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• Convert Google Analytics cookies to Local/Session Storage

  - by David Murdoch

  Google Analytics sets 4 cookies that will be sent with all requests to that domain (and ofset its subdomains). From what I can tell no server actually uses them directly; they're only sent with __utm.gif as a query param. Now, obviously Google Analytics reads, writes and acts on their values and they will need to be available to the GA tracking script. So, what I am wondering is if it is possible to: rewrite the __utm* cookies to local storage after ga.js has written them delete them after ga.js has run rewrite the cookies FROM local storage back to cookie form right before ga.js reads them start over Or, monkey patch ga.js to use local storage before it begins the cookie read/write part. Obviously if we are going so far out of the way to remove the __utm* cookies we'll want to also use the Async variant of Analytics. I'm guessing the down vote was because I didn't ask a question. DOH! My questions are: Can it be done as described above? If so, why hasn't it been done? I have a default HTML/CSS/JS boilerplate template that passes YSlow, PageSpeed, and Chrome's Audit with near perfect scores. I'm really looking for a way to squeeze those remaining cookie bytes from Google Analytics in browsers that support local storage.

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• Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

  - by PaulHurleyuk

  I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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• How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

  - by todd412

  Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

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• What's the order of execution in property setters when using IDataErrorInfo?

  - by Benny Jobigan

  Situation: Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question: In a binding situation, when does the validation code get executed? When is the property set? When is the setter code executed? What if the validation fails? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

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• How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

  - by sperling

  How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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• Implementing a scrabble trainer

  - by bstullkid

  Hello, I've recently been playing alot of online scrabble so I decided to make a program that quickly searches through a dictionary of 200,000+ words with an input of up to any 26 letters. My first attempt was fail as it took a while when you input 8 or more letters (just a basic look through dictionary and cancel out a letter if its found kind of thing), so I made a tree like structure containing only an array of 26 of the same structure and a flag to indicate the end of a word, doing that It can output all possible words in under a second even with an input of 26 characters. But it seems that when I input 12 or more letters with some of the same characters repeated i get duplicates; can anyone see why I would be getting duplicates with this code? (ill post my program at the bottom) Also, the next step once the duplicates are weeded out is to actually be able to input the letters on the game board and then have it calculate the best word you can make on a given board. I am having trouble trying to figure out a good algorithm that can analyze a scrabble board and an input of letters and output a result; the possible words that could be made I have no problem with but actually checking a board efficiently (ie can this word fit here, or here etc... without creating a non dictionary word in the process on some other string of letters) Anyone have a idea for an approach at that? (given a scrabble board, and an input of 7 letters, find all possible valid words or word sets that you can make) lol crap i forgot to email myself the code from my other computer thats in another state... ill post it on monday when I get back there! btw the dictionary im using is sowpods (http://www.calvin.edu/~rpruim/scrabble/ospd3.txt)

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• how does one _model_ data from relational databases in clojure ?

  - by sandeep

  I have asked this question on twitter as well the #clojure IRC channel, yet got no responses. There have been several articles about Clojure-for-Ruby-programmers, Clojure-for-lisp-programmers.. but what is the missing part is Clojure for ActiveRecord programmers . There have been articles about interacting with MongoDB, Redis, etc. - but these are key value stores at the end of the day. However, coming from a Rails background, we are used to thinking about databases in terms of inheritance - has_many, polymorphic, belongs_to, etc. The few articles about Clojure/Compojure + MySQL (ffclassic) - delve right into sql. Of course, it might be that an ORM induces impedence mismatch, but the fact remains that after thinking like ActiveRecord, it is very difficult to think any other way. I believe that relational DBs, lend themselves very well to the object-oriented paradigm because of them being , essentially, Sets. Stuff like activerecord is very well suited for modelling this data. For e.g. a blog - simply put class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :comments end class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post end How does one model this in Clojure - which is so strictly anti-OO ? Perhaps the question would have been better if it referred to all functional programming languages, but I am more interested from a Clojure standpoint (and Clojure examples)

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• What should the name of this class be?

