but if it was, it would do!) What is the best way of creating such a Component? (I'd prefer VB6 right-now, [don't ask!] but can do in VB.NET2005 if I had to). I don't have the skills/knowledge/tools to use anything else. I am desparate for a workable solution. I need specific guidance! If anybody can code something up for me I am prepared to pay for it.

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• Change the Session Variable Output

  - by user567230

  Hello I am using Dreamweaver CS5 with Coldfusion 9 to build a dynamic website. I have a MS Access Database that stores login information which includes ID, FullName, FirstName, LastName, Username, Pawword, AcessLevels. My question is this: I currently have session variable to track the Username when it is entered into the login page. However I would like to use that Username to pull the User's FullName to display throughout the web pages and use for querying data. How do I change the session variable to read that when they are not entering their FullName on the login page but only Username and password. I have listed my login information code below if there is any additional information needed please let me know. This is the path for which the FullName values reside DataSource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" I want the FullName to be unique based on the Username submitted from the Login page. I apologize in advance for any rookie mistake I may have made I am new to this but learning fast! Ha. <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess="members_page.cfm"> <cfset MM_redirectLoginFailed="sorry.cfm"> <cfquery name="MM_rsUser" datasource="Access"> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.username#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> AND Password=<cfqueryparam value="#FORM.password#" cfsqltype="cf_sql_clob" maxlength="50"> </cfquery> <cfif MM_rsUser.RecordCount NEQ 0> <cftry> <cflock scope="Session" timeout="30" type="Exclusive"> <cfset Session.MM_Username=FORM.username> <cfset Session.MM_UserAuthorization=MM_rsUser.AccessLevels[1]> </cflock> <cfif IsDefined("URL.accessdenied") AND false> <cfset MM_redirectLoginSuccess=URL.accessdenied> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginSuccess#" addtoken="no"> <cfcatch type="Lock"> <!--- code for handling timeout of cflock ---> </cfcatch> </cftry> </cfif> <cflocation url="#MM_redirectLoginFailed#" addtoken="no"> <cfelse> <cfset MM_LoginAction=CGI.SCRIPT_NAME> <cfif CGI.QUERY_STRING NEQ ""> <cfset MM_LoginAction=MM_LoginAction & "?" & XMLFormat(CGI.QUERY_STRING)> </cfif> </cfif>

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• Magento user created attribute for products is not saved...

  - by Elzo Valugi

  I am fighting an apparently simple thing for about two days now. I hope somebody can help. I created the myUpdate EAV attribute class Company_Module_Model_Resource_Eav_Mysql4_Setup extends Mage_Eav_Model_Entity_Setup { public function getDefaultEntities() { return array( 'catalog_product' => array( 'entity_model' => 'catalog/product', 'attribute_model' => 'catalog/resource_eav_attribute', 'table' => 'catalog/product', 'additional_attribute_table' => 'catalog/eav_attribute', 'entity_attribute_collection' => 'catalog/product_attribute_collection', 'attributes' => array( 'my_update' => array( 'label' => 'My timestamp', 'type' => 'datetime', 'input' => 'date', 'default' => '', 'class' => 'validate-date', 'backend' => 'eav/entity_attribute_backend_datetime', 'frontend' => '', 'table' => '', 'source' => '', 'global' => Mage_Catalog_Model_Resource_Eav_Attribute::SCOPE_GLOBAL, 'visible' => true, 'required' => false, 'user_defined' => true, 'searchable' => false, 'filterable' => false, 'comparable' => false, 'visible_on_front' => false, 'visible_in_advanced_search' => false, 'unique' => false, 'apply_to' => 'simple', ) ) ) ); } } The attribute is created OK and on install appears correctly in the list of attributes. Later I do // for product 1 $product->setMyUpdate($stringDate); // string this format: yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss $product->save(); // and saves without issues * in admin module But later when I do: $product = Mage::getModel('catalog/product')->load(1); var_dump($product->getMyUpdate()); // returns null Somehow the data is not really saved.. or I am not retrieving it correctly. Please advice on how to get the data and where the data is saved in the DB so I can check at if the insert is done correctly. Thanks.

