Search Results

Search found 5560 results on 223 pages for 'brute force attacks'.

Page 194/223 | < Previous Page | 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201  | Next Page >

  • Strange befaviour of spring transaction support for JPA + Hibernate +@Transactional annotation

    - by abovesun
    I found out really strange behavior on relatively simple use case, probably I can't understand it because of not deep knowledges of spring @Transactional nature, but this is quite interesting. I have simple User dao that extends spring JpaDaoSupport class and contains standard save method: @Transactional public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().persist(user); return user; } If was working fine until I've add new method to same class: User getSuperUser(), this method should return user with isAdmin == true, and if there is no super user in db, method should create one. Thats how it was looking like: public User createSuperUser() { User admin = null; try { admin = (User) getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { return em.createQuery("select u from UserImpl u where u.admin = true").getSingleResult(); } }); } catch (EmptyResultDataAccessException ex) { User admin = new User('login', 'password'); admin.setAdmin(true); save(admin); // THIS IS THE POINT WHERE STRANGE THING COMING OUT } return admin; } As you see code is strange forward and I was very confused when found out that no transaction was created and committed on invocation of save(admin) method and no new user wasn't actually created despite @Transactional annotation. In result we have situation: when save() method invokes from outside of UserDAO class - @Transactional annotation counted and user successfully created, but if save() invokes from inside of other method of the same dao class - @Transactional annotation ignored. Here how I was change save() method to force it always create transaction. public User save(User user) { getJpaTemplate().execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(user); em.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); return user; } As you see I manually invoke begin and commit. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • MD5CryptoServiceProvider ComputeHash Issues between VS 2003 and VS 2008

    - by owensoroke
    I have a database application that generates a MD5 hash and compares the hash value to a value in our DB (SQL 2K). The original application was written in Visual Studio 2003 and a deployed version has been working for years. Recently, some new machines on the .NET framework 3.5 have been having unrelated issues with our runtime. This has forced us to port our code path from Visual Studio 2003 to Visual Studio 2008. Since that time the hash produced by the code is different than the values in the database. The original call to the function posted in code is: RemoveInvalidPasswordCharactersFromHashedPassword(Text_Scrub(GenerateMD5Hash(strPSW))) I am looking for expert guidance as to whether or not the MD5 methods have changed since VS 2K3 (causing this point of failure), or where other possible problems may be originating from. I realize this may not be the best method to hash, but utimately any changes to the MD5 code would force us to change some 300 values in our DB table and would cost us a lot of time. In addition, I am trying to avoid having to redeploy all of the functioning versions of this application. I am more than happy to post other code including the RemoveInvalidPasswordCharactersFromHashedPassword function, or our Text_Scrub if it is necessary to recieve appropriate feedback. Thank you in advance for your input. Public Function GenerateMD5Hash(ByVal strInput As String) As String Dim md5Provider As MD5 ' generate bytes for the input string Dim inputData() As Byte = ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetBytes(strInput) ' compute MD5 hash md5Provider = New MD5CryptoServiceProvider Dim hashResult() As Byte = md5Provider.ComputeHash(inputData) Return ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(hashResult) End Function

    Read the article

  • A generic C++ library that provides QtConcurrent functionality?

    - by Lucas
    QtConcurrent is awesome. I'll let the Qt docs speak for themselves: QtConcurrent includes functional programming style APIs for parallel list processing, including a MapReduce and FilterReduce implementation for shared-memory (non-distributed) systems, and classes for managing asynchronous computations in GUI applications. For instance, you give QtConcurrent::map() an iterable sequence and a function that accepts items of the type stored in the sequence, and that function is applied to all the items in the collection. This is done in a multi-threaded manner, with a thread pool equal to the number of logical CPU's on the system. There are plenty of other function in QtConcurrent, like filter(), filteredReduced() etc. The standard CompSci map/reduce functions and the like. I'm totally in love with this, but I'm starting work on an OSS project that will not be using the Qt framework. It's a library, and I don't want to force others to depend on such a large framework like Qt. I'm trying to keep external dependencies to a minimum (it's the decent thing to do). I'm looking for a generic C++ framework that provides me with the same/similar high-level primitives that QtConcurrent does. AFAIK boost has nothing like this (I may be wrong though). boost::thread is very low-level compared to what I'm looking for. I know C# has something very similar with their Parallel Extensions so I know this isn't a Qt-only idea. What do you suggest I use?