  - by Tim Murphy

  Naming classes is sometimes hard. What do you think name of the class should be? I originally created the class to use as a cache but can see its may have other uses. Example code to use the class. Dim cache = New NamePendingDictionary(Of String, Sample) Dim value = cache("a", Function() New Sample()) And here is the class that needs a name. ''' <summary> ''' Enhancement of <see cref="System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary"/>. See the Item property ''' for more details. ''' </summary> ''' <typeparam name="TKey">The type of the keys in the dictionary.</typeparam> ''' <typeparam name="TValue">The type of the values in the dictionary.</typeparam> Public Class NamePendingDictionary(Of TKey, TValue) Inherits Dictionary(Of TKey, TValue) Delegate Function DefaultValue() As TValue ''' <summary> ''' Gets or sets the value associated with the specified key. If the specified key does not exist ''' then <paramref name="createDefaultValue"/> is invoked and added to the dictionary. The created ''' value is then returned. ''' </summary> ''' <param name="key">The key of the value to get.</param> ''' <param name="createDefaultValue"> ''' The delegate to invoke if <paramref name="key"/> does not exist in the dictionary. ''' </param> ''' <exception cref="T:System.ArgumentNullException"><paramref name="key" /> is null.</exception> Default Public Overloads ReadOnly Property Item(ByVal key As TKey, ByVal createDefaultValue As DefaultValue) As TValue Get Dim value As TValue If createDefaultValue Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException("createValue") End If If Not Me.TryGetValue(key, value) Then value = createDefaultValue.Invoke() Me.Add(key, value) End If Return value End Get End Property End Class

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• INSERT stored procedure does not work?

  - by vikitor

  Hello, I'm trying to make an insertion from one database called suspension to the table called Notification in the ANimals database. My stored procedure is this: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[spCreateNotification] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @notRecID int, @notName nvarchar(50), @notRecStatus nvarchar(1), @notAdded smalldatetime, @notByWho int AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here INSERT INTO Animals.dbo.Notification values (@notRecID, @notName, @notRecStatus, null, @notAdded, @notByWho); END The null inserting is to replenish one column that otherwise will not be filled, I've tried different ways, like using also the names for the columns after the name of the table and then only indicate in values the fields I've got. I know it is not a problem of the stored procedure because I executed it from the sql server management studio and it works introducing the parameters. Then I guess the problem must be in the repository when I call the stored procedure: public void createNotification(Notification not) { try { DB.spCreateNotification(not.NotRecID, not.NotName, not.NotRecStatus, (DateTime)not.NotAdded, (int)not.NotByWho); } catch { return; } } It does not record the value in the database. I've been debugging and getting mad about this, because it works when I execute it manually, but not when I automatize the proccess in my application. Does anyone see anything wrong with my code? Thank you

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• How to use associated Model as datasource for DataView

  - by Chris Gilbert

  I have a Model structure as shown below and I want to know how to use the Bookings array as the datasource of my DataView. Model Structure: Client ClientId Name Bookings (HasManyAssociation) Contacts (HasManyAssociation) AjaxProxy JsonReader (ImplicitIncludes is set to true so child models are created with one call) Booking BookingNodeId BookingDetails Contact ContactNodeId ContactDetails The above gives me a data structure as follows: Client Bookings[ Booking Booking ] Contacts[ Contact Contact ] What I want to be able to do is either, create a Store from my Bookings array and then use that store as the datasource for my DataView OR directly use the Bookings array as the datasource (I don't really care how I do it to be honest). If I setup the AjaxProxy on my Booking model it works fine but then obviously I cannot automatically create my Client and Contacts when I load my JSON. It seems to me to make sense that the Client model, being the top level model hierarchically, is the one to load the data. EDIT: I figured it out as follows (with special thanks to handet87 below for his dataview.setStore() pointer). The key in this case is to know that creating the relationship actually sets up another store called, in this case BookingsStore and ContactsStore. All I needed to do was dataview.setStore("BookingsStore")

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• How to model has_many with polymorphism?