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• Android pluginable application

  - by Alxandr

  I've been trying to create an android-application the last couple of weeks, and mostly everything has worked out great, but there is one thing that I was wondering about, and that is pluginability trough the use of intents. What I'm trying to create is basically a comic-reader. As of the version I use now, I open the application and get a list of commics that are my favourites, then I enter one to get a detailed view, and finally I enter a page. This is managed trough 3 activities. List, Details and Page. However, as of now the application can only read comics of one source (a specialiced xml-feed comming from my server), and I was hoping to be able to expand this a litle (also, the page-activity and some other stuff needs to be cleaned up in, so I'm thinking about remaking from scratch, and just take the first go as a learning-round). And I came up with an idea which I think sounds great, but I don't know if it's possible, but this is what I'm thinking about: The user enters the application and get an (first time empty) list of comics. The user hits a button to find comics, this launces an intent that says something like "find comic" or something like that. This should cause the system to display all matching activities. This would make it possible to provide different comic-providers trough different applications. Another activity kicks in and might displays some options to the user (for instance a file-browser), or might not (in the example of an xml-feed, which should just load). The list is returned to the first activity and displayed to the user. The second (find) activity is closed. The user picks a comic from the list. This should open some details-activity. The details-activity should receive a key which corresponds to the comic selected. This should be unique amongst the comic-providers. The details-view should get it's data trough some cind of content-provider, or an activity (whichever is most suited, if one of them is). The user can select a page. This should be the same routine as step 5. My question is, is this possible in the android system, and if it is, is it a bad idea? And also, is there any better way to achieve more or less the same thing?

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• Modular GWT design concerns

  - by GlGuru

  Hi, I have a couple of questions regarding a modular GWT based application framework. I have some ideas about them but being new to the field of web development I feel they are far from ideal. I'd appreciate a few comments and suggestions in this regard. Here are my questions: I am developing a framework which will allow third parties to embed GWT applications into our website and do some communication with them using simple iFrame postMessage. All these third party modules are going to use our SDK which is also GWT based. The problem arises that even though all the modules will be using the same codebase there is going to be a massive overheard in the amount of duplicate Javascript code (i.e. our common SDK code base which is quite large) being downloaded on the client's machine. This is highly redundant and problematic, not only due to the sheer size of duplicate code but, also due to the fact that subsequent updates of the SDK would require the modules to be recompiled which is going to create a DLL hell kind of scenario in the long run. What is the best way of doing this kind of thing? Is there a way where I can have some static GWT code (i.e. the SDK) and the dynamic GWT module refers to it (even if lies on a different domain) and it all work happily? The other part of the problem lies in providing robust scripting front end to the SDK. At first it appears to be trivial since Javascript itself is a scripting language. However, I do not know how to load and call a piece of pure Javascript code at runtime? I am willing to put restrictions on the target Javascript (i.e. having a function main and unique namespace or something). Furthermore the Javascript will come as a string from a database and not as a full URL. If its doable in Javascript how does one get this right in GWT i.e. forcing the compiler to emit a certain function in the generated Javascript? This I believe can be lesser of a problem by having a stub Javascript with all the right requirements which just loads up a GWT generated Javascript. Is any of this possible at all? I generally hate to be this verbose but I hope to find a quick solution to the problem as its holding up my progress. I'd highly appreciate any comments, suggestions and experiences.

