Search Results

Search found 5174 results on 207 pages for 'prevent'.

Page 193/207 | < Previous Page | 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200  | Next Page >

• quartz: preventing concurrent instances of a job in jobs.xml

  - by Jason S

  This should be really easy. I'm using Quartz running under Apache Tomcat 6.0.18, and I have a jobs.xml file which sets up my scheduled job that runs every minute. What I would like to do, is if the job is still running when the next trigger time rolls around, I don't want to start a new job, so I can let the old instance complete. Is there a way to specify this in jobs.xml (prevent concurrent instances)? If not, is there a way I can share access to an in-memory singleton within my application's Job implementation (is this through the JobExecutionContext?) so I can handle the concurrency myself? (and detect if a previous instance is running) update: After floundering around in the docs, here's a couple of approaches I am considering, but either don't know how to get them to work, or there are problems. Use StatefulJob. This prevents concurrent access... but I'm not sure what other side-effects would occur if I use it, also I want to avoid the following situation: Suppose trigger times would be every minute, i.e. trigger#0 = at time 0, trigger #1 = 60000msec, #2 = 120000, #3 = 180000, etc. and the trigger#0 at time 0 fires my job which takes 130000msec. With a plain Job, this would execute triggers #1 and #2 while job trigger #0 is still running. With a StatefulJob, this would execute triggers #1 and #2 in order, immediately after #0 finishes at 130000. I don't want that, I want #1 and #2 not to run and the next trigger that runs a job should take place at #3 (180000msec). So I still have to do something else with StatefulJob to get it to work the way I want, so I don't see much of an advantage to using it. Use a TriggerListener to return true from vetoJobExecution(). Although implementing the interface seems straightforward, I have to figure out how to setup one instance of a TriggerListener declaratively. Can't find the docs for the xml file. Use a static shared thread-safe object (e.g. a semaphore or whatever) owned by my class that implements Job. I don't like the idea of using singletons via the static keyword under Tomcat/Quartz, not sure if there are side effects. Also I really don't want them to be true singletons, just something that is associated with a particular job definition. Implement my own Trigger which extends SimpleTrigger and contains shared state that could run its own TriggerListener. Again, I don't know how to setup the XML file to use this trigger rather than the standard <trigger><simple>...</simple></trigger>.

  Read the article

• Historical / auditable database

  - by Mark

  Hi all, This question is related to the schema that can be found in one of my other questions here. Basically in my database I store users, locations, sensors amongst other things. All of these things are editable in the system by users, and deletable. However - when an item is edited or deleted I need to store the old data; I need to be able to see what the data was before the change. There are also non-editable items in the database, such as "readings". They are more of a log really. Readings are logged against sensors, because its the reading for a particular sensor. If I generate a report of readings, I need to be able to see what the attributes for a location or sensor was at the time of the reading. Basically I should be able to reconstruct the data for any point in time. Now, I've done this before and got it working well by adding the following columns to each editable table: valid_from valid_to edited_by If valid_to = 9999-12-31 23:59:59 then that's the current record. If valid_to equals valid_from, then the record is deleted. However, I was never happy with the triggers I needed to use to enforce foreign key consistency. I can possibly avoid triggers by using the extension to the "PostgreSQL" database. This provides a column type called "period" which allows you to store a period of time between two dates, and then allows you to do CHECK constraints to prevent overlapping periods. That might be an answer. I am wondering though if there is another way. I've seen people mention using special historical tables, but I don't really like the thought of maintainling 2 tables for almost every 1 table (though it still might be a possibility). Maybe I could cut down my initial implementation to not bother checking the consistency of records that aren't "current" - i.e. only bother to check constraints on records where the valid_to is 9999-12-31 23:59:59. Afterall, the people who use historical tables do not seem to have constraint checks on those tables (for the same reason, you'd need triggers). Does anyone have any thoughts about this? PS - the title also mentions auditable database. In the previous system I mentioned, there is always the edited_by field. This allowed all changes to be tracked so we could always see who changed a record. Not sure how much difference that might make. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Decompressing a very large serialized object and managing memory

  - by Mike_G

  I have an object that contains tons of data used for reports. In order to get this object from the server to the client I first serialize the object in a memory stream, then compress it using the Gzip stream of .NET. I then send the compressed object as a byte[] to the client. The problem is on some clients, when they get the byte[] and try to decompress and deserialize the object, a System.OutOfMemory exception is thrown. Ive read that this exception can be caused by new() a bunch of objects, or holding on to a bunch of strings. Both of these are happening during the deserialization process. So my question is: How do I prevent the exception (any good strategies)? The client needs all of the data, and ive trimmed down the number of strings as much as i can. edit: here is the code i am using to serialize/compress (implemented as extension methods) public static byte[] SerializeObject<T>(this object obj, T serializer) where T: XmlObjectSerializer { Type t = obj.GetType(); if (!Attribute.IsDefined(t, typeof(DataContractAttribute))) return null; byte[] initialBytes; using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream()) { serializer.WriteObject(stream, obj); initialBytes = stream.ToArray(); } return initialBytes; } public static byte[] CompressObject<T>(this object obj, T serializer) where T : XmlObjectSerializer { Type t = obj.GetType(); if(!Attribute.IsDefined(t, typeof(DataContractAttribute))) return null; byte[] initialBytes = obj.SerializeObject(serializer); byte[] compressedBytes; using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(initialBytes)) { using (MemoryStream output = new MemoryStream()) { using (GZipStream zipper = new GZipStream(output, CompressionMode.Compress)) { Pump(stream, zipper); } compressedBytes = output.ToArray(); } } return compressedBytes; } internal static void Pump(Stream input, Stream output) { byte[] bytes = new byte[4096]; int n; while ((n = input.Read(bytes, 0, bytes.Length)) != 0) { output.Write(bytes, 0, n); } } And here is my code for decompress/deserialize: public static T DeSerializeObject<T,TU>(this byte[] serializedObject, TU deserializer) where TU: XmlObjectSerializer { using (MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(serializedObject)) { return (T)deserializer.ReadObject(stream); } } public static T DecompressObject<T, TU>(this byte[] compressedBytes, TU deserializer) where TU: XmlObjectSerializer { byte[] decompressedBytes; using(MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(compressedBytes)) { using(MemoryStream output = new MemoryStream()) { using(GZipStream zipper = new GZipStream(stream, CompressionMode.Decompress)) { ObjectExtensions.Pump(zipper, output); } decompressedBytes = output.ToArray(); } } return decompressedBytes.DeSerializeObject<T, TU>(deserializer); } The object that I am passing is a wrapper object, it just contains all the relevant objects that hold the data. The number of objects can be a lot (depending on the reports date range), but ive seen as many as 25k strings. One thing i did forget to mention is I am using WCF, and since the inner objects are passed individually through other WCF calls, I am using the DataContract serializer, and all my objects are marked with the DataContract attribute.