  - by Daniel Abrahamsson

  I've run into a situation that I am not quite sure how to model. Suppose I have a User class, and a user has many services. However, these services are quite different, for example a MailService and a BackupService, so single table inheritance won't do. Instead, I am thinking of using polymorphic associations together with an abstract base class: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :services end class Service < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :user_id, :implementation_id, :implementation_type belongs_to :user belongs_to :implementation, :polymorphic = true delegate :common_service_method, :name, :to => :implementation end #Base class for service implementations class ServiceImplementation < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :user_id, :on => :create has_one :service, :as => :implementation has_one :user, :through => :service after_create :create_service_record #Tell Rails this class does not use a table. def self.abstract_class? true end #Default name implementation. def name self.class.name end protected #Sets up a service object def create_service_record service = Service.new(:user_id => user_id) service.implementation = self service.save! end end class MailService < ServiceImplementation #validations, etc... def common_service_method puts "MailService implementation of common service method" end end #Example usage MailService.create(..., :user_id => user.id) BackupService.create(...., :user_id => user.id) user.services.each do |s| puts "#{user.name} is using #{s.name}" end #Daniel is using MailService, Daniel is using BackupService So, is this the best solution? Or even a good one? How have you solved this kind of problem?

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• Save result of for loop in a vector

  - by hendrik

  i think I'm just too tired to see the mistake. i wrote a function to get the maximal value for two data sets from a for loop plot_zu <- function(x) {for (i in 1:x){ z=data_raw[grep(a[i], data_raw$Gene.names),] b=data_raw_ace[grep(a[i], data_raw_ace$Gene.names),] p<-vector("numeric", length(1:length(a))) p[i]<-max(z$t_test_diff) return(p)} } so picture: a is a vector of names and the data set (data_raw(_ace)) are filtered by it. In the end i would like to have all maxima values of column t_test_diff in a vector. After that i want to add the t_test_diff column values from data_raw_ace also. So the problem is, that i get this: [1] 1.210213 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 [8] 0.000000 0.000000 So there is a problem with brackets or something but i cannot see it ( first value fits). Sorry for no good example but i think it is understandable and an easy to solve question. If im to dumb to explain my problem right, i will add an example. !! Thx a lot !! grateful Hendrik

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• Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

  - by Adrian Grigore

  Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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• PHP: saving multiple tuples to the same table

  - by Binaryrespawn

  Hi all, I am trying to save data into the same table several times from the same $_POST array. You see, on my registration form a family is allowed to specify the names, gender and age of all members they wish to bring along. This data is being stored in a database table called aditional_member. Based on family size, I am dynamically generating html table rows where each row has the number of input fields required. <tr id="additionalmember_3"> <td><input type="text" name="first_name1" maxlength="50" value="" /></td> <td><input type="text" name="last_name1" maxlength="50" value="" /></td> td><select name="gender1" value="" ><option value='Male'>Male</option><option value='Female'>Female</option></select></td> <td><select name="age_group"value="" ><option value='18 to 30'>18 to 30</option><option value='31 to 60'>31 to 60</option></select></td> </tr> When I POST, let us say I have three sets of input(3 table rows as above), Is there a simple way to insert into the addional_member table the data from row one, then row two, and so on. I tried looping the insert statement, which failed. I am basically open to suggestions, I do not need to use a table. Any ideas, Thank you.

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• charsets in MySQL replication

  - by niklassaers

  Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

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• How do I return an array from a method?

  - by dwwilson66

  I'm trying to create a deck of cards for my homework. Code is posted below. I need to create four sets of cards (the four suits) and am create a multidimensional array. When I print the results instead of trying to pass the array, I can see that the data in the array is as expected. However, when I try to pass the array card, I get an error cannot find symbol. I've got this modeled after texbook and Java tutorial examples, and I need some help figuring out what I'm missing. I've over-documented to give an idea of how I'm thinking this SHOULD work...please let me know where I've gone horribly wrong in my understanding. import java.util.*; import java.lang.*; // public class CardGame { public static int[][] main(String[] args) { int[][] startDeck = deckOfCards(); /* cast new deck as int[][], calling method deckOfCards System.out.println(" /// from array: " + Arrays.deepToString(startDeck)); } public static int[][] deckOfCards() /* method to return a multi-dimensional array */ { int rank; int suit; for(rank=1;rank<14;rank++) /* cards 1 - 13 .... */ { for(suit=1;suit<5;suit++) /* suits 1 - 4 .... */ { int[][] card = new int[][] /* define a new card... */ { {rank,suit} /* with rank/suit from for... loops */ }; System.out.println(" /// from array: " + Arrays.deepToString(card)); } } return card; /* Error: cannot find symbol } }

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• WPF - How do I use the UserControl with a dependency property and view model?

