Search Results

Search found 5554 results on 223 pages for 'attribute'.

Page 193/223 | < Previous Page | 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200  | Next Page >

  • Form submits but by passing the form validation when button.click is used

    - by Cuty Pie
    I am using form validation plugin as well as html5 attribute=recquired with input type=button or submit and fancybox.when button is clicked ,both validation proceedures work(notification of empty inputs appeare),but instead of this notification ,form is submitted. If I dont use button.click function but use simple submit.then validation works perfectly plugin==http://validatious.org/ javascript function $(document).ready(function() { $('#send').click(function() { $(this).attr("value", 'Applying...'); var id = getParam('ID'); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:"send.php", data:{option:'catapply', tittle:$('#tittle').val(), aud:aud, con:con, adv:adv, mid:$('#mid').val(), aud2:aud, cid:$('#cid').val(), scid:$('#scname option[selected="saa"]').val(), gtt:$('input[name=gt]:radio:checked').val(), sr:$(":input").serialize() + '&aud=' + aud}, success:function(jd) { $('#' + id).fadeOut("fast", function() { $(this).before("<strong>Success! Your form has been submitted, thanks :)</strong>"); setTimeout("$.fancybox.close()", 1000); }); } }); }); }); AND Html is here <form id="form2" class="validate" style="display: none" > <input type='submit' value='Apply' id="send" class="sendaf validate_any" name="jobforming"/>

    Read the article

  • Behavior difference between UIView.subviews and [NSView subviews]

    - by zpasternack
    I have a piece of code in an iPhone app, which removes all subviews from a UIView subclass. It looks like this: NSArray* subViews = self.subviews; for( UIView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } This works fine. In fact, I never really gave it much thought until I tried nearly the same thing in a Mac OS X app (from an NSView subclass): NSArray* subViews = [self subviews]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } That totally doesn’t work. Specifically, at runtime, I get this: *** Collection <NSCFArray: 0x1005208a0> was mutated while being enumerated. I ended up doing it like so: NSArray* subViews = [[self subviews] copy]; for( NSView *aView in subViews ) { [aView removeFromSuperview]; } [subViews release]; That's fine. What’s bugging me, though, is why does it work on the iPhone? subviews is a copy property: @property(nonatomic,readonly,copy) NSArray *subviews; My first thought was, maybe @synthesize’d getters return a copy when the copy attribute is specified. The doc is clear on the semantics of copy for setters, but doesn’t appear to say either way for getters (or at least, it’s not apparent to me). And actually, doing a few tests of my own, this clearly does not seem to be the case. Which is good, I think returning a copy would be problematic, for a few reasons. So the question is: how does the above code work on the iPhone? NSView is clearly returning a pointer to the actual array of subviews, and perhaps UIView isn’t. Perhaps it’s simply an implementation detail of UIView, and I shouldn’t get worked up about it. Can anyone offer any insight?

    Read the article

  • Web Reference Code generator template.

    - by Bluephlame
    I Have an internal SOAP Web service that is being called from an external REST service in .NET it works fine however I am simply passing through the SOAP objects of the REST Layer but the automatic generation of the WebReference Code in Visual Studio adds the 'field' to the end of every attribute. basically it makes my XML look all nasty. Everything works I just want to clean up my XML. Any ideas how i can change the template for the reference.cs or to make the XML generate nicely from the Web Service Objects. Here is an example of the reference.cs public int HeadLeft { get { return this.headLeftField; } set { this.headLeftField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadTop { get { return this.headTopField; } set { this.headTopField = value; } } /// <remarks/> public int HeadWidth { get { return this.headWidthField; } set { this.headWidthField = value; } } Here is an examle of the XML <a:headHeightField>208</a:headHeightField> <a:headLeftField>316</a:headLeftField> <a:headTopField>103</a:headTopField> <a:headWidthField>161</a:headWidthField>

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

    - by mannish
    I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How can I get swig to wrap a linked list-type structure?

    - by bk
    Here's what I take to be a pretty standard header for a list. Because the struct points to itself, we need this two-part declaration. Call it listicle.h: typedef struct _listicle listicle; struct _listicle{ int i; listicle *next; }; I'm trying to get swig to wrap this, so that the Python user can make use of the listicle struct. Here's what I have in listicle.i right now: %module listicle %{ #include "listicle.h" %} %include listicle.h %rename(listicle) _listicle; %extend listicle { listicle() {return malloc (sizeof(listicle));} } As you can tell by my being here asking, it doesn't work. All the various combinations I've tried each fail in their own special way. [This one: %extend defined for an undeclared class listicle. Change it to %extend _listicle (and fix the constructor) and loading in Python gives type object '_listicle' has no attribute '_listicle_swigregister'. And so on.] Suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Is MarshalByRefObject special?