  Read the article

• How to get this Qt state machine to work?

  - by Ton van den Heuvel

  I have two widgets that can be checked, and a numeric entry field that should contain a value greater than zero. Whenever both widgets have been checked, and the numeric entry field contains a value greater than zero, a button should be enabled. I am struggling with defining a proper state machine for this situation. So far I have the following: QStateMachine *machine = new QStateMachine(this); QState *buttonDisabled = new QState(QState::ParallelStates); buttonDisabled->assignProperty(ui_->button, "enabled", false); QState *a = new QState(buttonDisabled); QState *aUnchecked = new QState(a); QFinalState *aChecked = new QFinalState(a); aUnchecked->addTransition(wa, SIGNAL(checked()), aChecked); a->setInitialState(aUnchecked); QState *b = new QState(buttonDisabled); QState *bUnchecked = new QState(b); QFinalState *bChecked = new QFinalState(b); employeeUnchecked->addTransition(wb, SIGNAL(checked()), bChecked); b->setInitialState(bUnchecked); QState *weight = new QState(registerButtonDisabled); QState *weightZero = new QState(weight); QFinalState *weightGreaterThanZero = new QFinalState(weight); weightZero->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(validWeight()), weightGreaterThanZero); weight->setInitialState(weightZero); QState *buttonEnabled = new QState(); buttonEnabled->assignProperty(ui_->registerButton, "enabled", true); buttonDisabled->addTransition(buttonDisabled, SIGNAL(finished()), buttonEnabled); buttonEnabled->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(invalidWeight()), weightZero); machine->addState(registerButtonDisabled); machine->addState(registerButtonEnabled); machine->setInitialState(registerButtonDisabled); machine->start(); The problem here is that the following transition: buttonEnabled->addTransition(this, SIGNAL(invalidWeight()), weightZero); causes all the child states in the registerButtonDisabled state to be reverted to their initial state. This is unwanted behaviour, as I want the a and b states to remain in the same state. How do I prevent this?

  Read the article

• Problems using wxWidgets (wxMSW) within multiple DLL instances

  Preface I'm developing VST-plugins which are DLL-based software modules and loaded by VST-supporting host applications. To open a VST-plugin the host applications loads the VST-DLL and calls an appropriate function of the plugin while providing a native window handle, which the plugin can use to draw it's GUI. I managed to port my original VSTGUI code to the wxWidgets-Framework and now all my plugins run under wxMSW and wxMac but I still have problems under wxMSW to find a correct way to open and close the plugins and I am not sure if this is a wxMSW-only issue. Problem If I use any VST-host application I can open and close multiple instances of one of my VST-plugins without any problems. As soon as I open another of my VST-plugins besides my first VST-plugin and then close all instances of my first VST-plugin the application crashes after a short amount of time within the wxEventHandlerr::ProcessEvent function telling me that the wxTheApp object isn't valid any longer during execution of wxTheApp-FilterEvent (see below). So it seems to be that the wxTheApp objects was deleted after closing all instances of the first plugin and is no longer available for the second plugin. bool wxEvtHandler::ProcessEvent(wxEvent& event) { // allow the application to hook into event processing if ( wxTheApp ) { int rc = wxTheApp->FilterEvent(event); if ( rc != -1 ) { wxASSERT_MSG( rc == 1 || rc == 0, _T("unexpected wxApp::FilterEvent return value") ); return rc != 0; } //else: proceed normally } .... } Preconditions 1.) All my VST-plugins a dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries. With regard to the wxWidgets forum this seemed to be the best way to run multiple instances of the software side by side. 2.) The DllMain of each VST-Plugin is defined as follows: // WXW #include "wx/app.h" #include "wx/defs.h" #include "wx/gdicmn.h" #include "wx/image.h" #ifdef __WXMSW__ #include <windows.h> #include "wx/msw/winundef.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain ( HANDLE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved ) { switch (ul_reason_for_call) { case DLL_PROCESS_ATTACH: { wxInitialize(); ::wxInitAllImageHandlers(); break; } case DLL_THREAD_ATTACH: break; case DLL_THREAD_DETACH: break; case DLL_PROCESS_DETACH: wxUninitialize(); break; } return TRUE; } #endif // __WXMSW__ class Application : public wxApp {}; IMPLEMENT_APP_NO_MAIN(Application) Question How can I prevent this behavior respectively how can I properly handle the wxTheApp object if I have multiple instances of different VST-plugins (DLL-modules), which are dynamically linked against the C-Runtime and wxWidgets libraries? Best reagards, Steffen

  Read the article

• jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

  - by boomturn

  I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

  Read the article

• jQuery - draggable images on iPad / iPhone - how to integrate event.preventDefault();?

