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• How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

  - by sperling

  How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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• NES Programming - Nametables?

  - by Jeffrey Kern

  Hello everyone, I'm wondering about how the NES displays its graphical muscle. I've researched stuff online and read through it, but I'm wondering about one last thing: Nametables. Basically, from what I've read, each 8x8 block in a NES nametable points to a location in the pattern table, which holds graphic memory. In addition, the nametable also has an attribute table which sets a certain color palette for each 16x16 block. They're linked up together like this: (assuming 16 8x8 blocks) Nametable, with A B C D = pointers to sprite data: ABBB CDCC DDDD DDDD Attribute table, with 1 2 3 = pointers to color palette data, with < referencing value to the left, ^ above, and ' to the left and above: 1<2< ^'^' 3<3< ^'^' So, in the example above, the blocks would be colored as so 1A 1B 2B 2B 1C 1D 2C 2C 3D 3D 3D 3D 3D 3D 3D 3D Now, if I have this on a fixed screen - it works great! Because the NES resolution is 256x240 pixels. Now, how do these tables get adjusted for scrolling? Because Nametable 0 can scroll into Nametable 1, and if you keep scrolling Nametable 0 will wrap around again. That I get. But what I don't get is how to scroll the attribute table wraps around as well. From what I've read online, the 16x16 blocks it assigns attributes for will cause color distortions on the edge tiles of the screen (as seen when you scroll left to right and vice-versa in SMB3). The concern I have is that I understand how to scroll the nametables, but how do you scroll the attribute table? For intsance, if I have a green block on the left side of the screen, moving the screen to right should in theory cause the tiles to the right to be green as well until they move more into frame, to which they'll revert to their normal colors.

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• How do I reference my MainViewController from another class?

  - by todd412

  Hi, I am building an iPhone Utility app that uses UIImageView to display an animation. Within the MainViewController's viewDidLoad() method, I am creating an instance of a CustomClass, and then setting up the animations: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; cc = [CustomClass new]; NSArray * imageArray = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-1-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-2-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-3-off.jpg"], [UIImage imageNamed:@"image-4-off.jpg"], nil]; offSequence = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; offSequence.animationImages = imageArray; offSequence.animationDuration = .8; offSequence.contentMode = UIViewContentModeBottomLeft; [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; [offSequence startAnimating]; } That works fine. However, I would like to be able to move all the above code that sets up the UIImageView into my CustomClass. The problem is in the second to last line: [self.view addSubview:offSequence]; I basically need to replace 'self' with a reference to the MainControllerView, so I can call addSubview from within my CustomClass. I tried creating an instance var of CustomClass called mvc and a setter method that takes a reference to the MainViewController as an argument as such: - (void) setMainViewController: (MainViewController *) the_mvc { mvc = the_mvc; } And then I called it within MainViewController like so: [cc setMainController:MainViewController:self]; But this yields all sorts of errors which I can post here, but it strikes me that I may be overcomplicating this. Is there an easier way to reference the MainViewController that instanatiated my CustomClass?

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• Returning HTML in the JS portion of a respond_to block throws errors in IE

  - by Horace Loeb

  Here's a common pattern in my controller actions: respond_to do |format| format.html {} format.js { render :layout => false } end I.e., if the request is non-AJAX, I'll send the HTML content in a layout on a brand new page. If the request is AJAX, I'll send down the same content, but without a layout (so that it can be inserted into the existing page or put into a lightbox or whatever). So I'm always returning HTML in the format.js portion, yet Rails sets the Content-Type response header to text/javascript. This causes IE to throw this fun little error message: Of course I could set the content-type of the response every time I did this (or use an after_filter or whatever), but it seems like I'm trying to do something relatively standard and I don't want to add additional boilerplate code. How do I fix this problem? Alternatively, if the only way to fix the problem is to change the content-type of the response, what's the best way to achieve the behavior I want (i.e., sending down content with layout for non-AJAX and the same content without a layout for AJAX) without having to deal with these errors? Edit: This blog post has some more info