    - by Vilx-
    .NET has a thing called remoting where you can pass objects around between separate appdomains or even physical machines. I don't fully understand how the magic is done, hence this question. In remoting there are two base ways of passing objects around - either they can be serialized (converted to a bunch of bytes and the rebuilt at the other end) or they can inherit from MarshalByRefObject, in which case .NET makes some transparent proxies and all method calls are forwarded back to the original instance. This is pretty cool and works like magic. And I don't like magic in programming. Looking at the MarshalByRefObject with the Reflector I don't see anything that would set it apart from any other typical object. Not even a weird internal attribute or anything. So how is the whole transparent proxy thing organized? Can I make such a mechanism myself? Can I make an alternate MyMarshalByRefObject which would not inherit from MarshalByRefObject but would still act the same? Or is MarshalByRefObject receiving some special treatment by the .NET engine itself and the whole remoting feat is non-duplicatable by mere mortals?

    Read the article

  • What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

    - by MDBGuy
    Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • figuring out which field to look for a value in with SQL and perl

    - by Micah
    I'm not too good with SQL and I know there's probably a much more efficient way to accomplish what I'm doing here, so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks in advance for your input! I'm writing a short program for the local school high school. At this school, juniors and seniors who have driver's licenses and cars can opt to drive to school rather than ride the bus. Each driver is assigned exactly one space, and their DLN is used as the primary key of the driver's table. Makes, models, and colors of cars are stored in a separate cars table, related to the drivers table by the License plate number field. My idea is to have a single search box on the main GUI of the program where the school secretary can type in who/what she's looking for and pull up a list of results. Thing is, she could be typing a license plate number, a car color, make, and model, someone driver's name, some student driver's DLN, or a space number. As the programmer, I don't know what exactly she's looking for, so a couple of options come to mind for me to build to be certain I check everywhere for a match: 1) preform a couple of SELECT * FROM [tablename] SQL statements, one per table and cram the results into arrays in my program, then search across the arrays one element at a time with regex, looking for a matched pattern similar to the search term, and if I find one, add the entire record that had a match in it to a results array to display on screen at the end of the search. 2) take whatever she's looking for into the program as a scaler and prepare multiple select statements around it, such as SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE DLN = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM DRIVERS WHERE First_Name = $Search_Variable SELECT * FROM CARS WHERE LICENSE = $Search_Variable and so on for each attribute of each table, sticking the results into a results array to show on screen when the search is done. Is there a cleaner way to go about this lookup without having to make her specify exactly what she's looking for? Possibly some kind of SQL statement I've never seen before?

    Read the article

  • GWT + Seam, cannot fetch scoped beans from gwt servlet in seam resource servlet.

    - by David Göransson
    Hello all I am trying to get session and conversation scoped beans to a gwt servlet in the seam resource servlet. I have a conversation scoped bean: @Name ("viewFormCopyAction") @Scope (ScopeType.CONVERSATION) public class ViewFormCopyAction {} and a session scoped bean: @Name ("authenticator") @Scope (ScopeType.SESSION) public class AuthenticatorAction {} There is a RemoteService interface: @RemoteServiceRelativePath ("strokesService") public interface StrokesService extends RemoteService { public Position getPosition (int conversationId); } with corresponding async interface: public interface StrokesServiceAsync extends RemoteService { public void getPosition (int conversationId, AsyncCallback callback); } and implementation: @Name ("com.web.actions.forms.gwt.client.StrokesService") @Scope (ScopeType.EVENT) public class StrokesServiceImpl implements StrokesService { @In Manager manager; @Override @WebRemote public Position getPosition (int conversationId) { manager.switchConversation( "" + conversationId ); ViewFormCopyAction vfca = (ViewFormCopyAction) Component.getInstance( "viewFormCopyAction" ); AuthenticatorAction aa = (AuthenticatorAction) Component.getInstance( "authenticator" ); return null; } } The gwt page is within an IFrame in a regular seam page and the conversationId is propagted with the src attribute of the IFrame. Both bean objects end up with only null values. Can anyone see anything wrong with the code? I know that I could use strings instead of the int, but never mind that at this point.