    Read the article

  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Refresh page in browser without resubmitting form

    - by Michael
    I'm an ASP.NET developer, and I usually find myself leaving the webpage that I'm working on open in my browser (Chrome is my browser of choice, but this question is relevant for any browser). My workflow typically goes like this: I write code, I rebuild my project in Visual Studio, and then I flip back to my browser with Alt-Tab and hit F5 to refresh the page. This is fine and dandy if a form hasn't been submitted since the page was opened. But if I've been clicking around on ASP.NET form controls, the page has posted form data a number of times, so hitting F5 causes the browser to (sensibly) pop up a confirmation message, e.g., "Confirm Form Resubmission: The page that you're looking for used information that you entered...". Sometimes I do want to resubmit the form, but more often than not, I just want to start over with the page (rather than resubmit form data). The way I usually get around this is to simply add some query string data to the URL so that the browser sees it as a fresh page request, e.g.: page.aspx becomes page.aspx? (or vice-versa). My question is: Is there a better way to quickly request a fresh version of a webpage (and not submit form data) in any of the major browsers? It seems like a no-brainer to me for web development, but maybe I'm missing something. What I'd love to see is something like the last item in this list: F5: refresh page Ctrl-F5: refresh page (and force cache refresh) Alt-F5: request fresh copy of the page without resubmitting the form

    Read the article

  • Leftover Nav Bar in Landscape View

    - by Rob Bonner
    Hello, I am working to force a view into landscape mode, and have picked up all kinds of cool tips to make this happen, but am stuck on one item that is left on the screen. I have my XIB file laid out in landscape, and in my code I create the view controller normally: RedeemViewController *aViewController = [[RedeemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"RedeemViewController" bundle:nil]; aViewController.hidesBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; aViewController.wantsFullScreenLayout = YES; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:aViewController animated:YES]; Inside the controller viewDidLoad I complete the following: [[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarOrientation:UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight]; [[self navigationController] setNavigationBarHidden:YES animated:YES]; [UIView beginAnimations:@"View Flip" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:.75]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseInOut]; if (self.interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationPortrait) { self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformIdentity; self.view.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeRotation(degreesToRadian(90)); self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); } [UIView commitAnimations]; What I end up with is a perfectly rotated view, with a grey vertical bar on the left side (see pic). So to the question, how do I get rid of the bar? Edit: I am pretty sure this is the navigation bar that is not being hidden. This is a duplicate of another post, with some modified code, the other question was being answered with the bug.

    Read the article

  • Show iPad keyboard on select, focus or always (jQuery)

    - by Ryan
    I have a web app that is using jQuery to replace the RETURN key with TAB so that when I user presses return the form is not submitted but rather the cursor moves to the next text field. This works in all browsers but only 1/2 works on the iPad. On the iPad the next field is highlighted but the keyboard is hidden. How can I keep the keyboard visible or force it somehow? Here's my code (thanks to http://thinksimply.com/blog/jquery-enter-tab): function checkForEnter (event) { if (event.keyCode == 13) { currentBoxNumber = textboxes.index(this); if (textboxes[currentBoxNumber + 1] != null) { nextBox = textboxes[currentBoxNumber + 1] nextBox.focus(); nextBox.select(); event.preventDefault(); return false; } } } Drupal.behaviors.formFields = function(context) { $('input[type="text"]').focus(function() { $(this).removeClass("idleField").addClass("focusField"); }); $('input[type="text"]').blur(function() { $(this).removeClass("focusField").addClass("idleField"); }); // replaces the enter/return key function with tab textboxes = $("input.form-text"); if ($.browser.mozilla) { $(textboxes).keypress (checkForEnter); } else { $(textboxes).keydown (checkForEnter); } };

    Read the article

  • Attempting to calculate width of Map Overlays on the fly

    - by Bloudermilk
    Hey all- I am working on an Android app that utilizes the Google Maps API MapView, MapController, MapActivity, and ItemizedOverlay. I am basically trying to recreate certain functionalities of the Maps app (damn Google for not providing speech bubbles—for lack of a better name—for items!), particularly those speech bubbles. I have an invisible XML structure for the speech bubble in the XML layout file containing my MapView. The first time I show a speech bubble I grab that XML and remove it from it's current parent, applying some ItemizedOverlay.LayoutParams to it, and add it to the MapView as an Overlay. I position it above the item that was selected, fill it with the proper text, then set it to visible. This all works great. The goal here, though, is to also automatically animate the map to reveal any parts of a speech bubble that may be off-screen when it opens. So I'm trying popup.getWidth() (popup is the instance of my LinearLayout that is the speech bubble) after I do all the manipulation to the bubble, even after I display it to the user. Problem is, popup.getWidth() is returning me the width of the previously displayed popup, not the currently displayed one. I can't figure out why this would be happening if I'm fetching the width after I set it to visible with its new dimensions (which, by the way, are relative when I'm setting them with LayoutParams: fill_content for both width and height).. I have even tried forcing both the MapView and the "popup" to invalidate() before trying to fetch the width. Any ideas why this may be happening? How can I force the View to settle into its new dimensions before trying to fetch them? Thanks! Nick