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• Save result of for loop in a vector

  - by hendrik

  i think I'm just too tired to see the mistake. i wrote a function to get the maximal value for two data sets from a for loop plot_zu <- function(x) {for (i in 1:x){ z=data_raw[grep(a[i], data_raw$Gene.names),] b=data_raw_ace[grep(a[i], data_raw_ace$Gene.names),] p<-vector("numeric", length(1:length(a))) p[i]<-max(z$t_test_diff) return(p)} } so picture: a is a vector of names and the data set (data_raw(_ace)) are filtered by it. In the end i would like to have all maxima values of column t_test_diff in a vector. After that i want to add the t_test_diff column values from data_raw_ace also. So the problem is, that i get this: [1] 1.210213 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 [8] 0.000000 0.000000 So there is a problem with brackets or something but i cannot see it ( first value fits). Sorry for no good example but i think it is understandable and an easy to solve question. If im to dumb to explain my problem right, i will add an example. !! Thx a lot !! grateful Hendrik

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• How to force positioned elements to stay withing viewable browser area?

  - by jessegavin

  I have a script which inserts "popup" elements into the DOM. It sets their top and left css properties relative to mouse coordinates on a click event. It works great except that the height of these "popup" elements are variable and some of them extend beyond the viewable area of the browser window. I would like to avoid this. Here's what I have so far <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("area").click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); var offset = $(this).offset(); var relativeX = e.pageX - offset.left; var relativeY = e.pageY - offset.top; // 'responseText' is the "popup" HTML fragment $.get($(this).attr("href"), function (responseText) { $(responseText).css({ top: relativeY, left: relativeX }).appendTo("#territories"); // Need to be able to determine // viewable area width and height // so that I can check if the "popup" // extends beyond. $(".popup .close").click(function () { $(this).closest(".popup").remove(); }); }); }); }); </script>

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• Stored Procedure Does Not Fire Last Command

  - by jp2code

  On our SQL Server (Version 10.0.1600), I have a stored procedure that I wrote. It is not throwing any errors, and it is returning the correct values after making the insert in the database. However, the last command spSendEventNotificationEmail (which sends out email notifications) is not being run. I can run the spSendEventNotificationEmail script manually using the same data, and the notifications show up, so I know it works. Is there something wrong with how I call it in my stored procedure? [dbo].[spUpdateRequest](@packetID int, @statusID int output, @empID int, @mtf nVarChar(50)) AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @id int SET @id=-1 -- Insert statements for procedure here SELECT A.ID, PacketID, StatusID INTO #act FROM Action A JOIN Request R ON (R.ID=A.RequestID) WHERE (PacketID=@packetID) AND (StatusID=@statusID) IF ((SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #act)=0) BEGIN -- this statusID has not been entered. Continue SELECT ID, MTF INTO #req FROM Request WHERE PacketID=@packetID WHILE (0 < (SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM #req)) BEGIN SELECT TOP 1 @id=ID FROM #req INSERT INTO Action (RequestID, StatusID, EmpID, DateStamp) VALUES (@id, @statusID, @empID, GETDATE()) IF ((@mtf IS NOT NULL) AND (0 < LEN(RTRIM(@mtf)))) BEGIN UPDATE Request SET MTF=@mtf WHERE ID=@id END DELETE #req WHERE ID=@id END DROP TABLE #req SELECT @id=@@IDENTITY, @statusID=StatusID FROM Action SELECT TOP 1 @statusID=ID FROM Status WHERE (@statusID<ID) AND (-1 < Sequence) EXEC spSendEventNotificationEmail @packetID, @statusID, 'http:\\cpweb:8100\NextStep.aspx' END ELSE BEGIN SET @statusID = -1 END DROP TABLE #act END Idea of how the data tables are connected:

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• What's the order of execution in property setters when using IDataErrorInfo?