  - by Tim

  Hello! I use jQuery, jQuery UI and jQuery mobile to build a web application for iPhone / iPad. Now I create images and they should be draggable, so I did this: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <title>Drag - Test</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://code.jquery.com/mobile/1.0a2/jquery.mobile-1.0a2.min.css" /> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.4.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/mobile/1.0a2/jquery.mobile-1.0a2.min.js"></script> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.7/jquery-ui.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <div> <div style="width:500px;height:500px;border:1px solid red;"> <img src="http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/thumb/9/9e/JQuery_logo.svg/200px-JQuery_logo.svg.png" class="draggable" alt="jQuery logo" /> <img src="http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/a/ab/Apple-logo.png" class="draggable" alt="Apple Inc. logo" /> </div> </div> </body> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".draggable").draggable(); }); </script> </html> Here you can see the live example: http://jsbin.com/igena4/ The problem is, that the whole page want to scroll. I searched in Apple's HTML5 examples and found this to prevent the scrolling of the page, so that the image is draggable: ... onDragStart: function(event) { // stop page from panning on iPhone/iPad - we're moving a note, not the page event.preventDefault(); ... } But the problem is for me, how can I include this into my jQuery? Where do I get event? Best Regards.

  Read the article

• WordPress Write Cache Problem with Multiple Sessions

  - by Volomike

  I'm working on a content dripper custom plugin in WordPress that my client asked me to build. He says he wants it to catch a page view event, and if it's the right time of day (24 hours since last post), to pull from a resource file and output another post. He needed it to also raise a flag and prevent other sessions from firing that same snippet of code. So, raise some kind of flag saying, "I'm posting that post, go away other process," and then it makes that post and releases the flag again. However, the strangest thing is occurring when placed under load with multiple sessions hitting the site with page views. It's firing instead of one post -- it's randomly doing like 1, 2, or 3 extra posts, with each one thinking that it was the right time to post because it was 24 hours past the time of the last post. Because it's somewhat random, I'm guessing that the problem is some kind of write caching where the other sessions don't see the raised flag just yet until a couple microseconds pass. The plugin was raising the "flag" by simply writing to the wp_options table with the update_option() API in WordPress. The other user sessions were supposed to read that value with get_option() and see the flag, and then not run that piece of code that creates the post because a given session was already doing it. Then, when done, I lower the flag and the other sessions continue as normal. But what it's doing is letting those other sessions in. To make this work, I was using add_action('loop_start','checkToAddContent'). The odd thing about that function though is that it's called more than once on a page, and in fact some plugins may call it. I don't know if there's a better event to hook. Even still, even if I find an event to hook that only runs once on a page view, I still have multiple sessions to contend with (different users who may view the page at the same time) and I want only one given session to trigger the content post when the post is due on the schedule. I'm wondering if there are any WordPress plugin devs out there who could suggest another event hook to latch on to, and to figure out another way to raise a flag that all sessions would see. I mean, I could use the shared memory API in PHP, but many hosting plans have that disabled. Can't use a cookie or session var because that's only one single session. About the only thing that might work across hosting plans would be to drop a file as a flag, instead. If the file is present, then one session has the flag. If the file is not present, then other sessions can attempt to get the flag. Sure, I could use the file route, but it's kind of immature in my opinion and I was wondering if there's something in WordPress I could do.

  Read the article

• Java map / nio / NFS issue causing a VM fault: "a fault occurred in a recent unsafe memory access op

  - by Matthew Bloch

  I have written a parser class for a particular binary format (nfdump if anyone is interested) which uses java.nio's MappedByteBuffer to read through files of a few GB each. The binary format is just a series of headers and mostly fixed-size binary records, which are fed out to the called by calling nextRecord(), which pushes on the state machine, returning null when it's done. It performs well. It works on a development machine. On my production host, it can run for a few minutes or hours, but always seems to throw "java.lang.InternalError: a fault occurred in a recent unsafe memory access operation in compiled Java code", fingering one of the Map.getInt, getShort methods, i.e. a read operation in the map. The uncontroversial (?) code that sets up the map is this: /** Set up the map from the given filename and position */ protected void open() throws IOException { // Set up buffer, is this all the flexibility we'll need? channel = new FileInputStream(file).getChannel(); MappedByteBuffer map1 = channel.map(FileChannel.MapMode.READ_ONLY, 0, channel.size()); map1.load(); // we want the whole thing, plus seems to reduce frequency of crashes? map = map1; // assumes the host writing the files is little-endian (x86), ought to be configurable map.order(java.nio.ByteOrder.LITTLE_ENDIAN); map.position(position); } and then I use the various map.get* methods to read shorts, ints, longs and other sequences of bytes, before hitting the end of the file and closing the map. I've never seen the exception thrown on my development host. But the significant point of difference between my production host and development is that on the former, I am reading sequences of these files over NFS (probably 6-8TB eventually, still growing). On my dev machine, I have a smaller selection of these files locally (60GB), but when it blows up on the production host it's usually well before it gets to 60GB of data. Both machines are running java 1.6.0_20-b02, though the production host is running Debian/lenny, the dev host is Ubuntu/karmic. I'm not convinced that will make any difference. Both machines have 16GB RAM, and are running with the same java heap settings. I take the view that if there is a bug in my code, there is enough of a bug in the JVM not to throw me a proper exception! But I think it is just a particular JVM implementation bug due to interactions between NFS and mmap, possibly a recurrence of 6244515 which is officially fixed. I already tried adding in a "load" call to force the MappedByteBuffer to load its contents into RAM - this seemed to delay the error in the one test run I've done, but not prevent it. Or it could be coincidence that was the longest it had gone before crashing! If you've read this far and have done this kind of thing with java.nio before, what would your instinct be? Right now mine is to rewrite it without nio :)

  Read the article

• CakePHP HABTM: Editing one item casuses HABTM row to get recreated, destroys extra data

