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  • Scheduler with Asp Mvc

    - by Samuel
    Hi, I want to use a Scheduler like Telerik Scheduler in my Mvc project. The problem is that the Scheduler is a Asp.Net WebForm control. For this reason, I must create a WebForm page in my Mvc project to put the Scheduler control. When I show the page, it work fine to render the layout of the control but if I try to interact with it; click for change date, change to day view to week view, the control don't change. I know that postback doesn't work in mvc project but does it work in a WebForm page in a Mvc project? If it doesn't work, it is the reason why when I try to interact with the control, the control don't respond. I think it's because the postback don't work and the Scheduler use 100 % Databinding where when I change date, the postback don't contain any data that I have changed and for this reason, the control can't change is layout. Have you any ideas about postback with WebForm in mvc project? What type of design can I adopt? (Two differents projets: One for my Scheduler with WebForm and another for all the rest of my website in Mvc project) Any other control easily to use with Scheduler? Tips and tricks when needing both WebForm control and Mvc control in Mvc project? Thank you very much.

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  • one two-directed tcp socket OR two one-directed? (linux, high volume, low latency)

    - by osgx
    Hello I need to send (interchange) a high volume of data periodically with the lowest possible latency between 2 machines. The network is rather fast (e.g. 1Gbit or even 2G+). Os is linux. Is it be faster with using 1 tcp socket (for send and recv) or with using 2 uni-directed tcp sockets? The test for this task is very like NetPIPE network benchmark - measure latency and bandwidth for sizes from 2^1 up to 2^13 bytes, each size sent and received 3 times at least (in teal task the number of sends is greater. both processes will be sending and receiving, like ping-pong maybe). The benefit of 2 uni-directed connections come from linux: http://lxr.linux.no/linux+v2.6.18/net/ipv4/tcp_input.c#L3847 3847/* 3848 * TCP receive function for the ESTABLISHED state. 3849 * 3850 * It is split into a fast path and a slow path. The fast path is 3851 * disabled when: ... 3859 * - Data is sent in both directions. Fast path only supports pure senders 3860 * or pure receivers (this means either the sequence number or the ack 3861 * value must stay constant) ... 3863 * 3864 * When these conditions are not satisfied it drops into a standard 3865 * receive procedure patterned after RFC793 to handle all cases. 3866 * The first three cases are guaranteed by proper pred_flags setting, 3867 * the rest is checked inline. Fast processing is turned on in 3868 * tcp_data_queue when everything is OK. All other conditions for disabling fast path is false. And only not-unidirected socket stops kernel from fastpath in receive

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  • Extremely CPU Intensive Alarm Clock

    - by SoulBeaver
    For some reason my program, a console alarm clock I made for laughs and practice, is extremely CPU intensive. It consumes about 2mB RAM, which is already quite a bit for such a small program, but it devastates my CPU with over 50% resources at times. Most of the time my program is doing nothing except counting down the seconds, so I guess this part of my program is the one that's causing so much strain on my CPU, though I don't know why. If it is so, could you please recommend a way of making it less, or perhaps a library to use instead if the problem can't be easily solved? /* The wait function waits exactly one second before returning to the * * called function. */ void wait( const int &seconds ) { clock_t endwait; // Type needed to compare with clock() endwait = clock() + ( seconds * CLOCKS_PER_SEC ); while( clock() < endwait ) {} // Nothing need be done here. } In case anybody browses CPlusPlus.com, this is a genuine copy/paste of the clock() function they have written as an example for clock(). Much why the comment //Nothing need be done here is so lackluster. I'm not entirely sure what exactly clock() does yet. The rest of the program calls two other functions that only activate every sixty seconds, otherwise returning to the caller and counting down another second, so I don't think that's too CPU intensive- though I wouldn't know, this is my first attempt at optimizing code. The first function is a console clear using system("cls") which, I know, is really, really slow and not a good idea. I will be changing that post-haste, but, since it only activates every 60 seconds and there is a noticeable lag-spike, I know this isn't the problem most of the time. The second function re-writes the content of the screen with the updated remaining time also only every sixty seconds. I will edit in the function that calls wait, clearScreen and display if it's clear that this function is not the problem. I already tried to reference most variables so they are not copied, as well as avoid endl as I heard that it's a little slow compared to \n.

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  • JQuery drag, drop and save via cookie - how to?