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• Is this a legitimate implementation of a 'remember me' function for my web app?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to add a "remember me" feature to my web app to let a user stay logged in between browser restarts. I think I got the bulk of it. I'm using google app engine for the backend which lets me use java servlets. Here is some pseudo-code to demo: public class MyServlet { public void handleRequest() { if (getThreadLocalRequest().getSession().getAttribute("user") != null) { // User already has session running for them. } else { // No session, but check if they chose 'remember me' during // their initial login, if so we can have them 'auto log in' // now. Cookie[] cookies = getThreadLocalRequest().getCookies(); if (cookies.find("rememberMePlz").exists()) { // The value of this cookie is the cookie id, which is a // unique string that is in no way based upon the user's // name/email/id, and is hard to randomly generate. String cookieid = cookies.find("rememberMePlz").value(); // Get the user object associated with this cookie id from // the data store, would probably be a two-step process like: // // select * from cookies where cookieid = 'cookieid'; // select * from users where userid = 'userid fetched from above select'; User user = DataStore.getUserByCookieId(cookieid); if (user != null) { // Start session for them. getThreadLocalRequest().getSession() .setAttribute("user", user); } else { // Either couldn't find a matching cookie with the // supplied id, or maybe we expired the cookie on // our side or blocked it. } } } } } // On first login, if user wanted us to remember them, we'd generate // an instance of this object for them in the data store. We send the // cookieid value down to the client and they persist it on their side // in the "rememberMePlz" cookie. public class CookieLong { private String mCookieId; private String mUserId; private long mExpirationDate; } Alright, this all makes sense. The only frightening thing is what happens if someone finds out the value of the cookie? A malicious individual could set that cookie in their browser and access my site, and essentially be logged in as the user associated with it! On the same note, I guess this is why the cookie ids must be difficult to randomly generate, because a malicious user doesn't have to steal someone's cookie - they could just randomly assign cookie values and start logging in as whichever user happens to be associated with that cookie, if any, right? Scary stuff, I feel like I should at least include the username in the client cookie such that when it presents itself to the server, I won't auto-login unless the username+cookieid match in the DataStore. Any comments would be great, I'm new to this and trying to figure out a best practice. I'm not writing a site which contains any sensitive personal information, but I'd like to minimize any potential for abuse all the same, Thanks

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• How To Load Images into Custom UITableViewCell?

  - by Clifton Burt

  This problem is simple, but crucial and urgent. Here's what needs to be done: load 66px x 66px images into the table cells in the MainViewController table. each TableCell has a unique image. But how? Would we use cell.image?... cell.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"image.png"]; If so, where? Is an if/else statement required? Help? Here's the project code, hosted on Google Code, for easy and quick reference... http://www.google.com/codesearch/p?hl=en#Fcn2OtVUXnY/trunk/apple-sample-code/NavBar/NavBar/MyCustomCell.m&q=MyCustomCell%20lang:objectivec To load each cell's labels, MainViewController uses an NSDictionary and NSLocalizedString like so... //cell one menuList addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneTitle", @""), kTitleKey, NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneExplain", @""), kExplainKey, nil]]; //cell two menuList addObject:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneTitle", @""), kTitleKey, NSLocalizedString(@"PageOneExplain", @""), kExplainKey, nil]]; ... // this is where MainViewController loads the cell content - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { MyCustomCell *cell = (MyCustomCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:kCellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[MyCustomCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:kCellIdentifier] autorelease]; } ... // MyCustomCell.m adds the subviews - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)aRect reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)identifier { self = [super initWithFrame:aRect reuseIdentifier:identifier]; if (self) { // you can do this here specifically or at the table level for all cells self.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; // Create label views to contain the various pieces of text that make up the cell. // Add these as subviews. nameLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // layoutSubViews will decide the final frame nameLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; nameLabel.opaque = NO; nameLabel.textColor = [UIColor blackColor]; nameLabel.highlightedTextColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; nameLabel.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:18]; [self.contentView addSubview:nameLabel]; explainLabel = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; // layoutSubViews will decide the final frame explainLabel.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; explainLabel.opaque = NO; explainLabel.textColor = [UIColor grayColor]; explainLabel.highlightedTextColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; explainLabel.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:14]; [self.contentView addSubview:explainLabel]; //added to mark where the thumbnail image should go imageView = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 66, 66)]; [self.contentView addSubview:imageView]; } return self; } HELP?