    Read the article

  • Documentation style: how do you differentiate variable names from the rest of the text within a comm

    - by Alix
    Hi, This is a quite superfluous and uninteresting question, I'm afraid, but I always wonder about this. When you're commenting code with inline comments (as opposed to comments that will appear in the generated documentation) and the name of a variable appears in the comment, how do you differentiate it from normal text? E.g.: // Try to parse type. parsedType = tryParse(type); In the comment, "type" is the name of the variable. Do you mark it in any way to signify that it's a symbol and not just part of the comment's text? I've seen things like this: // Try to parse "type". // Try to parse 'type'. // Try to parse *type*. // Try to parse <type>. // Try to parse [type]. And also: // Try to parse variable type. (I don't think the last one is very helpful; it's a bit confusing; you could think "variable" is an adjective there) Do you have any preference? I find that I need to use some kind of marker; otherwise the comments are sometimes ambiguous, or at least force you to reread them when you realise a particular word in the comment was actually the name of a variable. (In comments that will appear in the documentation I use the appropriate tags for the generator, of course: @code, <code></code>, etc) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SQL developer here -- Nesting with select * finicky in Oracle 10g?

    - by John Sullivan
    I am writing a simple diagnostic query I will execute in my Oracle 10g scratchpad. I am trying to do this as part of a step to build the query. In the SQL Scratchpad for Oracle 10g Enterprise Manager Console, this statement runs fine. SELECT * FROM v$session sess, v$sql sql WHERE sql.sql_id(+) = sess.sql_id and sql.sql_text <> ' ' If I try to wrap that up in Select * from () tb2 I get an error, "ORA-00918: Column Ambiguously Defined". I didn't think that could ever happen with this kind of statement so I am a bit confused. select * from (SELECT * FROM v$session sess, v$sql sql WHERE sql.sql_id(+) = sess.sql_id and sql.sql_text <> ' ') tb2 You should always be able to select * from the result set of another select * statement using this structure as far as I'm aware... right? Is Oracle/10g/the scratchpad trying to force me to accept a certain syntactic structure to prevent excessive nesting? Is this a bug in scratchpad or something about how oracle works?

    Read the article

  • initialise a var in scala

    - by user unknown
    I have a class where I like to initialize my var by reading a configfile, which produces intermediate objects/vals, which I would like to group and hide in a method. Here is the bare minimum of the problem - I call the ctor with a param i, in reality a File to parse, and the init-method generates the String s, in reality more complicated than here, with a lot of intermediate objects being created: class Foo (val i: Int) { var s : String; def init () { s = "" + i } init () } This will produce the error: class Foo needs to be abstract, since variable s is not defined. In this example it is easy to solve by setting the String to "": var s = "";, but in reality the object is more complex than String, without an apropriate Null-implementation. I know, I can use an Option, which works for more complicated things than String too: var s : Option [String] = None def init () { s = Some ("" + i) } or I can dispense with my methodcall. Using an Option will force me to write Some over and over again, without much benefit, since there is no need for a None else than to initialize it that way I thought I could. Is there another way to achieve my goal?

    Read the article

  • Handling very large lists of objects without paging?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I have a class which can contain many small elements in a list. Looks like: public class Farm { private ArrayList<Horse> mHorses; } just wondering what will happen if the mHorses array grew to something crazy like 15,000 elements. I'm assuming that trying to write and read this from the datastore would be crazy, because I'd get killed on the serialization process. It's important that I can get the entire array in one shot without paging, and each Horse element may only have two string properties in it, so they are pretty lightweight: public class Horse { private String mId; private String mName; } I don't need these horses indexed at all. Does it sound reasonable to just store the mHorse array as a raw Text field, and force my clients to do the deserialization? Something like: public class Farm { private Text mHorsesSerialized; } then whenever the client receives a Farm instance, it has to take the raw string of horses, and split it in order to reinstantiate the list, something like: // GWT client perhaps Farm farm = rpcCall.getMyFarm(); String horsesSerialized = farm.getHorses(); String[] horseBlocks = horsesSerialized.split(","); for (int i = 0; i < horseBlocks.length; i++) { // .. continue deserializing the individual objects ... } yeah... so hopefully it would be quick to read a Farm instance from the datastore, and the serialization penalty is paid by the client, Thanks

    Read the article

  • How can I tell when the Text of a System.Windows.Forms.GroupBox wraps to the next line?