  - by user320849

  Hello, My goal is to have a user select a year and a month. Translate the selection into a date and have the user control send the date back to my view model. That part works for me....However, I cannot get the ViewModel's initial date to set those drop downs. public static readonly DependencyProperty Date = DependencyProperty.Register("ReturnDate", typeof(DateTime), typeof(DatePicker), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata{BindsTwoWayByDefault = true,}); public DateTime ReturnDate { get { return Convert.ToDateTime(GetValue(Date)); } set { SetDropDowns(value); SetValue(Date, value); } } The SetDropDowns(value) just sets the selected items on the combo boxes, however, the program never makes it to that method. On the view I am using: <cc1:DatePicker ReturnDate="{Binding Path=StartDate, Mode=TwoWay}" IsStart="True" /> If this has been answered, then my bad. I looked around and didn't see anything that worked for me. Thus, when the program loads how do I get the value from the view model to a method in order to set the combo boxes? Thanks, -Scott

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• Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

  - by Horace Loeb

  Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

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• Displaying Flex Object References

  - by Pie21

  I have a bit of a memory leak issue in my Flex application, and the short version of my question is: is there any way (in AcitonScript 3) to find all live references to a given object? What I have is a number of views with presentation models behind each of them (using Swiz). The views of interest are children of a TabNavigator, so when I close the tab, the view is removed from the stage. When the view is removed from the stage, Swiz sets the model reference in the view to null, as it should. I also removeAllChildren() from the view. However when profiling the application, when I do this and run a GC, neither the view nor the presentation model are freed (though both set their references to each other to null). One model object used by the view (not a presenter, though) IS freed, so it's not completely broken. I've only just started profiling today (firmly believing in not optimising too early), so I imagine there's some kind of reference floating around somewhere, but I can't see where, and what would be super helpful would be the ability to debug and see a list of objects that reference the target object. Is this at all possible, and if not natively, is there some light-weight way to code this into future apps for debugging purposes? Cheers.

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• Sourcing a shell script, while running with sudo

  - by WishCow

  I would like to write a shell script that sets up a mercurial repository, and allow all users in the group "developers" to execute this script. The script is owned by the user "hg", and works fine when ran. The problem comes when I try to run it with another user, using sudo, the execution halts with a "permission denied" error, when it tries to source another file. The script file in question: create_repo.sh #!/bin/bash source colors.sh REPOROOT="/srv/repository/mercurial/" ... rest of the script .... Permissions of create_repo.sh, and colors.sh: -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 551 2011-01-07 10:20 colors.sh -rwxr--r-- 1 hg hg 1137 2011-01-07 11:08 create_repo.sh Sudoers setup: %developer ALL = (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh What I'm trying to run: user@nebu:~$ id uid=1000(user) gid=1000(user) groups=4(adm),20(dialout),24(cdrom),46(plugdev),105(lpadmin),113(sambashare),116(admin),1000(user),1001(developer) user@nebu:~$ sudo -l Matching Defaults entries for user on this host: env_reset User user may run the following commands on this host: (ALL) ALL (hg) NOPASSWD: /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh: line 3: colors.sh: Permission denied So the script is executed, but halts when it tries to include the other script. I have also tried using: user@nebu:~$ sudo -u hg /bin/bash /home/hg/scripts/create_repo.sh Which gives the same result. What is the correct way to include another shell script, if the script may be ran with a different user, through sudo?

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• Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

  - by jp2code

  On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

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• NES Programming - Nametables?