  - by Benny Jobigan

  Situation: Many times with WPF, we use INotifyPropertyChanged and IDataErrorInfo to enable binding and validation on our data objects. I've got a lot of properties that look like this: public SomeObject SomeData { get { return _SomeData; } set { _SomeData = value; OnPropertyChanged("SomeData"); } } Of course, I have an appropriate overridden IDataErrorInfo.this[] in my class to do validation. Question: In a binding situation, when does the validation code get executed? When is the property set? When is the setter code executed? What if the validation fails? For example: User enters new data. Binding writes data to property. Property set method is executed. Binding checks this[] for validation. If the data is invalid, the binding sets the property back to the old value. Property set method is executed again. This is important if you are adding "hooks" into the set method, like: public string PathToFile { get { return _PathToFile; } set { if (_PathToFile != value && // prevent unnecessary actions OnPathToFileChanging(value)) // allow subclasses to do something or stop the setter { _PathToFile = value; OnPathToFileChanged(); // allow subclasses to do something afterwards OnPropertyChanged("PathToFile"); } } }

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• charsets in MySQL replication

  - by niklassaers

  Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

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• SQL Server 2008 spatial index and CPU utilization with MapGuide Open Source 2.1

  - by Antonio de la Peña

  I have a SQL Server table with hundreds of thousands of geometry type parcels. I have made indexes on them trying different combinations of density and objects per cell settings. So far I'm settiling for LOW, LOW, MEDIUM, MEDIUM and 16 objects per cell and I made a SP that sets the bounding box according to the extents of the entities in the table. There is an incredible performance boost from queries taking almost minutes without index to less than seconds, it gets faster when the zoom is closer thus less objects are displayed. Yet the CPU utilization gets to 100% when querying for features, even when the queries themselves are fast. I'm worrying this will not fly in a production environment. I am using MapGuide Open Source 2.1 for this project, but I am positive the CPU load is caused by SQL Server. I wonder if my indexes are set properly. I haven't found any clear documentation on how to properly set them up. Every article I've read basically says "it depends..." but nothing specific. Do you have any recommendations for me, including books, articles? Thank you.

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• How does C#'s DateTime.Now affect query plan caching in SQL Server?

  - by Bill Paetzke

  Given: Let's say we have a stored procedure. It reports data back to a user on a webpage. The user can set a date range. If the user sets today's date as the "end date," which includes today's data, the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc. Let's say that one user runs a report--5/1/2010 to now--over and over several times. On the webpage, the user sees "5/1/2010" to "5/4/2010." But the web app passes DateTime.Now to the sql proc as the end date. So, the end date in the proc will always be different, although the user is querying a similar date range. Assume the number of records in the table and number of users are large. So any performance gains matter. Hence the importance of the question. Question: Does passing DateTime.Now as a parameter to a proc prevent SQL Server from caching the query plan? If so, then is the web app missing out on huge performance gains? Possible Solution: I thought DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) would be a possible solution. It would allow the user to get the latest data and always pass the same end date to the sql proc--"5/5/2010" in this case. Please speak to this as well. Sample proc and execution (if that helps to understand): CREATE PROCEDURE GetFooData @StartDate datetime @EndDate datetime AS SELECT * FROM Foo WHERE LogDate >= @StartDate AND LogDate < @EndDate Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Now: EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-04 15:41:27' -- passed in DateTime.Now Here's a sample execution using DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) EXEC GetFooData '2010-05-01', '2010-05-05' -- passed in DateTime.Today.AddDays(1) The same data is returned for both procs, since the current time is: 2010-05-04 15:41:27.

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• Managed bean property value not set to null

  - by Vladimir

  Hi! I'm new to JSF, so this question might be strange. I have an inputText component's value bound to managed bean's property of type Float. I need to set property to null when inputText field is empty, not to 0 value. It's not done by default, so I added converter with the following method implemented: public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { if (StringUtils.isEmpty(arg2)) { return null; } float result = Float.parseFloat(arg2); if (result == 0) { return null; } return result; } I registered converter, and assigned it to inputText component. I logged arg2 argument, and also logged return value from getAsObject method. By my log I can see that it returns null value. But, I also log setter property on backing bean and argument is 0 value, not null as expected. To be more precise, it is setter property is called twice, once with null argument, second time with 0 value argument. It still sets backing bean value to 0. How can I set value to null? Thanks in advance.