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• NHibernate Many to Many delete all my data in the table

  - by Daoming Yang

  I would love to thank @Stefan Steinegger and @David helped me out yesterday with many-to-many mapping. I have 3 tables which are "News", "Tags" and "News_Tags" with Many-To-Many relationship and the "News_Tags" is the link table. If I delete one of the news records, the following mappings will delete all my news records which have the same tags. One thing I need to notice, I only allowed unique tag stored in the "Tag" table. This mapping make sense for me, it will delete the tag and related News records, but how can I implement a tagging system with NHibernate? Can anyone give me some suggestion? Many thanks. Daoming. News Mapping: <class name="New" table="News" lazy="false"> <id name="NewID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Title" type="String"></property> <property name="Description" type="String"></property> <set name="TagsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" inverse="true" cascade="all"> <key column="NewID" /> <many-to-many class="Tag" column="TagID" /> </set> </class> Tag Mapping: <class name="Tag" table="Tags" lazy="false"> <id name="TagID"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="TagName" type="String"></property> <property name="DateCreated" type="DateTime"></property> <!--inverse="true" has been defined in the "News mapping"--> <set name="NewsList" table="New_Tags" lazy="false" cascade="all"> <key column="TagID" /> <many-to-many class="New" column="NewID" /> </set> </class>

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• how to refactor user-permission system?

  - by John

  Sorry for lengthy question. I can't tell if this should be a programming question or a project management question. Any advice will help. I inherited a reasonably large web project (1 year old) from a solo freelancer who architected it then abandoned it. The project was a mess, but I cleaned up what I could, and now the system is more maintainable. I need suggestions on how to extend the user-permission system. As it is now, the database has a t_user table with the column t_user.membership_type. Currently, there are 4 membership types with the following properties: 3 of the membership types are almost functionally the same, except for the different monthly fees each must pay 1 of the membership type is a "fake-user" type which has limited access ( different business logic also applies) With regards to the fake-user type, if you look in the system's business logic files, you will see a lot of hard-coded IF statements that do something like if (fake-user) { // do something } else { // a paid member of type 1,2 or 3 // proceed normally } My client asked me to add 3 more membership types to the system, each of them with unique features to be implemented this month, and substantive "to-be-determined" features next month. My first reaction is that I need to refactor the user-permission system. But it concerns me that I don't have enough information on the "to-be-determined" membership type features for next month. Refactoring the user-permission system will take a substantive amount of time. I don't want to refactor something and throw it out the following month. I get substantive feature requests on a monthly basis that come out of the blue. There is no project road map. I've asked my client to provide me with a roadmap of what they intend to do with the new membership types, but their answer is along the lines of "We just want to do [feature here] this month. We'll think of something new next month." So questions that come to mind are: 1) Is it dangerous for me to refactor the user permission system not knowing what membership type features exist beyond a month from now? 2) Should I refactor the user permission system regardless? Or just continue adding IF statements as needed in all my controller files? Or can you recommend a different approach to user permission systems? Maybe role-based ? 3) Should this project have a road map? For a 1 year old project like mine, how far into the future should this roadmap project? 4) Any general advice on the best way to add 3 new membership types?

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• meteor mongodb _id changing after insert (and UUID property as well)