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

    Read the article

  • MySql "comments" parameter as descriptor?

    - by Nick
    So, I'm trying to learn a lot at once, and this place is really helpful! I'm making a little running log website for myself and maybe a few other people, and I have it so that the user can add workouts for each day. With each workout, I have a variety of information the user can fill out for the workout, such as running distance, time, quality of run, course, etc... I store this in a MySql database as a table with fields titled "distance", "time", "runquality", etc... Now, these field titles don't match up with what I want displayed on the running log, so I was thinking of using the "Comments" attribute for a field to store its human-readable title--thus the field "runquality" would have "Quality of run" as its comment, and then I would pull the comment with a SQL query and display it instead of the field name. Is this a good theoretical/practical way of going about it? And what sort of SQL would I use to pull the comment for the field anyway? Secondly, suppose I want to add the ability for the user to create their own workout descriptors. So say a user wants to add a "temperature" descriptor for their workout. Should I create a script that adds fields to my workout table, or should I create a separate table listing only workout descriptors and somehow link the descriptor table with the "contents" table? I haven't learned any theory about database design or anything so any help is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

    Read the article

  • Java ArrayList remove dupes without sets

    - by Kieran
    I'm having problems removing duplicates from an ArrayList. It's for an assignment for college. Here's the code I have already: public int numberOfDiffWords() { ArrayList<String> list = new ArrayList<>(); for(int i=0; i<words.size()-1; i++) { for(int j=i+1; j<words.size(); j++) { if(words.get(i).equals(words.get(j))) { // do nothing } else { list.add(words.get(i)); } } } return list.size(); } The problem is in the numberOfDiffWords() method. The populate list method is working correctly, as my instructor has given me a sample string (containing 4465 words) to analyse - printing words.size() gives the correct result. I want to return the size of the new ArrayList with all duplicates removed. words is an ArrayList class attribute. UPDATE: I should have mentioned I'm only allowed to use dynamic indexed-based storage for this part of the assignment, which means no hash-based storage.

    Read the article

  • Create a multicolor selectbox on Symfony2

    - by Ninsuo
    I try to create the following field : <select name="test"> <option value="1">a</option> <option value="2">b</option> <option value="3" style="font-weight: bold; color: red;">c</option> <option value="4">d</option> <option value="5">e</option> </select> This creates a 2-color selectbox : But in Symfony2, I do not know how to apply a class to a single option. If in my view I do : {{ form_widget(myForm.test, { 'attr': { 'class': 'red', } }) }} Or if in my form I do : $builder->add('test', 'choice', array( 'required' => true, 'choices' => array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e'), 'attr' => array('class' => 'red'), )); The attribute is stored into the <select> tag and apply to the whole selectable values. How do I apply a class to an <option> in Symfony2 ?

    Read the article

  • linq to xml enumerating over descendants

    - by gh9
    Hi trying to write a simple linq query from a tutorial I read. But i cannot seem to get it to work. I am trying to display both the address in the attached xml document, but can only display the first one. Can someone help me figure out why both aren't being printed. Thank you very much <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <Emails> <Email group="FooBar"> <Subject>Test subject</Subject> <Content>Test Content</Content> <EmailTo> <Address>[email protected]</Address> <Address>[email protected]</Address> </EmailTo> </Email> </Emails> Dim steve = (From email In emailList.Descendants("Email") _ Where (email.Attribute("group").Value.Equals("FooBar")) _ Select content = email.Element("EmailTo").Descendants("Address")).ToList() If Not steve Is Nothing Then For Each addr In steve Console.WriteLine(addr.Value) Next Console.ReadLine() End If

    Read the article

  • How do I debug JavaScript .onlick event?