    - by RussP
    Sorry to be back folks, but you guys & girls seem to know much more about this than I do ... anyhow, here is my question/problem I want to use drag, drop, sort (the interface plugin does me even though I have read it's out of date? but have looked at UI and to be honest is not clear and to me appears heavier than interface?) Anyhow, how do I set a cookie to save positions from this: $(document).ready( function () { $('a.closeEl').bind('click', toggleContent); $('div.groupWrapper').Sortable( { accept: 'groupItem', helperclass: 'sortHelper', activeclass : 'sortableactive', hoverclass : 'sortablehover', handle: 'div.itemHeader', tolerance: 'pointer', onChange : function(ser) { }, onStart : function() { $.iAutoscroller.start(this, document.getElementsByTagName('body')); }, onStop : function() { $.iAutoscroller.stop(); } } ); } ); var toggleContent = function(e) { var targetContent = $('div.itemContent', this.parentNode.parentNode); if (targetContent.css('display') == 'none') { targetContent.slideDown(300); $(this).html('[-]'); } else { targetContent.slideUp(300); $(this).html('[+]'); } return false; }; var ser = function (s) { serial = $.SortSerialize(s); alert(serial.hash); }; which is the "standard" interface demo, PLUS How do I then get to read that cookie so that when I next visit the page the order is as I set it in the cookie? Hopefully from that I can work out the rest .......? Thanks for help in advance.

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  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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  • How to convert string with double high/wide characters to normal string [VC++6]

    - by Shaitan00
    My application typically recieves a string in the following format: " Item $5.69 " Some contants I always expect: - the LENGHT always 20 characters - the start index of the text always [5] - and most importantly the index of the DECIMAL for the price always [14] In order to identify this string correctly I validate all the expected contants listed above .... Some of my clients have now started sending the string with Doube-High / Double-Wide values (pair of characters which represent a single readable character) similar to the following: " Item $x80x90.x81x91x82x92 " For testing I simply scan the string character-by-character, compare char[i] and char[i+1] and replace these pairs with their corresponding single character when a match is found (works fine) as follows: [Code] for (int i=0; i < sData.length(); i++) { char ch = sData[i] & 0xFF; char ch2 = sData[i+1] & 0xFF; if (ch == '\x80' && ch2 == '\x90') zData.replace("\x80\x90", "0"); else if (ch == '\x81' && ch2 == '\x91') zData.replace("\x81\x91", "1"); else if (ch == '\x82' && ch2 == '\x92') zData.replace("\x82\x92", "2"); ... ... ... } [/Code] But the result is something like this: " Item $5.69 " Notice how this no longer matches my expectation: the lenght is now 17 (instead of 20) due to the 3 conversions and the decimal is now at index 13 (instead of 14) due to the conversion of the "5" before the decimal point. Ideally I would like to convert the string to a normal readable format keeping the constants (length, index of text, index of decimal) at the same place (so the rest of my application is re-usable) ... or any other suggestion (I'm pretty much stuck with this)... Is there a STANDARD way of dealing with these type of characters? Any help would be greatly appreciated, I've been stuck on this for a while now ... Thanks,

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  • Initial capacity of collection types, i.e. Dictionary, List

    - by Neil N
    Certain collection types in .Net have an optional "Initial Capacity" constructor param. i.e. Dictionary<string, string> something = new Dictionary<string,string>(20); List<string> anything = new List<string>(50); I can't seem to find what the default initial capacity is for these objects on MSDN. If I know I will only be storing 12 or so items in a dictionary, doesn't it make sense to set the initial capacity to something like 20? My reasoning is, assuming the capacity grows like it does for a StringBuiler, which doubles each time the capacity is hit, and each re-allocation is costly, why not pre-set the size to something you know will hold your data, with some extra room just in case? If the initial capacity is 100, and I know I will only need a dozen or so, it seems as though the rest of that allocated RAM is allocated for nothing. Please spare me the "premature optimization" speil for the O(n^n)th time. I know it won't make my apps any faster or save any meaningful amount of memory, this is mostly out of curiosity.

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  • Spring MVC: should service layer be returning operation specific DTO's ?