  - by lommaj

  I have meteor method that does an insert. Im using Regulate.js for form validation. I set the game_id field to Meteor.uuid() to create a unique value that I also route to /game_show/:game_id using iron router. As you can see I'm logging the details of the game, this works fine. (image link to log below) Meteor.methods({ create_game_form : function(data){ Regulate.create_game_form.validate(data, function (error, data) { if (error) { console.log('Server side validation failed.'); } else { console.log('Server side validation passed!'); // Save data to database or whatever... //console.log(data[0].value); var new_game = { game_id: Meteor.uuid(), name : data[0].value, game_type: data[1].value, creator_user_id: Meteor.userId(), user_name: Meteor.user().profile.name, created: new Date() }; console.log("NEW GAME BEFORE INSERT: ", new_game); GamesData.insert(new_game, function(error, new_id){ console.log("GAMES NEW MONGO ID: ", new_id) var game_data = GamesData.findOne({_id: new_id}); console.log('NEW GAME AFTER INSERT: ', game_data); Session.set('CURRENT_GAME', game_data); }); } }); } }); All of the data coming out of the console.log at this point works fine After this method call the client routes to /game_show/:game_id Meteor.call('create_game_form', data, function(error){ if(error){ return alert(error.reason); } //console.log("post insert data for routing variable " ,data); var created_game = Session.get('CURRENT_GAME'); console.log("Session Game ", created_game); Router.go('game_show', {game_id: created_game.game_id}); }); On this view, I try to load the document with the game_id I just inserted Template.game_start.helpers({ game_info: function(){ console.log(this.game_id); var game_data = GamesData.find({game_id: this.game_id}); console.log("trying to load via UUID ", game_data); return game_data; } }); sorry cant upload images... :-( https://www.evernote.com/shard/s21/sh/c07e8047-de93-4d08-9dc7-dae51668bdec/a8baf89a09e55f8902549e79f136fd45 As you can see from the image of the console log below, everything matches the id logged before insert the id logged in the insert callback using findOne() the id passed in the url However the mongo ID and the UUID I inserted ARE NOT THERE, the only document in there has all the other fields matching except those two! Not sure what im doing wrong. Thanks!

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• What to name 2 methods with same signatures

  - by coffeeaddict

  Initially I had a method in our DL that would take in the object it's updating like so: internal void UpdateCash(Cash Cash) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set captureID = @captureID, ac_code = @acCode, captureDate = @captureDate, errmsg = @errorMessage, isDebit = @isDebit, SourceInfoID = @sourceInfoID, PayPalTransactionInfoID = @payPalTransactionInfoID, CreditCardTransactionInfoID = @CreditCardTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", cash.CaptureID); conn.AddParam("@acCode", cash.ActionCode); conn.AddParam("@captureDate", cash.CaptureDate); conn.AddParam("@errorMessage", cash.ErrorMessage); conn.AddParam("@isDebit", cyberCash.IsDebit); conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", cash.PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@CreditCardTransactionInfoID", cash.CreditCardTransactionInfoID); conn.AddParam("@sourceInfoID", cash.SourceInfoID); conn.AddParam("@cashID", cash.Id); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } My boss felt that creating an object every time just to update one or two fields is overkill. But I had a couple places in code using this. He recommended using just UpdateCash and sending in the ID for CAsh and field I want to update. Well the problem is I have 2 places in code using my original method. And those 2 places are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table. Before I was just able to get the existing Cash record and shove it into a Cash object, then update the properties I wanted to be updated in the DB, then send back the cash object to my method above. I need some advice on what to do here. I have 2 methods and they have the same signature. I'm not quite sure what to rename these because both are updating 2 completely different fields in the Cash table: internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int paypalCaptureID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set CaptureID = @paypalCaptureID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@captureID", paypalCaptureID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } internal void UpdateCash(int cashID, int PayPalTransactionInfoID) { using (OurCustomDbConnection conn = CreateConnection("UpdateCash")) { conn.CommandText = @"update Cash set PaymentSourceID = @PayPalTransactionInfoID where id = @cashID"; conn.AddParam("@PayPalTransactionInfoID", PayPalTransactionInfoID); conn.ExecuteNonQuery(); } } So I thought hmm, maybe change the names to these so that they are now unique and somewhat explain what field its updating: UpdateCashOrderID UpdateCashTransactionInfoID ok but that's not really very good names. And I can't go too generic, for example: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID) What if we have different types of transactionIDs that the cash record holds besides just the paypalTransactionInfoID? such as the creditCardInfoID? Then what? Transaction doesn't tell me what kind. And furthermore what if you're updating 2 fields so you have 2 params next to the cashID param: UpdateCashTransaction(int cashID, paypalTransactionID, someOtherFieldIWantToUpdate) see my frustration? what's the best way to handle this is my boss doesn't like my first route?