  - by leo-the-manic

  I'm having trouble with my HABTM relationship in CakePHP. I have two models like so: Department HABTM Location. One large company has many buildings, and each building provides a limited number of services. Each building also has its own webpage, so in addition to the HABTM relationship itself, each HABTM row also has a url field where the user can visit to find additional information about the service they're interested and how it operates at the building they're interested in. I've set up the models like so: <?php class Location extends AppModel { var $name = 'Location'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Department' => array( 'with' => 'DepartmentsLocation', 'unique' => true ) ); } ?> <?php class Department extends AppModel { var $name = 'Department'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Location' => array( 'with' => 'DepartmentsLocation', 'unique' => true ) ); } ?> <?php class DepartmentsLocation extends AppModel { var $name = 'DepartmentsLocation'; var $belongsTo = array( 'Department', 'Location' ); // I'm pretty sure this method is unrelated. It's not being called when this error // occurs. Its purpose is to prevent having two HABTM rows with the same location // and department. function beforeSave() { // kill any existing rows with same associations $this->log(__FILE__ . ": killing existing HABTM rows", LOG_DEBUG); $result = $this->find('all', array("conditions" => array("location_id" => $this->data['DepartmentsLocation']['location_id'], "department_id" => $this->data['DepartmentsLocation']['department_id']))); foreach($result as $row) { $this->delete($row['DepartmentsLocation']['id']); } return true; } } ?> The controllers are completely uninteresting. The problem: If I edit the name of a Location, all of the DepartmentsLocations that were linked to that Location are re-created with empty URLs. Since the models specify that unique is true, this also causes all of the newer rows to overwrite the older rows, which essentially destroys all of the URLs. I would like to know two things: Can I stop this? If so, how? And, on a less technical and more whiney note: Why does this even happen? It seems bizarre to me that editing a field through Cake should cause so much trouble, when I can easily go through phpMyAdmin, edit the Location name there, and get exactly the result I would expect. Why does CakePHP touch the HABTM data when I'm just editing a field on a row? It's not even a foreign key!

  Read the article

• msysgit git-am can't apply it's own git format-patch sequence

  - by Andrian Nord

  I'm using msysgit git on windows to operate on central svn repository. I'm using git as I want to have it's awesome little local branches for everything and rebasing on each other. I also need to update from central repo often, so using separate svn/git is not an option. Problem is - git svn --help (man page) says that it is not a good idea to use git merge into master branch (which is set to track from svn's trunk) from local branches, as this will ruin the party and git svn dcommit would not work anymore. I know that it's not exactly true and you may use git merge if you are merging from branch which was properly rebased on master prior merge, but I'm trying to make it safer and actually use git format-patch and git am. We are using code review, so I'm making patches anyway. I also knew about git cherry-pick, but I want to just git am /reviewed/patches/dir/* without actually recalling what commits was corresponding to this patches (without reading patches, that is). So, what's wrong with git svn and git am? It's simple - git am for a few very hard points is doing CRLF into LF conversion for patches supplied (git-mailsplit is doing this, to be precise), if not rebasing. git format-patch is also producing proper (LF-ended) patches. As my repo is mostly CRLF (and it should remain so), patches are, obviously, failing due to wrong EOL. Converting diffs to CRLF and somehow hacking git am to prevent it from conversion is not working, too. It will fail if any file was removed or deleted - git apply will complain about expected /dev/null (but he got /dev/null^M). And if I'm applying it with git am --ignore-space-change --ignore-whitespace that it will commit LF endings straight to the index, which is also weird. I don't know if it will preserve over commiting into svn (via git svn dcommit) and checking it out and I don't want to try out. Of course, it's still possible to try hacking around patches to convert only actual diffs, but this is too much hacks for simple task. So, I wonder, is there really no established way to produce patches and apply them to the same repo on the same system? It just feels weird that msysgit can't apply it's own patches.

  Read the article

• useful customize/enhanced php functions that make thing easy and better

  - by I Like PHP

  Hello All, i like to work in php bcoz it's just amazing language. please share basic, useful, enhanced and customize function that make things better and easy in php and must be used in our all PHP project, i m sharing some of them please share your customize function that may be useful for everyone alternative/ enhanced print_r() and var_dump() function watch( $what ) { echo '<pre>'; if ( is_array( $what ) ) { print_r ( $what ); } else { var_dump ( $what ); } echo '</pre>'; } usage: 1. watch($_POST); // to see all post variable 2. watch($array); // to see any variable may b array, string or a variable enhanced mysql_escape_string() for multidimensional array to prevent sql injection function recursive_escape(&$value) { if (is_array($value)) array_map('recursive_escape', $value); else $value = mysql_escape_string($value); } usage array_map('recursive_escape', $_POST); ---------------------For encoding Get variables-------------------------------------- function nkode($k) { if ( is_array( $k ) ) return array_map("base64_encode",$k); else return base64_encode($k); } ---------------------for decoding varaibles from GET--------------------------------- function dkode($k) { if ( is_array( $k ) ) return array_map("base64_decode",$k); else return base64_decode($k); } Usage <a href="somelink.php?pid=<?php echo nkode($someid)?>"> and on next page(somelink.php) $findID=dkode($_GET[pid]); date convert to mm/dd/yyyy to yyyy-mm-dd( if we use date datatype in mysql) and also change into mm/dd/yyyy to disply on page function dateconvert($date,$func) { if ($func == 1){ //insert conversion list($month, $day, $year) = split('[/.-]', $date); $date = "$year-$month-$day"; return $date; } if ($func == 2){ //output conversion list($year, $month, $day) = split('[-.]', $date); $date = "$month/$day/$year"; return $date; } } usage $firstDate=dateconvert($_POST['firstdate'],1); // for insertion in database $showDate=dateconvert($fetch->date_field,2) // to display on browser to clean(sql injection proof) data before doing some action with that variable function cleandata($data) { $success=0; $data=trim($data); $data=strtolower($data); $data=strip_tags($data); return $data; } usage cleandata($_POST[username]); cleandata($_GET[pid]); please share any basic function that must be used , Thanks