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• PHP: saving multiple tuples to the same table

  - by Binaryrespawn

  Hi all, I am trying to save data into the same table several times from the same $_POST array. You see, on my registration form a family is allowed to specify the names, gender and age of all members they wish to bring along. This data is being stored in a database table called aditional_member. Based on family size, I am dynamically generating html table rows where each row has the number of input fields required. <tr id="additionalmember_3"> <td><input type="text" name="first_name1" maxlength="50" value="" /></td> <td><input type="text" name="last_name1" maxlength="50" value="" /></td> td><select name="gender1" value="" ><option value='Male'>Male</option><option value='Female'>Female</option></select></td> <td><select name="age_group"value="" ><option value='18 to 30'>18 to 30</option><option value='31 to 60'>31 to 60</option></select></td> </tr> When I POST, let us say I have three sets of input(3 table rows as above), Is there a simple way to insert into the addional_member table the data from row one, then row two, and so on. I tried looping the insert statement, which failed. I am basically open to suggestions, I do not need to use a table. Any ideas, Thank you.

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• INSERT stored procedure does not work?

  - by vikitor

  Hello, I'm trying to make an insertion from one database called suspension to the table called Notification in the ANimals database. My stored procedure is this: ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[spCreateNotification] -- Add the parameters for the stored procedure here @notRecID int, @notName nvarchar(50), @notRecStatus nvarchar(1), @notAdded smalldatetime, @notByWho int AS BEGIN -- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from -- interfering with SELECT statements. SET NOCOUNT ON; -- Insert statements for procedure here INSERT INTO Animals.dbo.Notification values (@notRecID, @notName, @notRecStatus, null, @notAdded, @notByWho); END The null inserting is to replenish one column that otherwise will not be filled, I've tried different ways, like using also the names for the columns after the name of the table and then only indicate in values the fields I've got. I know it is not a problem of the stored procedure because I executed it from the sql server management studio and it works introducing the parameters. Then I guess the problem must be in the repository when I call the stored procedure: public void createNotification(Notification not) { try { DB.spCreateNotification(not.NotRecID, not.NotName, not.NotRecStatus, (DateTime)not.NotAdded, (int)not.NotByWho); } catch { return; } } It does not record the value in the database. I've been debugging and getting mad about this, because it works when I execute it manually, but not when I automatize the proccess in my application. Does anyone see anything wrong with my code? Thank you

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• SqlCeResultSet Problem

  - by Vlad

  Hello, I have a SmartDevice project (.NetCF 2.0) configured to be tested on the USA Windows Mobile 5.0 Pocket PC R2 Emulator. My project uses SqlCe 3.0. Understanding that a SmartDevice project is "more carefull" with the device's memory I am using SqlCeResultSets. The result sets are strongly typed, autogenerated by Visual Studio 2008 using the custom tool MSResultSetGenerator. The problem I am facing is that the result set does not recognize any column names. The autogenerated code for the fields does not work. In the client code I am using InfoResultSet rs = new InfoResultSet(); rs.Open(); rs.ReadFirst(); string myFormattedDate = rs.MyDateColumn.ToString("dd/MM/yyyy"); When the execution on the emulator reaches the rs.MyDateColumn the application throws an System.IndexOutOfRangeException. Investigating the stack trace at System.Data.SqlServerCe.FieldNameLookup.GetOrdinal() at System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeDataReader.GetOrdinal() I've tested the GetOrdinal method (in my autogenerated class that inherits SqlCeResultSet): this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"); // throws an exception this.GetName(1); // returns "MyDateColumn" this.GetOrdinal(this.GetName(1)); //throws an exception :) [edit added] The table exists and it's filled with data. Using typed DataSets works like a charm. Regenerating the SqlCeResultSet does not solve the issue, the problem remains. The problem basically is that I am not able to access a column by it's name. The data can be accessed trough this.GetDateTime(1)using the column ordinal. The application fails executing this.GetOrdinal("MyDateColumn"). Also I have updated Visual Studio 2008 to Service Pack 1. Additionaly I am developing the project on a virtual machine with Windows XP SP 2, but in my opinion if the medium is virtual or not should have no effect on the developing. Am I doing something wrong or am I missing something? Thank you.