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• Several client waiting for the same event

  - by ff8mania

  I'm developing a communication API to be used by a lot of generic clients to communicate with a proprietary system. This proprietary system exposes an API, and I use a particular classes to send and wait messages from this system: obviously the system alert me that a message is ready using an event. The event is named OnMessageArrived. My idea is to expose a simple SendSyncMessage(message) method that helps the user/client to simply send a message and the method returns the response. The client: using ( Communicator c = new Communicator() ) { response = c.SendSync(message); } The communicator class is done in this way: public class Communicator : IDisposable { // Proprietary system object ExternalSystem c; String currentRespone; Guid currentGUID; private readonly ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent; private ManualResetEvent _manualResetEvent2; String systemName = "system"; String ServerName = "server"; public Communicator() { _manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(false); //This methods are from the proprietary system API c = SystemInstance.CreateInstance(); c.Connect(systemName , ServerName); } private void ConnectionStarter( object data ) { c.OnMessageArrivedEvent += c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; _manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); c.OnMessageArrivedEvent-= c_OnMessageArrivedEvent; } public String SendSync( String Message ) { Thread _internalThread = new Thread(ConnectionStarter); _internalThread.Start(c); _manualResetEvent2 = new ManualResetEvent(false); String toRet; int messageID; currentGUID = Guid.NewGuid(); c.SendMessage(Message, "Request", currentGUID.ToString()); _manualResetEvent2.WaitOne(); toRet = currentRespone; return toRet; } void c_OnMessageArrivedEvent( int Id, string root, string guid, int TimeOut, out int ReturnCode ) { if ( !guid.Equals(currentGUID.ToString()) ) { _manualResetEvent2.Set(); ReturnCode = 0; return; } object newMessage; c.FetchMessage(Id, 7, out newMessage); currentRespone = newMessage.ToString(); ReturnCode = 0; _manualResetEvent2.Set(); } } I'm really noob in using waithandle, but my idea was to create an instance that sends the message and waits for an event. As soon as the event arrived, checks if the message is the one I expect (checking the unique guid), otherwise continues to wait for the next event. This because could be (and usually is in this way) a lot of clients working concurrently, and I want them to work parallel. As I implemented my stuff, at the moment if I run client 1, client 2 and client 3, client 2 starts sending message as soon as client 1 has finished, and client 3 as client 2 has finished: not what I'm trying to do. Can you help me to fix my code and get my target? Thanks!

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• How to parse an XML string in TDI

  - by ongle

  I am new to TDI. I have a TDI assembly line that calls a web service (ibmdi.InvokeSoapWS) which returns the result as a string in the work attribute 'xmlString'. I then have an AttributeMap that attempts to parse the xml and extract a value (the node it seeks is a few nodes deep). var parser = system.getParser('ibmdi.SOAP'); var xmlString = work.getString('xmlString'); var entity = parser.parseRequest(xmlString); task.dump(entity); The trouble is, the parsed object does not contain an accurate representation of the XML. It contains only two attributes, the first is correctly the first node following the soap body (e.g., ns0:SomeNodeReply), the second being a node inside the first (e.g., ns0:DetailCount). And as far as I can determine, both attributes are just strings so I cannot recurse into the object graph. Below is a sample soap reply: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns0:SomeNodeReply xmlns:ns0="http://xmlns.example.com/unique/default/namespace/1136581686664"> <ns0:Status> <ns0:StatusCD>000</ns0:StatusCD> <ns0:StatusDesc /> </ns0:Status> <ns0:DetailCount>1</ns0:DetailCount> <ns0:SomeDetail> <ns0:CodeA>Foo</ns0:CodeA> <ns0:CodeB>Bar</ns0:CodeB> </ns0:SomeDetail> </ns0:SomeNodeReply> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> And below is a sample dump of the parsed string: 19:03:23 CTGDIS003I *** Start dumping Entry 19:03:23 Operation: generic 19:03:23 Entry attributes: 19:03:23 SOAP_CALL (replace): 'ns0:SomeNodeReply' 19:03:23 ns0:DetailCount(replace): '1' 19:03:23 CTGDIS004I *** Finished dumping Entry All I really need to do is be able to parse out a value that may or may not be there, depending on the value of another node (e.g., DetailCount == 1, get CodeA otherwise return empty string). I am open to changing anything about how this works if I can extract the data into the work Entry.