  Read the article

• Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Hibernate Based Java Servlet application powered by MySQL

  - by Vatsala

  Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?) edit - Here are the c3p0 parameters I tried out - select 1; 2

  Read the article

• Normalization of database for timesheet tool and ensure data integrity

  - by fireeyedboy

  I'm creating a timesheet application. I have the following entities (amongst others): Company Employee = an employee associated with a company Client = a client associated with a company So far I have the following (abbreviated) database setup: Company - id - name Employee - id - companyId (FK to Company.id) - name Client - id - companyId (FK to Company.id) - name Now, I want an employee to be associated with a client, but only if that client is associated with the company the employee works for. How would you guarantee this data integrity on a database level? Or should I just depend on the application to guarantee this data integrity? I thought about creating a many to many table like this: EmployeeClient - employeeId (FK to Employee.id) - companyId \ (combined FK to Client.companyId, Client.id) - clientId / Thus, when I insert a client for an employee along with the employee's company id, the database should prevent this when the client is not associated with the employee's company id. Does this make sense? Because this still doesn't guarantee the employee is associated with the company. How do you deal with these things? UPDATE The scenario is as followed: A company has multiple employees. Employees will only be linked to one company. A company has multiple clients also. Clients will only be linked to one company. (Company is a sandbox, so to speak). An employee of a company can be linked to a client of it's company, but only if the client is part of the company's clientele. In other words: The application will allow a company to create/add employees and create/add clients (hence the companyId FK in the Employee and Client tables). Next, the company will be allowed to assign certain clients to certain of it's employees (EmployeeClient table). Imagine an employee working on projects for a few clients for which s/he can write billable hours, but the employee must not be allowed to write billable hours for clients they are not assigned to by their employer (the company). So, employees will not automatically have access to all their company's clients, but only to those that the company has selected for them. Hopefully this has shed some more light on the matter.

  Read the article

• What are those little useful ,customize/enhanced php functions that you wish you knew about 2 years

  - by I Like PHP

  Hello All, i like to work in php bcoz it's just amazing language. please share basic, useful, enhanced and customize function that make things better and easy in php and must be used in our all PHP project, i m sharing some of them please share your customize function that may be useful for everyone alternative/ enhanced print_r() and var_dump() function watch( $what ) { echo '<pre>'; if ( is_array( $what ) ) { print_r ( $what ); } else { var_dump ( $what ); } echo '</pre>'; } usage: 1. watch($_POST); // to see all post variable 2. watch($array); // to see any variable may b array, string or a variable enhanced mysql_escape_string() for multidimensional array to prevent sql injection function recursive_escape(&$value) { if (is_array($value)) array_map('recursive_escape', $value); else $value = mysql_escape_string($value); } usage array_map('recursive_escape', $_POST); ---------------------For encoding Get variables-------------------------------------- function nkode($k) { if ( is_array( $k ) ) return array_map("base64_encode",$k); else return base64_encode($k); } ---------------------for decoding varaibles from GET--------------------------------- function dkode($k) { if ( is_array( $k ) ) return array_map("base64_decode",$k); else return base64_decode($k); } Usage <a href="somelink.php?pid=<?php echo nkode($someid)?>"> and on next page(somelink.php) $findID=dkode($_GET[pid]); date convert to mm/dd/yyyy to yyyy-mm-dd( if we use date datatype in mysql) and also change into mm/dd/yyyy to disply on page function dateconvert($date,$func) { if ($func == 1){ //insert conversion list($month, $day, $year) = split('[/.-]', $date); $date = "$year-$month-$day"; return $date; } if ($func == 2){ //output conversion list($year, $month, $day) = split('[-.]', $date); $date = "$month/$day/$year"; return $date; } } usage $firstDate=dateconvert($_POST['firstdate'],1); // for insertion in database $showDate=dateconvert($fetch->date_field,2) // to display on browser to clean data before doing some action with that variable function cleanID($data) { $success=0; $data=trim($data); $data=strtolower($data); $data=strip_tags($data); return $data; } usage cleanID($_POST[username]); cleanID($_GET[pid]); please share any basic function that must be used , and please give me some suggestion to make above function more better Thanks

  Read the article

• Injecting jQuery into a page fails when using Google AJAX Libraries API

  - by jakemcgraw

  I'd like to inject jQuery into a page using the Google AJAX Libraries API, I've come up with the following solution: http://my-domain.com/inject-jquery.js: ;((function(){ // Call this function once jQuery is available var func = function() { jQuery("body").prepend('<div>jQuery Rocks!</div>'); }; // Detect if page is already using jQuery if (!window.jQuery) { var done = false; var head = document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; var script = document.createElement("script"); script.src = "http://www.google.com/jsapi"; script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = function(){ // Once Google AJAX Libraries API is loaded ... if (!done && (!this.readyState || this.readyState == "loaded" || this.readyState == "complete")) { done = true; // ... load jQuery ... window.google.load("jquery", "1", {callback:function(){ jQuery.noConflict(); // ... jQuery available, fire function. func(); }}); // Prevent IE memory leaking script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = null; head.removeChild(script); } } // Load Google AJAX Libraries API head.appendChild(script); // Page already using jQuery, fire function } else { func(); } })()); The script would then be included in a page on a separate domain: http://some-other-domain.com/page.html: <html> <head> <title>This is my page</title> </head> <body> <h1>This is my page.</h1> <script src="http://my-domain.com/inject-jquery.js"></script> </body> </html> In Firefox 3 I get the following error: Module: 'jquery' must be loaded before DOM onLoad! jsapi (line 16) The error appears to be specific to the Google AJAX Libraries API, as I've seen others use a jQuery bookmarklet to inject jQuery into the current page. My question: Is there a method for injecting the Google AJAX Libraries API / jQuery into a page regardless of the onload/onready state?