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• Entity Framework: Auto-updating foreign key when setting a new object reference

  - by Adrian Grigore

  Hi, I am porting an existing application from Linq to SQL to Entity Framework 4 (default code generation). One difference I noticed between the two is that a foreign key property are not updated when resetting the object reference. Now I need to decide how to deal with this. For example supposing you have two entity types, Company and Employee. One Company has many Employees. In Linq To SQL, setting the company also sets the company id: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Works fine! In Entity Framework (and without using any code template customization) this does not work: var company=new Company(ID=1); var employee=new Employee(); Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==0); employee.Company=company; Debug.Assert(employee.CompanyID==1); //Throws, since CompanyID was not updated! How can I make EF behave the same way as LinqToSQL? I had a look at the default code generation T4 template, but I could not figure out how to make the necessary changes.

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• How to use associated Model as datasource for DataView

  - by Chris Gilbert

  I have a Model structure as shown below and I want to know how to use the Bookings array as the datasource of my DataView. Model Structure: Client ClientId Name Bookings (HasManyAssociation) Contacts (HasManyAssociation) AjaxProxy JsonReader (ImplicitIncludes is set to true so child models are created with one call) Booking BookingNodeId BookingDetails Contact ContactNodeId ContactDetails The above gives me a data structure as follows: Client Bookings[ Booking Booking ] Contacts[ Contact Contact ] What I want to be able to do is either, create a Store from my Bookings array and then use that store as the datasource for my DataView OR directly use the Bookings array as the datasource (I don't really care how I do it to be honest). If I setup the AjaxProxy on my Booking model it works fine but then obviously I cannot automatically create my Client and Contacts when I load my JSON. It seems to me to make sense that the Client model, being the top level model hierarchically, is the one to load the data. EDIT: I figured it out as follows (with special thanks to handet87 below for his dataview.setStore() pointer). The key in this case is to know that creating the relationship actually sets up another store called, in this case BookingsStore and ContactsStore. All I needed to do was dataview.setStore("BookingsStore")

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• JavaScript cookie value can't be retrieved in Django

  - by Boris Rusev

  I am trying to build a web site in both English and Bulgarian using the Django framework. My idea is the user should click on a button, the page will reload and the language will be changed. This is how I am trying to do it: In my html I hava a the button tag <button id='btn' onclick="changeLanguage();" type="button"> ... </button> An excerpt from cookies.js: function changeLanguage() { if (getCookie('language') == 'EN') { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'BG'); } else { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'EN'); } } function setCookie(sName, sValue, oExpires, sPath, sDomain, bSecure) { var sCookie = sName + "=" + encodeURIComponent(sValue); if (oExpires) { sCookie += "; expires=" + oExpires.toGMTString(); } if (sPath) { sCookie += "; path=" + sPath; } if (sDomain) { sCookie += "; domain=" + sDomain; } if (bSecure) { sCookie += "; secure"; } document.cookie = sCookie; } And in my views.py file this is the situation @base def index(request): if request.session['language'] == 'EN': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "Home" else request.session['language'] == 'BG': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "??????" So I know that my JS changes the value of the language cookie but I think Django doesn't get that. On the other hand when I set and get the cookie in my Python code again the cookie is set. My question is whether there is a way to make JS and Django work together - JavaScript sets the cookie value and Python only reads it when asked and takes adequate actions? Thank you.

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• How do I return an array from a method?