  - by Jeffrey Kern

  Hello everyone, I'm wondering about how the NES displays its graphical muscle. I've researched stuff online and read through it, but I'm wondering about one last thing: Nametables. Basically, from what I've read, each 8x8 block in a NES nametable points to a location in the pattern table, which holds graphic memory. In addition, the nametable also has an attribute table which sets a certain color palette for each 16x16 block. They're linked up together like this: (assuming 16 8x8 blocks) Nametable, with A B C D = pointers to sprite data: ABBB CDCC DDDD DDDD Attribute table, with 1 2 3 = pointers to color palette data, with < referencing value to the left, ^ above, and ' to the left and above: 1<2< ^'^' 3<3< ^'^' So, in the example above, the blocks would be colored as so 1A 1B 2B 2B 1C 1D 2C 2C 3D 3D 3D 3D 3D 3D 3D 3D Now, if I have this on a fixed screen - it works great! Because the NES resolution is 256x240 pixels. Now, how do these tables get adjusted for scrolling? Because Nametable 0 can scroll into Nametable 1, and if you keep scrolling Nametable 0 will wrap around again. That I get. But what I don't get is how to scroll the attribute table wraps around as well. From what I've read online, the 16x16 blocks it assigns attributes for will cause color distortions on the edge tiles of the screen (as seen when you scroll left to right and vice-versa in SMB3). The concern I have is that I understand how to scroll the nametables, but how do you scroll the attribute table? For intsance, if I have a green block on the left side of the screen, moving the screen to right should in theory cause the tiles to the right to be green as well until they move more into frame, to which they'll revert to their normal colors.

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• JavaScript cookie value can't be retrieved in Django

  - by Boris Rusev

  I am trying to build a web site in both English and Bulgarian using the Django framework. My idea is the user should click on a button, the page will reload and the language will be changed. This is how I am trying to do it: In my html I hava a the button tag <button id='btn' onclick="changeLanguage();" type="button"> ... </button> An excerpt from cookies.js: function changeLanguage() { if (getCookie('language') == 'EN') { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'BG'); } else { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'EN'); } } function setCookie(sName, sValue, oExpires, sPath, sDomain, bSecure) { var sCookie = sName + "=" + encodeURIComponent(sValue); if (oExpires) { sCookie += "; expires=" + oExpires.toGMTString(); } if (sPath) { sCookie += "; path=" + sPath; } if (sDomain) { sCookie += "; domain=" + sDomain; } if (bSecure) { sCookie += "; secure"; } document.cookie = sCookie; } And in my views.py file this is the situation @base def index(request): if request.session['language'] == 'EN': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "Home" else request.session['language'] == 'BG': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "??????" So I know that my JS changes the value of the language cookie but I think Django doesn't get that. On the other hand when I set and get the cookie in my Python code again the cookie is set. My question is whether there is a way to make JS and Django work together - JavaScript sets the cookie value and Python only reads it when asked and takes adequate actions? Thank you.

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• return only the last select results from stored procedure

  - by Madalina Dragomir

  The requirement says: stored procedure meant to search data, based on 5 identifiers. If there is an exact match return ONLY the exact match, if not but there is an exact match on the not null parameters return ONLY these results, otherwise return any match on any 4 not null parameters... and so on My (simplified) code looks like: create procedure xxxSearch @a nvarchar(80), @b nvarchar(80)... as begin select whatever from MyTable t where ((@a is null and t.a is null) or (@a = t.a)) and ((@b is null and t.b is null) or (@b = t.b))... if @@ROWCOUNT = 0 begin select whatever from MyTable t where ((@a is null) or (@a = t.a)) and ((@b is null) or (@b = t.b))... if @@ROWCOUNT = 0 begin ... end end end As a result there can be more sets of results selected, the first ones empty and I only need the last one. I know that it is easy to get the only the last result set on the application side, but all our stored procedure calls go through a framework that expects the significant results in the first table and I'm not eager to change it and test all the existing SPs. Is there a way to return only the last select results from a stored procedure? Is there a better way to do this task ?

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• How to force positioned elements to stay withing viewable browser area?

  - by jessegavin

  I have a script which inserts "popup" elements into the DOM. It sets their top and left css properties relative to mouse coordinates on a click event. It works great except that the height of these "popup" elements are variable and some of them extend beyond the viewable area of the browser window. I would like to avoid this. Here's what I have so far <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("area").click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); var offset = $(this).offset(); var relativeX = e.pageX - offset.left; var relativeY = e.pageY - offset.top; // 'responseText' is the "popup" HTML fragment $.get($(this).attr("href"), function (responseText) { $(responseText).css({ top: relativeY, left: relativeX }).appendTo("#territories"); // Need to be able to determine // viewable area width and height // so that I can check if the "popup" // extends beyond. $(".popup .close").click(function () { $(this).closest(".popup").remove(); }); }); }); }); </script>

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