  Read the article

• Multiprogramming in Django, writing to the Database

  - by Marcus Whybrow

  Introduction I have the following code which checks to see if a similar model exists in the database, and if it does not it creates the new model: class BookProfile(): # ... def save(self, *args, **kwargs): uniqueConstraint = {'book_instance': self.book_instance, 'collection': self.collection} # Test for other objects with identical values profiles = BookProfile.objects.filter(Q(**uniqueConstraint) & ~Q(pk=self.pk)) # If none are found create the object, else fail. if len(profiles) == 0: super(BookProfile, self).save(*args, **kwargs) else: raise ValidationError('A Book Profile for that book instance in that collection already exists') I first build my constraints, then search for a model with those values which I am enforcing must be unique Q(**uniqueConstraint). In addition I ensure that if the save method is updating and not inserting, that we do not find this object when looking for other similar objects ~Q(pk=self.pk). I should mention that I ham implementing soft delete (with a modified objects manager which only shows non-deleted objects) which is why I must check for myself rather then relying on unique_together errors. Problem Right thats the introduction out of the way. My problem is that when multiple identical objects are saved in quick (or as near as simultaneous) succession, sometimes both get added even though the first being added should prevent the second. I have tested the code in the shell and it succeeds every time I run it. Thus my assumption is if say we have two objects being added Object A and Object B. Object A runs its check upon save() being called. Then the process saving Object B gets some time on the processor. Object B runs that same test, but Object A has not yet been added so Object B is added to the database. Then Object A regains control of the processor, and has allready run its test, even though identical Object B is in the database, it adds it regardless. My Thoughts The reason I fear multiprogramming could be involved is that each Object A and Object is being added through an API save view, so a request to the view is made for each save, thus not a single request with multiple sequential saves on objects. It might be the case that Apache is creating a process for each request, and thus causing the problems I think I am seeing. As you would expect, the problem only occurs sometimes, which is characteristic of multiprogramming or multiprocessing errors. If this is the case, is there a way to make the test and set parts of the save() method a critical section, so that a process switch cannot happen between the test and the set?

  Read the article

• Proper binding data to combobox and handling its events.

  - by Wodzu

  Hi guys. I have a table in SQL Server which looks like this: ID Code Name Surname 1 MS Mike Smith 2 JD John Doe 3 UP Unknown Person and so on... Now I want to bind the data from this table into the ComboBox in a way that in the ComboBox I have displayed value from the Code column. I am doing the binding in this way: SqlDataAdapter sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM dbo.Users ORDER BY Code", MainConnection); sqlAdapter.Fill(dsUsers, "Users"); cbxUsers.DataSource = dsUsers.Tables["Users"]; cmUsers = (CurrencyManager)cbxUsers.BindingContext[dsUsers.Tables["Users"]]; cbxUsers.DisplayMember = "Code"; And this code seems to work. I can scroll through the list of Codes. Also I can start to write code by hand and ComboBox will autocomplete the code for me. However, I wanted to put a label at the top of the combobox to display Name and Surname of the currently selected user code. My line of though was like that: "So, I need to find an event which will fire up after the change of code in combobox and in that event I will get the current DataRow..." I was browsing through the events of combobox, tried many of them but without a success. For example: private void cbxUsers_SelectionChangeCommitted(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (cmUsers != null) { DataRowView drvCurrentRowView = (DataRowView)cmUsers.Current; DataRow drCurrentRow = drvCurrentRowView.Row; lblNameSurname.Text = Convert.ToString(drCurrentRow["Name"]) + " " + Convert.ToString(drCurrentRow["Surname"]); } } This give me a strange results. Firstly when I scroll via mouse scroll it doesn't return me the row wich I am expecting to obtain. For example on JD it shows me "Mike Smith", on MS it shows me "John Doe" and on UP it shows me "Mike Smith" again! The other problem is that when I start to type in ComboBox and press enter it doesn't trigger the event. However, everything works as expected when I bind data to lblNameSurname.Text in this way: lblNameSurname.DataBindings.Add("Text", dsusers.Tables["Users"], "Name"); The problem here is that I can bind only one column and I want to have two. I don't want to use two labels for it (one to display name and other to display surname). So, what is the solution to my problem? Also, I have one question related to the data selection in ComboBox. Now, when I type something in the combobox it allows me to type letters that are not existing in the list. For example, I start to type "J" and instead of finishing with "D" so I would have "JD", I type "Jsomerandomtexthere". Combobox will allow that but such item does not exists on the list. In other words, I want combobox to prevent user from typing code which is not on the list of codes. Thanks in advance for your time.

  Read the article

• Java HTTP Request Occasionally Hangs

  - by behrk2

  Hello Everyone, For the majority of the time, my HTTP Requests work with no problem. However, occasionally they will hang. The code that I am using is set up so that if the request succeeds (with a response code of 200 or 201), then call screen.requestSucceeded(). If the request fails, then call screen.requestFailed(). When the request hangs, however, it does so before one of the above methods are called. Is there something wrong with my code? Should I be using some sort of best practice to prevent any hanging? The following is my code. I would appreciate any help. Thanks! HttpConnection connection = (HttpConnection) Connector.open(url + connectionParameters); connection.setRequestMethod(method); connection.setRequestProperty("WWW-Authenticate", "OAuth realm=api.netflix.com"); if (method.equals("POST")) { connection.setRequestProperty("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); } int responseCode = connection.getResponseCode(); System.out.println("RESPONSE CODE: " + responseCode); if (connection instanceof HttpsConnection) { HttpsConnection secureConnection = (HttpsConnection) connection; String issuer = secureConnection.getSecurityInfo() .getServerCertificate().getIssuer(); UiApplication.getUiApplication().invokeLater( new DialogRunner( "Secure Connection! Certificate issued by: " + issuer)); } if (responseCode != 200 && responseCode != 201) { screen.requestFailed("Unexpected response code: " + responseCode); connection.close(); return; } String contentType = connection.getHeaderField("Content-type"); ByteArrayOutputStream baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); InputStream responseData = connection.openInputStream(); byte[] buffer = new byte[20000]; int bytesRead = 0; while ((bytesRead = responseData.read(buffer)) > 0) { baos.write(buffer, 0, bytesRead); } baos.close(); connection.close(); screen.requestSucceeded(baos.toByteArray(), contentType); } catch (IOException ex) { screen.requestFailed(ex.toString()); }