  - by dwwilson66

  I'm trying to create a deck of cards for my homework. Code is posted below. I need to create four sets of cards (the four suits) and am create a multidimensional array. When I print the results instead of trying to pass the array, I can see that the data in the array is as expected. However, when I try to pass the array card, I get an error cannot find symbol. I've got this modeled after texbook and Java tutorial examples, and I need some help figuring out what I'm missing. I've over-documented to give an idea of how I'm thinking this SHOULD work...please let me know where I've gone horribly wrong in my understanding. import java.util.*; import java.lang.*; // public class CardGame { public static int[][] main(String[] args) { int[][] startDeck = deckOfCards(); /* cast new deck as int[][], calling method deckOfCards System.out.println(" /// from array: " + Arrays.deepToString(startDeck)); } public static int[][] deckOfCards() /* method to return a multi-dimensional array */ { int rank; int suit; for(rank=1;rank<14;rank++) /* cards 1 - 13 .... */ { for(suit=1;suit<5;suit++) /* suits 1 - 4 .... */ { int[][] card = new int[][] /* define a new card... */ { {rank,suit} /* with rank/suit from for... loops */ }; System.out.println(" /// from array: " + Arrays.deepToString(card)); } } return card; /* Error: cannot find symbol } }

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• Heavy Mysql operation & Time Constraints [closed]

  - by Rahul Jha

  There is a performance issue where that I have stuck with my application which is based on PHP & MySql. The application is for Data Migration where data has to be uploaded and after various processes (Cleaning from foreign characters, duplicate check, id generation) it has to be inserted into one central table and then to 5 different tables. There, an id is generated and that id has to be updated to central table. There are different sets of records and validation rules. The problem I am facing is that when I insert say(4K) rows file (containing 20 columns) it is working fine within 15 min it gets inserted everywhere. But, when I insert the same records again then at this time it is taking one hour to insert (ideally it should get inserted by marking earlier inserted data as duplicate). After going through the log file, I noticed is that there is a Mysql select statement where I am checking the duplicates and getting ID which are duplicates. Then I am calling a function inside for loop which is basically inserting records into 5 tables and updates id to central table. This Calling function is major time of whole process. P.S. The records has to be inserted record by record.. Kindly Suggest some solution.. //This is that sample code $query=mysql_query("SELECT DISTINCT p1.ID FROM table1 p1, table2 p2, table3 a WHERE p2.datatype =0 AND (p1.datatype =1 || p1.datatype=2) AND p2.ID =0 AND p1.ID = a.ID AND p1.coulmn1 = p2.column1 AND p1.coulmn2 = p2.coulmn2 AND a.coulmn3 = p2.column3"); $num=mysql_num_rows($query); for($i=0;$i<$num;$i++) { $f=mysql_result($query,$i,"ID"); //calling function RecordInsert($f); }

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• What is the process involved in viewing a webservice in a browser from within visual studio?

  - by Sam Holder

  I have created a new VS2008 ASP.Net Web service project, with the default name WebService1. If I right click on the Service1.asmx file and select 'View in Browser' what are the processes that go on to make this happen? I am asking because I have a situation where when I run this from a visual studio project started in our development shell (which sets up a common build environment) I cannot get the web service to show up in the browser. It starts the asp.net development server and creates a single file: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c43ddc22\268ae91b\hash\hash.web but when I start it from a stand alone project i get a whole slew of files in here: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\App_Web_defaultwsdlhelpgenerator.aspx.cdcab7d2.vicgkf94.dll C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\service1.asmx.cdcab7d2.compiled etc etc I am trying to debug this but not really getting anywhere. i have inspected the output from VS but the only option I get is for the build output, which is basic and doesn't really contain any information that is useful. I have tried running both versions with DebugView running but no output there either. I would like to know if there are any log files I could look at, or if anyone has any suggestions on how I might be able to debug what is going wrong here? For completeness the output I get when it doesn't work is: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not create type 'WebService1.Service1'. Source Error: Line 1: Source File: /Service1.asmx Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082

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• how does one _model_ data from relational databases in clojure ?