    - by arrages
    In my Spring MVC application I am using DTO in the presentation layer in order to encapsulate the domain model in the service layer. The DTO's are being used as the spring form backing objects. hence my services look something like this: userService.storeUser(NewUserRequestDTO req); The service layer will translate DTO - Domain object and do the rest of the work. Now my problem is that when I want to retrieve a DTO from the service to perform say an Update or Display I can't seem to find a better way to do it then to have multiple methods for the lookup that return different DTO's like... EditUserRequestDTO userService.loadUserForEdit(int id); DisplayUserDTO userService.loadUserForDisplay(int id); but something does not feel right about this approach. The reason do have separate DTO's is that DisplayUserDTO is strongly typed to be read only and also there are many properties of user that are entities from a lookup table in the db (like city and state) so the DisplayUserDTO would have the string description of the properties while the EditUserRequestDTO will have the id's that will back the select drop down lists in the forms. What do you think? thanks

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  • Ruby: how does constant-lookup work in instance_eval/class_eval?

    - by Alan O'Donnell
    I'm working my way through Pickaxe 1.9, and I'm a bit confused by constant-lookup in instance/class_eval blocks. I'm using 1.9.2. It seems that Ruby handles constant-lookup in *_eval blocks the same way it does method-lookup: look for a definition in receiver.singleton_class (plus mixins); then in receiver.singleton_class.superclass (plus mixins); then continue up the eigenchain until you get to #<Class:BasicObject>; whose superclass is Class; and then up the rest of the ancestor chain (including Object, which stores all the constants you define at the top-level), checking for mixins along the way Is this correct? The Pickaxe discussion is a bit terse. Some examples: class Foo CONST = 'Foo::CONST' class << self CONST = 'EigenFoo::CONST' end end Foo.instance_eval { CONST } # => 'EigenFoo::CONST' Foo.class_eval { CONST } # => 'EigenFoo::CONST', not 'Foo::CONST'! Foo.new.instance_eval { CONST } # => 'Foo::CONST' In the class_eval example, Foo-the-class isn't a stop along Foo-the-object's ancestor chain! And an example with mixins: module M CONST = "M::CONST" end module N CONST = "N::CONST" end class A include M extend N end A.instance_eval { CONST } # => "N::CONST", because N is mixed into A's eigenclass A.class_eval { CONST } # => "N::CONST", ditto A.new.instance_eval { CONST } # => "M::CONST", because A.new.class, A, mixes in M

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  • WPF: Binding an integer to a TextBlock with TemplateBinding

    - by haagel
    I have a custom control in WPF. In this I have a DependencyProperty of the type integer. In the template for the custom control I have a TextBlock, I and would like to show the value of the integer in the TextBlock. But I can't get it to work. I'm using TemplateBinding. If I use the same code but change the type of the DependencyProperty to string it works fine. But I really want it to be an integer for the rest of my application to work. How can I do this? I've written simplified code that shows the problem. First the custom control: public class MyCustomControl : Control { static MyCustomControl() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(MyCustomControl), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(MyCustomControl))); MyIntegerProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("MyInteger", typeof(int), typeof(MyCustomControl), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(0)); } public int MyInteger { get { return (int)GetValue(MyCustomControl.MyIntegerProperty); } set { SetValue(MyCustomControl.MyIntegerProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty MyIntegerProperty; } And this is my default template: <Style TargetType="{x:Type local:MyCustomControl}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type local:MyCustomControl}"> <Border BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="4" BorderBrush="Black" Background="Azure"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <TextBlock Text="{TemplateBinding MyInteger}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> What am I doing wrong? Thanks // David

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  • [solved] IE6 PNG-transparency CSS hack not working

    - by John
    I looked around and decided to use a CSS approach rather than rely on JS... I figure the kind of corporate users stuck with IE6 might also have JS disabled by IT departments. So In my HTML I have: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html;charset=utf-8" /> <title>My Page</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="default.css" /> <!--[if IE 6]><link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="ie6.css"><![endif]--> </head> <body> <img src="media/logo.png"/> </body> Then my ie6.css consists simply of: img { filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(...); } However none of this makes the slightest difference, no transparency. I commented out all the rest of the page so it is literally that one and still no luck. I removed the default.css stylesheet and still no difference. EDIT: I now got it working, using the .htc method, loading that file in a conditional IE6 test block. It turned out the problem I was having was that Windows 7 had 'locked' the file (I don't even know what this means) and this blocked IE from loading/using it.