    - by user3700824
    I'm learning JavaScript but seem to be having a problem. I have a piece of code that is executed when the page is fully loaded. The function then gathers all the button elements on my HTML page. From here I loop through getting each button's title attribute and then assign an onclick event to the button that is equal to a function that writes to the console.log with the title. I have tried various ways of doing this but it is not working. Here is the JavaScript code that I'm working with. Currently all it does is loop through calling the function and logging the tile to the console.log, but this is not supposed to happen. Each time I click the button it should call the function with its title and log that. window.onload = myPageIsReady; function myPageIsReady(){ var myList = document.getElementsByTagName("button"); var myTitle = []; for(var i = 0; i < myList.length; i++){ myTitle[i] = myList[i].getAttribute("title"); myList[i].onclick = getMyTitle(myTitle[i]); }; function getMyTitle(myTitle){ console.log(myTitle); }; };

    Read the article

  • declarative_authorization permissions on roles

    - by William
    Hey all, I'm trying to add authorization to a rather large app that already exists, but I have to obfuscate the details a bit. Here's the background: In our app we have a number or roles that are hierarchical, roughly like this: BasicUser -> SuperUser -> Admin -> SuperAdmin For authorization each User model instance has an attribute 'role' which corresponds to the above. We have a RESTful controller "Users" that is namespaced under Backoffice. So in short it's Backoffice::UsersController. class Backoffice::UsersController < ApplicationController filter_access_to :all #... RESTful actions + some others end So here's the problem: We want users to be able to give permissions for users to edit users but ONLY if they have a 'smaller' role than they currently have. I've created the following in authorization_rules.rb authorization do role :basic_user do has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :index end role :super_user do includes :basic_user has_permission_on :backoffice_users, :to => :edit do if_attribute :role => is_in { %w(basic_user) } end end role :admin do includes :super_user end role :super_admin do includes :admin end end And unfortunately that's as far as I got, the rule doesn't seem to get applied. If I comment the rule out, nobody can edit If I leave the rule in you can edit everybody I've also tried a couple of variations on the if_attribute: if_attribute :role => is { 'basic_user' } if_attribute :role => 'basic_user' and they get the same effect. Does anybody have any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • qTip pop ups come in from top left of screen (on first load)

    - by franko75
    Hi, not sure if i'm set things up incorrectly - I don't seem to see anyone else with this problem, but my qTip popups (all ajax loaded content) are loading quite erratically, in that they are often animating in from off screen before appearing in the correct position. Is there a simple solution to this which I may have missed? Thanks again for your help. HTML markup: <span class="formInfo"> <a href="http://localhost/httpdocs/index.php/help/kc_dob" class="jTip" name="" id="dob_help">?</a> </span> qTip initialisation.. //set up for qtip function initQtip() { $('a.jTip').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { // Set the text to an image HTML string with the correct src URL to the loading image you want to use text: '<img src="/media/images/wait.gif" alt="Loading..." />', url: $(this).attr('href') // Use the rel attribute of each element for the url to load }, position: { adjust: { screen: true // Keep the tooltip on-screen at all times } }, show: { when: 'click', solo: true // Only show one tooltip at a time }, hide: 'unfocus', style: { tip: true, // Apply a speech bubble tip to the tooltip at the designated tooltip corner border: { width: 10, radius: 10 }, width: { min: 200, max: 500 }, name: 'light' // Use the default light style } }); //prevent default event on click }).bind('click', function(event){ event.preventDefault(); return false; }); }

    Read the article

  • winUserControl in VS2010 - properties are not visible in designer

    - by mj82
    I have a problem with (I suppose) my Visual Studio 2010 Express environment: when I design my own UserControl, in Properties grid I can't see public properties of that control. They are however visible in the project, that reference this control. As it's Express Edition, I create new empty project, then add new UserControl to it. Then, for a test, I put following code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Project1 { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { private int myNumber; [Browsable(true)] public int MyNumber { get { return myNumber; } set { myNumber = value; } } public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } } } In VS 2008, as I remember, that should be enogh to show MyNumber property in Properties grid, even without [Browsable(true)] attribute. In VS 2010 however, when I double click UserControl1.cs in Solution Explorer and look in Properties, I don't see MyNumber. When I reference and use this control in another project, there is an access to it's properties. I've tried to competly reinstall VS 2010 environment, including SP1, but with no success. Do you have any idea what can be wrong? By the way: none of these attributes are working, either: [Browsable(true)] [EditorBrowsable(EditorBrowsableState.Always)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] [Bindable(true)] Best regards, Marcin

    Read the article

  • How can I extend a LINQ-to-SQL class without having to make changes every time the code is generated

    - by csharpnoob
    Hi, Update from comment: I need to extend linq-to-sql classes by own parameters and dont want to touch any generated classes. Any better suggestes are welcome. But I also don't want to do all attributes assignments all time again if the linq-to-sql classes are changing. so if vstudio generates new attribute to a class i have my own extended attributes kept separate, and the new innerited from the class itself Original question: i'm not sure if it's possible. I have a class car and a class mycar extended from class car. Class mycar has also a string list. Only difference. How can i cast now any car object to a mycar object without assigning all attributes each by hand. Like: Car car = new Car(); MyCar mcar = (MyCar) car; or MyCar mcar = new MyCar(car); or however i can extend car with own variables and don't have to do always Car car = new Car(); MyCar mcar = new MyCar(); mcar.name = car.name; mcar.xyz = car.xyz; ... Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is there a Symfony callback at the termination of a session?