  - by sandeep

  I have asked this question on twitter as well the #clojure IRC channel, yet got no responses. There have been several articles about Clojure-for-Ruby-programmers, Clojure-for-lisp-programmers.. but what is the missing part is Clojure for ActiveRecord programmers . There have been articles about interacting with MongoDB, Redis, etc. - but these are key value stores at the end of the day. However, coming from a Rails background, we are used to thinking about databases in terms of inheritance - has_many, polymorphic, belongs_to, etc. The few articles about Clojure/Compojure + MySQL (ffclassic) - delve right into sql. Of course, it might be that an ORM induces impedence mismatch, but the fact remains that after thinking like ActiveRecord, it is very difficult to think any other way. I believe that relational DBs, lend themselves very well to the object-oriented paradigm because of them being , essentially, Sets. Stuff like activerecord is very well suited for modelling this data. For e.g. a blog - simply put class Post < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :comments end class Comment < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post end How does one model this in Clojure - which is so strictly anti-OO ? Perhaps the question would have been better if it referred to all functional programming languages, but I am more interested from a Clojure standpoint (and Clojure examples)

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• Convert Google Analytics cookies to Local/Session Storage

  - by David Murdoch

  Google Analytics sets 4 cookies that will be sent with all requests to that domain (and ofset its subdomains). From what I can tell no server actually uses them directly; they're only sent with __utm.gif as a query param. Now, obviously Google Analytics reads, writes and acts on their values and they will need to be available to the GA tracking script. So, what I am wondering is if it is possible to: rewrite the __utm* cookies to local storage after ga.js has written them delete them after ga.js has run rewrite the cookies FROM local storage back to cookie form right before ga.js reads them start over Or, monkey patch ga.js to use local storage before it begins the cookie read/write part. Obviously if we are going so far out of the way to remove the __utm* cookies we'll want to also use the Async variant of Analytics. I'm guessing the down vote was because I didn't ask a question. DOH! My questions are: Can it be done as described above? If so, why hasn't it been done? I have a default HTML/CSS/JS boilerplate template that passes YSlow, PageSpeed, and Chrome's Audit with near perfect scores. I'm really looking for a way to squeeze those remaining cookie bytes from Google Analytics in browsers that support local storage.

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• What is an efficient strategy for multiple threads posting jobs and waiting for response from a single thread?

  - by jakewins

  In java, what is an efficient solution to the following problem: I have multiple threads (10-20 or so) generating jobs ("Job Creators"), and a single thread capable of performing them ("The worker"). Once a job creator has posted a job, it should wait for the job to finish, yielding no result other than "it's done", before it keeps going. For sending the jobs to the worker thread, I think a ring buffer or similar standard fan-in setup would perhaps be a good approach? But for a Job Creator to find out that her job has been done, I'm not so sure.. The job creators could sleep, and the worker interrupt them when done.. Or each job creator could have an atomic boolean that it checks, and that the worker sets. I dunno, neither of those feel very nice. I'd like to do it with as few (none, if possible) locks as absolutely possible. So to be clear: What I'm looking for is speed, not necessarily simplicity. Does anyone have any suggestions? Links to reading about concurrency strategies would also be very welcome!

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• return only the last select results from stored procedure

  - by Madalina Dragomir

  The requirement says: stored procedure meant to search data, based on 5 identifiers. If there is an exact match return ONLY the exact match, if not but there is an exact match on the not null parameters return ONLY these results, otherwise return any match on any 4 not null parameters... and so on My (simplified) code looks like: create procedure xxxSearch @a nvarchar(80), @b nvarchar(80)... as begin select whatever from MyTable t where ((@a is null and t.a is null) or (@a = t.a)) and ((@b is null and t.b is null) or (@b = t.b))... if @@ROWCOUNT = 0 begin select whatever from MyTable t where ((@a is null) or (@a = t.a)) and ((@b is null) or (@b = t.b))... if @@ROWCOUNT = 0 begin ... end end end As a result there can be more sets of results selected, the first ones empty and I only need the last one. I know that it is easy to get the only the last result set on the application side, but all our stored procedure calls go through a framework that expects the significant results in the first table and I'm not eager to change it and test all the existing SPs. Is there a way to return only the last select results from a stored procedure? Is there a better way to do this task ?

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