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  • one two-directed tcp socket of two one-directed? (linux, high volume, low latency)

    - by osgx
    Hello I need to send (interchange) a high volume of data periodically with the lowest possible latency between 2 machines. The network is rather fast (e.g. 1Gbit or even 2G+). Os is linux. Is it be faster with using 1 tcp socket (for send and recv) or with using 2 uni-directed tcp sockets? The test for this task is very like NetPIPE network benchmark - measure latency and bandwidth for sizes from 2^1 up to 2^13 bytes, each size sent and received 3 times at least (in teal task the number of sends is greater. both processes will be sending and receiving, like ping-pong maybe). The benefit of 2 uni-directed connections come from linux: http://lxr.linux.no/linux+v2.6.18/net/ipv4/tcp_input.c#L3847 3847/* 3848 * TCP receive function for the ESTABLISHED state. 3849 * 3850 * It is split into a fast path and a slow path. The fast path is 3851 * disabled when: ... 3859 * - Data is sent in both directions. Fast path only supports pure senders 3860 * or pure receivers (this means either the sequence number or the ack 3861 * value must stay constant) ... 3863 * 3864 * When these conditions are not satisfied it drops into a standard 3865 * receive procedure patterned after RFC793 to handle all cases. 3866 * The first three cases are guaranteed by proper pred_flags setting, 3867 * the rest is checked inline. Fast processing is turned on in 3868 * tcp_data_queue when everything is OK. All other conditions for disabling fast path is false. And only not-unidirected socket stops kernel from fastpath in receive

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  • Why are (almost) all the on-line games written in ActionScript (Flash) not Java?

    - by MasterPeter
    I absolutely love good defender games (e.g. Gemcraft, Protector: reclaiming the throne) as they can be intellectually quite challenging; it's like playing chess but a little less thinking a bit more action. Sadly, there are not that many good ones out there and I thought I would create one myself and share it with the rest of the world by making it available on-line. I have never worked with ActionScript but when it comes to on-line games, this is the main choice. I have tried to find a decent 2D game in the form of a Java applet but to no avail. Why is this so? I could write the game, most comfortably, in Delphi for Win32 but then people would need to download the executable, which could deter some form downloading it, and also it would only work on Windows. I am also familiar with Java, having worked with Java for the last four years or so. Although I don't have much experience with games programming. Should I note be deterred by the fact that all online games are written for in Flash and create my defender game as a Java applet, or should I consider learning ActionScript and games development for the ActionScript Virtual Machine (AS3 looks very much like Java... but still, it's an entirely new technology to me and I might never use it professionally.) Could you, please, just answer the the question in the title? Why Flash, not Java applets? Is it only 'politics'?

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  • How can I unit test a PHP class method that executes a command-line program?

    - by acoulton
    For a PHP application I'm developing, I need to read the current git revision SHA which of course I can get easily by using shell_exec or backticks to execute the git command line client. I have obviously put this call into a method of its very own, so that I can easily isolate and mock this for the rest of my unit tests. So my class looks a bit like this: class Task_Bundle { public function execute() { // Do things $revision = $this->git_sha(); // Do more things } protected function git_sha() { return `git rev-parse --short HEAD`; } } Of course, although I can test most of the class by mocking git_sha, I'm struggling to see how to test the actual git_sha() method because I don't see a way to create a known state for it. I don't think there's any real value in a unit test that also calls git rev-parse to compare the results? I was wondering about at least asserting that the command had been run, but I can't see any way to get a history of shell commands executed by PHP - even if I specify that PHP should use BASH rather than SH the history list comes up empty, I presume because the separate backticks executions are separate terminal sessions. I'd love to hear any suggestions for how I might test this, or is it OK to just leave that method untested and be careful with it when the app is being maintained in future?

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  • Excessive use of Inner Join for more than 3 tables