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• asp:Button is not calling server-side function

  - by Richard Neil Ilagan

  Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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• Slow MySQL query....only sometimes

  - by Shane N

  I have a query that's used in a reporting system of ours that sometimes runs quicker than a second, and other times takes 1 to 10 minutes to run. Here's the entry from the slow query log: # Query_time: 543 Lock_time: 0 Rows_sent: 0 Rows_examined: 124948974 use statsdb; SELECT count(distinct Visits.visitorid) as 'uniques' FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime>=1275721200 and visittime<=1275807599 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9 AND Visits.visitorid NOT IN (SELECT Visits.visitorid FROM Visits,Visitors WHERE Visits.visitorid=Visitors.visitorid and candidateid in (32) and visittime<1275721200 and (omit=0 or omit>=1275807599) AND Visitors.segmentid=9); It's basically counting unique visitors, and it's doing that by counting the visitors for today and then substracting those that have been here before. If you know of a better way to do this, let me know. I just don't understand why sometimes it can be so quick, and other times takes so long - even with the same exact query under the same server load. Here's the EXPLAIN on this query. As you can see it's using the indexes I've set up: id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 PRIMARY Visits range visittime_visitorid,visitorid visittime_visitorid 4 NULL 82500 Using where; Using index 1 PRIMARY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visits ref visittime_visitorid,visitorid visitorid 8 func 1 Using where 2 DEPENDENT SUBQUERY Visitors eq_ref PRIMARY,cand_visitor_omit PRIMARY 8 statsdb.Visits.visitorid 1 Using where I tried to optimize the query a few weeks ago and came up with a variation that consistently took about 2 seconds, but in practice it ended up taking more time since 90% of the time the old query returned much quicker. Two seconds per query is too long because we are calling the query up to 50 times per page load, with different time periods. Could the quick behavior be due to the query being saved in the query cache? I tried running 'RESET QUERY CACHE' and 'FLUSH TABLES' between my benchmark tests and I was still getting quick results most of the time. Note: last night while running the query I got an error: Unable to save result set. My initial research shows that may be due to a corrupt table that needs repair. Could this be the reason for the behavior I'm seeing? In case you want server info: Accessing via PHP 4.4.4 MySQL 4.1.22 All tables are InnoDB We run optimize table on all tables weekly The sum of both the tables used in the query is 500 MB MySQL config: key_buffer = 350M max_allowed_packet = 16M thread_stack = 128K sort_buffer = 14M read_buffer = 1M bulk_insert_buffer_size = 400M set-variable = max_connections=150 query_cache_limit = 1048576 query_cache_size = 50777216 query_cache_type = 1 tmp_table_size = 203554432 table_cache = 120 thread_cache_size = 4 wait_timeout = 28800 skip-external-locking innodb_file_per_table innodb_buffer_pool_size = 3512M innodb_log_file_size=100M innodb_log_buffer_size=4M

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• How to give the First image in a gallery a different class than the rest of the images - Carrierwave

  - by ChrisBedoya

  I have a model called "Photo" that belongs to a model called "Shoe". I using Carrierwave to upload multiple images. index.html.erb <% shoes.each do |shoe| %> <div class="shoe"> <div class="gallery"> <% shoe.photos.each do |photo| %> <%= link_to image_tag(photo.photo_file.url(:thumb).to_s), photo.photo_file.url.to_s, :class => 'fancybox', :rel => 'gallery' %> <% end %> </div> </div> <% end %> Outputs this: <div class="shoe"> <div class="gallery"> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> </div> </div> But I want the first image of each gallery to be able to have its own class and the rest of the images to have their own class. Something like this: <a class="firstclass" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> <a class="fancybox" href="../nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg" rel="gallery"> <img src="../thumb_nike-kd-6-meteorology-2.jpg"> </a> How can I do this? Also I want each gallery to have its own unique id but when I try to add this: :rel => 'gallery<%= shoe.id %>' I get a Syntax error. Thanks.

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• JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

  - by IrishDubGuy

  I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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