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    I have an application that is authenticating against an external server in a filter. In that filter, I'm trying to set a couple of session attributes on the user by using Symfony's setAttribute() method: $this->getContext()->getUser()->setAttribute( 'myAttribute', 'myValue' ); What I'm finding is that, if I dump $_SESSION immediately after setting the attribute. On the other hand, if I call getAttribute( 'myAttribute' ), I get back exactly what I put in. All along, I've assumed that reading/writing to user attributes was synonymous with reading/writing to the session, but that seems to be an incorrect assumption. Is there a timing issue? I'm not getting any non-object errors, so it seems that the user is fully initialized. Where is the disconnect here? Thanks. UPDATE The reason this was happening is because I had some code in myUser::shutdown() that cleared out a bunch of stuff. Because myUser is loosely equivalent to $_SESSION (at least with respect to attributes), I assumed that the shutdown() method would be called at the end of each session. It's not. It seems to get called at the close of each request which is why my attributes never seemed to get set. Now, though, I'm left wondering whether there's a session closing callback. Anyone know?

    Read the article

  • Get the src part of a string [duplicate]

    - by Kay Lakeman
    This question already has an answer here: Grabbing the href attribute of an A element 7 answers First post ever here, and i really hope you can help. I use a database where a large piece of html is stored, now i just need the src part of the image tag. I already found a thread, but i just doesn't do the trick. My code: Original string: <p><img alt=\"\" src=\"http://domain.nl/cms/ckeditor/filemanager/userfiles/background.png\" style=\"width: 80px; height: 160px;\" /></p> How i start: $image = strip_tags($row['information'], '<img>'); echo stripslashes($image); This returns: <img alt="" src="http://domain.nl/cms/ckeditor/filemanager/userfiles/background.png" style="width: 80px; height: 160px;" /> Next step: extract the src part: preg_match('/< *img[^>]*src *= *["\']?([^"\']*)/i', $image, $matches); echo $matches ; This last echo returns: Array What is going wrong? Thanks in advance for your anwser.

    Read the article

  • typedef a functions prototype

    - by bitmask
    I have a series of functions with the same prototype, say int func1(int a, int b) { // ... } int func2(int a, int b) { // ... } // ... Now, I want to simplify their definition and declaration. Of course I could use a macro like that: #define SP_FUNC(name) int name(int a, int b) But I'd like to keep it in C, so I tried to use the storage specifier typedef for this: typedef int SpFunc(int a, int b); This seems to work fine for the declaration: SpFunc func1; // compiles but not for the definition: SpFunc func1 { // ... } which gives me the following error: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '{' token Is there a way to do this correctly or is it impossible? To my understanding of C this should work, but it doesn't. Why? Note, gcc understands what I am trying to do, because, if I write SpFunc func1 = { /* ... */ } it tells me error: function 'func1' is initialized like a variable Which means that gcc understands that SpFunc is a function type.

    Read the article

  • How to create a new ID for the new added node?

    - by marknt15
    Hi, I can normally get the ID of the default tree nodes but my problem is onCreate then jsTree will add a new node but it doesn't have an ID. My question is how can I add an ID to the newly created tree node? What I'm thinking to do is adding the ID HTML attribute to the newly created tree node but how? I need to get the ID of all of the nodes because it will serve as a reference for the node's respective div storage. HTML code: <div class="demo" id="demo_1"> <ul> <li id="phtml_1" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 1</a></li> <li id="phtml_2" class="file"><a href="#"><ins>&nbsp;</ins>Root node 2</a></li> </ul> </div> JS code: $("#demo_1").tree({ ui : { theme_name : "apple" }, callback : { onrename : function (NODE, TREE_OBJ) { alert(TREE_OBJ.get_text(NODE)); alert($(NODE).attr('id')); } } }); Cheers, Mark

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200  | Next Page >