    - by Archangel08
    Good Day, I have 4 tables on my DB (not the actual name but almost similar) which are the ff: employee,education,employment_history,referrence employee_id is the name of the foreign key from employee table. Here's the example (not actual) data: **Employee** ID Name Birthday Gender Email 1 John Smith 08-15-2014 Male [email protected] 2 Jane Doe 00-00-0000 Female [email protected] 3 John Doe 00-00-0000 Male [email protected] **Education** Employee_ID Primary Secondary Vocation 1 Westside School Westshore H.S SouthernBay College 2 Eastside School Eastshore H.S NorthernBay College 3 Northern School SouthernShore H.S WesternBay College **Employment_History** Employee_ID WorkOne StartDate Enddate 1 StarBean Cafe 12-31-2012 01-01-2013 2 Coffebucks Cafe 11-01-2012 11-02-2012 3 Latte Cafe 01-02-2013 04-05-2013 Referrence Employee_ID ReferrenceOne Address Contact 1 Abraham Lincoln Lincoln Memorial 0000000000 2 Frankie N. Stein Thunder St. 0000000000 3 Peter D. Pan Neverland Ave. 0000000000 NOTE: I've only included few columns though the rest are part of the query. And below are the codes I've been working on for 3 consecutive days: $sql=mysql_query("SELECT emp.id,emp.name,emp.birthday,emp.pob,emp.gender,emp.civil,emp.email,emp.contact,emp.address,emp.paddress,emp.citizenship,educ.employee_id,educ.elementary,educ.egrad,educ.highschool,educ.hgrad,educ.vocational,educ.vgrad,ems.employee_id,ems.workOne,ems.estartDate,ems.eendDate,ems.workTwo,ems.wstartDate,ems.wendDate,ems.workThree,ems.hstartDate,ems.hendDate FROM employee AS emp INNER JOIN education AS educ ON educ.employee_id='emp.id' INNER JOIN employment_history AS ems ON ems.employee_id='emp.id' INNER JOIN referrence AS ref ON ref.employee_id='emp.id' WHERE emp.id='$id'"); Is it okay to use INNER JOIN this way? Or should I modify my query to get the results that I wanted? I've also tried to use LEFT JOIN but still it doesn't return anything .I didn't know where did I go wrong. You see, as I have thought, I've been using the INNER JOIN in correct manner, (since it was placed before the WHILE CLAUSE). So I couldn't think of what could've possible went wrong. Do you guys have a suggestion? Thanks in advance.

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  • Generate random number from an arbitrary weighted list

    - by Fernando
    Here's what I need to do, I'll be doing this both in PHP and JavaScript. I have a list of numbers that will range from 1 to 300-500 (I haven't set the limit yet). I will be running a drawing were 10 numbers will be picked at random from the given range. Here's the tricky part: I want some numbers to be less likely to be drawn up. A small set of those 300-500 will be flagged as "lucky numbers". For example, out of 100 drawings, most numbers have equal chances of being drawn, except for a few, that will only be picked once every 30-50 drawings. Basically I need to artificially set the probability of certain numbers to be picked while maintaining an even distribution with the rest of the numbers. The only similar thing I've found so far is this question: Generate A Weighted Random Number, the problem being that my spec has considerably more numbers (up to 500) so the weights would get very small and supposedly this could be a problem with that solution (Rejection Sampling). I'm still trying it, though, but I wonder if there other solutions. Math is not my thing so I appreciate any input. Thanks.

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  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

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  • Quickest way to compare a bunch of array or list of values.

    - by zapping
    Can you please let me know on the quickest and efficient way to compare a large set of values. Its like there are a list of parent codes(string) and each code has a series of child values(string). The child lists have to be compared with each other and find out duplicates and count how many times they repeat. code1(code1_value1, code1_value2, code3_value3, ..., code1_valueN); code2(code2_value1, code1_value2, code2_value3, ..., code2_valueN); code3(code2_value1, code3_value2, code3_value3, ..., code3_valueN); . . . codeN(codeN_value1, codeN_value2, codeN_value3, ..., codeN_valueN); The lists are huge say like there are 100 parent codes and each has about 250 values in them. There will not be duplicates within a code list. Doing it in java and the solution i could figure out is. Store the values of first set of code in as codeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount). The count initialized to 0. Then compare the rest of the values with this. If its in the map then increment the count otherwise append it to the map. The downfall of this is to get the duplicates. Another iteration needs to be performed on a very large list. An alternative is to maintain another hashmap for duplicates like duplicateCodeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount) and change the initial hashmap to codeMap.put(codeValue, codeValue). Speed is what is requirement. Hope one of you can help me with it.