  Read the article

• Replace HTML entities in a string avoiding <img> tags

  - by Xeos

  I have the following input: Hi! How are you? <script>//NOT EVIL!</script> Wassup? :P LOOOL!!! :D :D :D Which is then run through emoticon library and it become this: Hi! How are you? <script>//NOT EVIL!</script> Wassup? <img class="smiley" alt="" title="tongue, :P" src="ui/emoticons/15.gif"> LOOOL!!! <img class="smiley" alt="" title="big grin, :D" src="ui/emoticons/5.gif"> <img class="smiley" alt="" title="big grin, :P" src="ui/emoticons/5.gif"> <img class="smiley" alt="" title="big grin, :P" src="ui/emoticons/5.gif"> I have a function that escapes HTML entites to prevent XSS. So running it on raw input for the first line would produce: Hi! How are you? &lt;script&gt;//NOT EVIL!&lt;/script&gt; Now I need to escape all the input, but at the same time I need to preserve emoticons in their initial state. So when there is <:-P emoticon, it stays like that and does not become &lt;:-P. I was thinking of running a regex split on the emotified text. Then processing each part on its own and then concatenating the string together, but I am not sure how easily can Regex be bypassed? I know the format will always be this: [<img class="smiley" alt="] [empty string] [" title="] [one of the values from a big list] [, ] [another value from the list (may be matching original emoticon)] [" src="ui/emoticons/] [integer from Y to X] [.gif">] Using the list MAY be slow, since I need to run that regex on text that may have 20-30-40 emoticons. Plus there may be 5-10-15 text messages to process. What could be an elegant solution to this? I am ready to use third-party library or jQuery for this. PHP preprocessing is possible as well.

  Read the article

• Parallel For Loop - Problems when adding to a List - Possible .Net Bugs

  - by Kevin Crowell

  I am having some issues involving Parallel for loops and adding to a List. The problem is, the same code may generate different output at different times. I have set up some test code below. In this code, I create a List of 10,000 int values. 1/10th of the values will be 0, 1/10th of the values will be 1, all the way up to 1/10th of the values being 9. After setting up this List, I setup a Parallel for loop that iterates through the list. If the current number is 0, I add a value to a new List. After the Parallel for loop completes, I output the size of the list. The size should always be 1,000. Most of the time, the correct answer is given. However, I have seen 3 possible incorrect outcomes occur: The size of the list is less than 1,000 An IndexOutOfRangeException occurs @ doubleList.Add(0.0); An ArgumentException occurs @ doubleList.Add(0.0); The message for the ArgumentException given was: Destination array was not long enough. Check destIndex and length, and the array's lower bounds. What could be causing the errors? Is this a .Net bug? Is there something I can do to prevent this from happening? Please try the code for yourself. If you do not get an error, try it a few times. Please also note that you probably will not see any errors using a single-core machine. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace ParallelTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { List<int> intList = new List<int>(); List<double> doubleList = new List<double>(); for (int i = 0; i < 250; i++) { intList.Clear(); doubleList.Clear(); for (int j = 0; j < 10000; j++) { intList.Add(j % 10); } Parallel.For(0, intList.Count, j => { if (intList[j] == 0) { doubleList.Add(0.0); } }); if (doubleList.Count != 1000) { Console.WriteLine("On iteration " + i + ": List size = " + doubleList.Count); } } Console.WriteLine("\nPress any key to exit."); Console.ReadKey(); } } }

  Read the article

• Do you know why introducing jquery ui autocomplete for my dropdown boxes is also changing my listbox

  - by oo

  I am trying to change my comboboxes to use autocomplete so i leverage the code listed here (which worked perfectly for my dropdowns) The issue is that i also on the same page have a listbox with the following code: <%= Html.ListBox("Cars", Model.BodyParts.Select( x => new SelectListItem { Text = x.Name, Value = x.Id, Selected = Model.CarsSelected.Any(y => y.Id == x.Id) } ))%> and it appears that the jquery ui code is changing this to a autocomplete dropdown as well (as opposed to keeping it as a multi select list box) any idea how to prevent this from happening? i literally am just using the exact code on this page <script type="text/javascript"> (function($) { $.widget("ui.combobox", { _create: function() { var self = this; var select = this.element.hide(); var input = $("<input>") .insertAfter(select) .autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { var matcher = new RegExp(request.term, "i"); response(select.children("option").map(function() { var text = $(this).text(); if (!request.term || matcher.test(text)) return { id: $(this).val(), label: text.replace(new RegExp("(?![^&;]+;)(?!<[^<>]*)(" + request.term.replace(/([\^\$\(\)\[\]\{\}\*\.\+\?\|\\])/gi, "\\$1") + ")(?![^<>]*>)(?![^&;]+;)", "gi"), "<strong>$1</strong>"), value: text }; })); }, delay: 0, select: function(e, ui) { if (!ui.item) { // remove invalid value, as it didn't match anything $(this).val(""); return false; } $(this).focus(); select.val(ui.item.id); self._trigger("selected", null, { item: select.find("[value='" + ui.item.id + "']") }); }, minLength: 0 }) .addClass("ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-corner-left"); $("<button>&nbsp;</button>") .insertAfter(input) .button({ icons: { primary: "ui-icon-triangle-1-s" }, text: false }).removeClass("ui-corner-all") .addClass("ui-corner-right ui-button-icon") .position({ my: "left center", at: "right center", of: input, offset: "-1 0" }).css("top", "") .click(function() { // close if already visible if (input.autocomplete("widget").is(":visible")) { input.autocomplete("close"); return; } // pass empty string as value to search for, displaying all results input.autocomplete("search", ""); input.focus(); }); } }); })(jQuery); $(function() { $("select").combobox(); }); </script>