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  • Google AppEngine + Local JUnit Tests + Jersey framework + Embedded Jetty

    - by xamde
    I use Google Appengine for Java (GAE/J). On top, I use the Jersey REST-framework. Now i want to run local JUnit tests. The test sets up the local GAE development environment ( http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/tools/localunittesting.html ), launches an embedded Jetty server, and then fires requests to the server via HTTP and checks responses. Unfortunately, the Jersey/Jetty combo spawns new threads. GAE expects only one thread to run. In the end, I end up having either no datstore inside the Jersey-resources or multiple, having different datastore. As a workaround I initialise the GAE local env only once, put it in a static variable and inside the GAE resource I add many checks (This threads has no dev env? Re-use the static one). And these checks should of course only run inside JUnit tests.. (which I asked before: "How can I find out if code is running inside a JUnit test or not?" - I'm not allowed to post the link directly here :-|)

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  • Reference a GNU C DLL built in GCC against Cygwin, from C#/NET

    - by Dale Halliwell
    Here is what I want: I have a huge legacy C/C++ codebase written for POSIX, including some very POSIX specific stuff like pthreads. This can be compiled on Cygwin/GCC and run as an executable under Windows with the Cygwin DLL. What I would like to do is build the codebase itself into a Windows DLL that I can then reference from C# and write a wrapper around it to access some parts of it programatically. I have tried this approach with the very simple "hello world" example at http://www.cygwin.com/cygwin-ug-net/dll.html and it doesn't seem to work. #include <stdio.h> extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) int hello(); int hello() { printf ("Hello World!\n"); return 42; } I believe I should be able to reference a DLL built with the above code in C# using something like: [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr LoadLibrary(string dllToLoad); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr GetProcAddress(IntPtr hModule, string procedureName); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern bool FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); [UnmanagedFunctionPointer(CallingConvention.Cdecl)] private delegate int hello(); static void Main(string[] args) { var path = Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "helloworld.dll"); IntPtr pDll = LoadLibrary(path); IntPtr pAddressOfFunctionToCall = GetProcAddress(pDll, "hello"); hello hello = (hello)Marshal.GetDelegateForFunctionPointer( pAddressOfFunctionToCall, typeof(hello)); int theResult = hello(); Console.WriteLine(theResult.ToString()); bool result = FreeLibrary(pDll); Console.ReadKey(); } But this approach doesn't seem to work. LoadLibrary returns null. It can find the DLL (helloworld.dll), it is just like it can't load it or find the exported function. I am sure that if I get this basic case working I can reference the rest of my codebase in this way. Any suggestions or pointers, or does anyone know if what I want is even possible? Thanks.

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  • How do I create a hyperlink in java?

    - by Justin984
    I'm going through the google app engine tutorials at https://developers.google.com/appengine/docs/java/gettingstarted/usingusers I'm very new to google app engine, java and web programming in general. So my question is, at the bottom of the page it says to add a link to allow the user to log out. So far I've got this: public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { UserService userService = UserServiceFactory.getUserService(); User user = userService.getCurrentUser(); if(user != null){ resp.setContentType("text/plain"); resp.getWriter().println("Hello, " + user.getNickname()); String logoutLink = String.format("<a href=\"%s\">Click here to log out.</a>", userService.createLogoutURL(req.getRequestURI())); resp.getWriter().println(logoutLink); }else { resp.sendRedirect(userService.createLoginURL(req.getRequestURI())); } } However instead of a link, the full string is printed to the screen including the tags. When I look at the page source, I have no tags or any of the other stuff that goes with a webpage. I guess that makes sense considering I've done nothing to output any of that. Do I just do a bunch of resp.GetWriter().println() statements to output the rest of the webpage, or is there something else I don't know about? Thanks!

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  • Android: SurfaceView and Z-Level Question

    - by JimBadger
    I have a FrameLayout containint first a SurfaceView, and second a RelativeLayout which in turn contians various Buttons and TextViews. Upon the canvas of the SurfaceView I am drawing numerous Bitmaps, and, via Touch and Motion Events am allowing the user to drag them around. These Bitmaps, when dragged around pass underneath the Buttons etc that are inside the RelativeLayout. Now, it's my (possibly mistaken) understanding that the "Z-level" of the SurfaceView, or whatever it has that passes for it, is entirely unrelated to the actual Z-level of the rest of the Layout. Is this the case? If so, how may I get around it, so that dragged Bitmaps are drawn ontop of other Views? Or what other way can I implement a full-screen canvas and yet not have my buttons etc act like the controls of an overlay. I guess what I actually need is an underlay, where touch events can still be picked up by the Buttons etc underneath. But I don't know how to achieve this, as, when redrawing my Canvas, I have to also redraw the background. Can I swap the order of the RelativeLayout and the SurfaceView inside the FrameLayout, and then make the background of the Canvas transparent? If so how? Will touch events still "fall through" to the buttons underneath? Thanks for bearing with me, I know I'm a bit of a waffler.

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  • Java 8 Stream, getting head and tail

    - by lyomi
    Java 8 introduced a Stream class that resembles Scala's Stream, a powerful lazy construct using which it is possible to do something like this very concisely: def from(n: Int): Stream[Int] = n #:: from(n+1) def sieve(s: Stream[Int]): Stream[Int] = { s.head #:: sieve(s.tail filter (_ % s.head != 0)) } val primes = sieve(from(2)) primes takeWhile(_ < 1000) print // prints all primes less than 1000 I wondered if it is possible to do this in Java 8, so I wrote something like this: IntStream from(int n) { return IntStream.iterate(n, m -> m + 1); } IntStream sieve(IntStream s) { int head = s.findFirst().getAsInt(); return IntStream.concat(IntStream.of(head), sieve(s.skip(1).filter(n -> n % head != 0))); } IntStream primes = sieve(from(2)); PrimitiveIterator.OfInt it = primes.iterator(); for (int prime = it.nextInt(); prime < 1000; prime = it.nextInt()) { System.out.println(prime); } Fairly simple, but it produces java.lang.IllegalStateException: stream has already been operated upon or closed because both findFirst() and skip() is a terminal operation on Stream which can be done only once. I don't really have to use up the stream twice since all I need is the first number in the stream and the rest as another stream, i.e. equivalent of Scala's Stream.head and Stream.tail. Is there a method in Java 8 Stream that I can achieve this? Thanks.

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  • Capistrano + Git + DreamHost

    - by Michael Sync
    Hello, I'm trying to deploy my rails application by using Passenger and Capistrano on Dreamhost. I'm using Git as a version control and we bought an account from GitHub. I have installed all required gems, Passenger and Capistrano in my local machine and I have cloned the repository of my project from GitHub in my local machine as wel. According to Dreamhost support, they have Passenger, Ruby, Rails and etc on their server as well. I'm currently following this article http://github.com/guides/deploying-with-capistrano for my deployment. The following is my deploy.rb. default_run_options[:pty] = true ssh_options[:forward_agent] = true # be sure to change these set :user, 'gituser' set :domain, 'github.com' set :application, 'MyProjectOnGit' #[email protected]:MyProjectOnGit.git # the rest should be good set :repository, "[email protected]:MyProjectOnGit.git" set :deploy_to, "/ruby.michaelsync.net/" set :deploy_via, :remote_cache set :scm, 'git' set :branch, 'master' set :git_shallow_clone, 1 set :scm_verbose, true set :use_sudo, false set :git_enable_submodules, 1 server domain, :app, :web role :db, domain, :primary => true set :ssh_options, { :forward_agent => true } namespace :deploy do task :restart do run "touch #{current_path}/tmp/restart.txt" end end When I run "cap deploy", I'm getting the error below. [deploy:update_code] exception while rolling back: Capistrano::ConnectionError, connection failed for: github.com (Net::SSH::AuthenticationFailed: gituser) connection failed for: github.com (Net::SSH::AuthenticationFailed: gituser) Thanks in advance..

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  • What database strategy to choose for a large web application

    - by Snoopy
    I have to rewrite a large database application, running on 32 servers. The hardware is up to date, each machine has two quad core Xeon and 32 GByte RAM. The database is multi-tenant, each customer has his own file, around 5 to 10 GByte each. I run around 50 databases on this hardware. The app is open to the web, so I have no control on the load. There are no really complex queries, so SQL is not required if there is a better solution. The databases get updated via FTP every day at midnight. The database is read-only. C# is my favourite language and I want to use ASP.NET MVC. I thought about the following options: Use two big SQL servers running SQL Server 2012 to serve the 32 servers with data. On the 32 servers running IIS hosting providing REST services. Denormalize the database and use Redis on each webserver. Use booksleeve as a Redis client. Use a combination of SQL Server and Redis Use SQL Server 2012 together with Hadoop Use Hadoop without SQL Server What is the best way for a read-only database, to get the best performance without loosing maintainability? Does Map-Reduce make sense at all in such a scenario? The reason for the rewrite is, the old app written in C++ with ISAM technology is too slow, the interfaces are old fashioned and not nice to use from an website, especially when using ajax. The app uses a relational datamodel with many tables, but it is possible to write one accerlerator table where all queries can be performed on, and all other information from the other tables are possible by a simple key lookup.

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