  Read the article

• from one-dimensional to two-dimensional array

  - by Thijs

  Hi again, I have this PHP one dimensional array: Array ( [Female--N] => 11 [Male--N] => 11 [Humans--N] => 11 [Adult--N] => 8 [Adolescent--N] => 8 [Reaction Time-physiology--N] => 6 [Acoustic Stimulation-methods--N] => 6 [Schizophrenia-genetics--Y] => 5 [Motion Perception--N] => 3 ) And i want a new array from this that looks like (i think this tow-dimensional..?): Array ( [Female][N] => 11 [Male][N] => 11 [Humans][N] => 11 [Adult][N] => 8 [Adolescent][N] => 8 [Reaction Time-physiology][N] => 6 [Acoustic Stimulation-methods][N] => 6 [Schizophrenia-genetics][Y] => 5 [Motion Perception][N] => 3 ) Can i use split method on key elements? Little bit harder... i also need to split on the single '_' underscore, i did this to prevent the columns getting mixed up... But the example below doesn't do the job right... $new_array = array(); foreach($MeshtagsArray as $key => $value) { $parts = explode('__', $key, 2); $parts2 = explode('_', $key, 2); $new_array[] = array( 'discriptor' => $parts[0], 'qualifier' => $parts2[1], 'major' => $parts[1], '#occurence' => $value ); So the output should be something like: [0] => Array ( [discriptor] => Female [qualifier] => [major] => N [#occurence] => 11 ........ [5] => Array ( [discriptor] => Reaction Time [qualifier] => physiology [major] => N [#occurence] => 6 Best regards, Thijs

  Read the article

• Create Duplicate Records on SELECT for Calendar Date Range

  - by peterallcdn

  Hey all, I've built a pretty shnazzy calendar system but there is one tweak that I need to make so that I'm completely happy with it. My calendar has three tables: calevents - The calendared event. caldates - The occurrences and date-range of each occurrence for each event. calcats - The categories that can be applied to an event. The short: For each calevent, there can be many caldates, one for each occurrence of calevent. So a calevent that repeats weekly and spans 3 days might have caldates like this: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 7 37 2010-07-05 2010-07-07 9 37 2010-07-12 2010-07-14 What I want to do, is when selecting all the caldates for a specified month such as 2010-06, to return not just the two records above, but instead a record for each date in the range of date_start and date_end for each caldate. So if I searched for 2010-06, I would get: date_id date_eid date_start date_end date_day 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-21 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-22 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-28 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-29 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-30 The Long: The reason I want to do this, is so when displaying a list of events(calevents) for a specified month, an occurrence(caldates) of that event will be displayed for EACH of the days it spans. I could do this with php by looping through each day of the current month and displaying a copy of each caldate if the month day falls between date_start and date_end. But doing it this way will prevent me from using record pagination if needed. For example, if for a specified month the following caldates were returned: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-27 94 53 2010-06-09 2010-07-08 Doing record pagination would see this as only 2 records("rows"). But looping through them with PHP would generate 29 "rows". So, I figure if I use mysql to create each row instead of PHP, I can achieve the same thing AND still be able to use pagination if a month has a lot of events/dates. As far as performance goes, I'm not sure which option is more efficient. Both would send the same amount of info to the browser, so it's really only the work required to generate the info that matters. My current query which fetches all the occurrences for a specified month, and to make things just a little more complicated... joins them with their event and category, looks like this: $sql_to_execute = " SELECT date_id, date_eid, date_start, date_end, event_id, event_title, event_category, event_private, event_location, SUBSTRING_INDEX(event_detailsstripped, ' ', 40) AS event_detailsstripped, event_time, event_starttime, event_endtime, event_active, cat_colour FROM ( caldates LEFT JOIN calevents ON caldates.date_eid = calevents.event_id ) LEFT JOIN calcats ON calevents.event_category = calcats.cat_id WHERE date_start <= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_end_date)."' AND date_end >= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_start_date)."' ".$dbi_category." ORDER BY date_start ASC "; Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Peter

  Read the article

• A scheme for expiring downloaded content?

  - by Chad Johnson

  I am going to offer a web API service that allows users to download and "rent" content for a monthly subscription fee. The API will either be open to everyone or possibly just select parties (not sure yet). Each developer must agree to a license, and they receive a developer key for their person. Each software application will have its own key as well. So then end-users will download the software which will interact with my service's API. Each user will have a key for each application as well (probably using OAuth). Content will be cached on first download and accessible offline via just the third-party application that cached the content. If a user cancels their subscription, I plan on doing the following: Deactivate the user's OAuth key for all applications. Do not allow the user's account to download new content via the API (and subsequently any software that uses the API). Now, the big question is: how do I make content expire if they cancel their subscription? If they cancel, they should not have access to content anymore. Here are ideas I've thought of (some of these are half-solutions, not yet fully fleshed out): Require that applications encrypt downloaded content using the user's OAuth key, making it available to only the application. This will prevent most users from going to the cache directory and just copying and keeping files. Update the user's key once a month, forcing content to re-cache on a monthly basic. Users could then access content for a month after they cancel their subscription. Require applications to "phone home" [to the service] periodically and check whether the user's subscription has terminated. If so, require in the API developer license that applications expire cache. If it is found that applications do not comply, their keys (and possibly keys for all developers) are permanently deactivated as a consequence. One major worry is that some applications may blatantly ignore constraints of the license. Is it generally acceptable to rely on applications abiding by the licensing constraints? Bad idea? Any other ideas? Maybe a way to make content auto-expire after x days? Something else? I'm open to out-of-the-box ideas.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200  | Next Page >