    - by fre0n
    I'm creating a GroupBox at runtime and setting its Text property. Usually, the text is only on one line, but sometimes it wraps. The problem is that the controls contained in the GroupBox cover up the GroupBox's text. What I'd like to do is determine if and when the text wraps. Specifically, I'd like to determine how much extra height the wrapped text takes up as compared to a single line. That way, I can reposition the GroupBox's controls and adjust its height. Initially, I thought I'd do this by calling the GroupBox's CreateGraphics() method, and using the Graphics to measure the string. Something like this: private void SetGroupBoxText(GroupBox grp, string text) { const int somePadding = 10; Graphics g = grp.CreateGraphics(); SizeF textSize = g.MeasureString(text, grp.Font); if (textSize.Width > (grp.Width - somePadding)) { // Adjust height, etc. } } The problem is that the size generated by g.MeasureString(text, grp.Font) doesn't seem to be accurate. I determined that it wasn't accurate by putting enough of a single character to cause a wrap, then measuring the resulting string. For example, it took 86 pipes (|) to until a wrap happened. When I measured that string, its width was ~253. And it took 16 capital W's to force a wrap - its string had a width of ~164. These were the two extremes that I tested. My GroupBox's width was 189. (a's took 29 and had a width of ~180, O's took 22 and had a width of ~189) Does anyone have any ideas? (hacks, WinAPI, etc. are welcome solutions)

    Read the article

  • hibernate: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException

    - by user121196
    when saving an object to database using hibernate, sometimes it fails because certain fields of the object exceed the maximum varchar length defined in the database. There force I am using the following approach: 1. attempt to save 2. if getting an DataException, then I truncate the fields in the object to the max length specified in the db definition, then try to save again. However, in the second save after truncation. I'm getting the following exception: hibernate: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLIntegrityConstraintViolationException: Cannot add or update a child row: a foreign key constraint fails here's the relevant code, what's wrong? public static void saveLenientObject(Object obj){ try { save2(rec); } catch (org.hibernate.exception.DataException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); saveLenientObject(rec, e); } catch (Exception e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } private static void saveLenientObject(Object rec, DataException e) { Util.truncateObject(rec); System.out.println("after truncation "); save2(rec); } public static void save2(Object obj) throws Exception{ try{ beginTransaction(); getSession().save(obj); commitTransaction(); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); rollbackTransaction(); //closeSession(); throw e; }finally{ closeSession(); } }

    Read the article

  • Updating table row by given id with jQuery

    - by fabrik
    Hello all! I need to update a specific table row (via tr id="unique_key") after a successful AJAX call. HTML fragment: <a name=\"p{$product_id}\" class=\"tr{$product_id}\"></a> <tr id="p{product_id}" class="item-row"> <td><h3>{product_id}</h3><a rel="facebox" href="ajax_url">{product_name}</a></td> <td>{image_information}</td> <td>{image_sortiment}</td> <td>{product_status}</td> </tr> Javascript: // AJAX Call success: function(msg){ $('#p' + prod_id).remove(); $('.tr' + prod_id).after(msg); $('#p' + prod_id + ' a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); } ... What happens: The table row removed Anchors grouped into one single row (not before their <tr>'s) so my 'hook' disappears AJAX result inserted over the whole table (after my 'hook' but still a wrong place) What's wrong with my idea? How can i force jQuery to 'overwrite' the required table row?

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to configure what reCAPTCHA is actually displaying?

    - by trejder
    Is there any way to control, what kind of image is displayed to user in reCAPTCHA or what kind of puzzle he/she is required to solve? I noticed at least two significant changes to what reCAPTCHA is serving (and I must admit, that I don't much like these changes): For years reCAPTCHA was serving two words from scanned books and user was required to solve one of them. They were clearly readable (even those "second" ones, that could be ommitted) and with nearly no problem in solving them by a human. For past few month, I noticed a significant change at all of my sites, that are using reCAPTCHA. They started to show combination of computer-generated long numbers string and something, that looks for me as street/house number photographed in Google StreetView. They're even easier to solve, but what is most important -- it started to happen more and more often that user is obligated to solve both of them. Now, I have noticed another change/regression. Now some of my sites remain at so called "level 2" (like above) and some of them started to serve two words again ("level 1"?). And again, there are more and more situations, where solving both words is required. But, what is most important, on this "level" words are nearly impossible to solve (on my old mobile devices with 3.5'' display I need 5-6 attempts to pass on!). They're cluttered, written in some strange font, mostly in italics with a lot of black and white stains or drops on letters etc. Plus: reCAPTCHA stopped to be equal -- some of my pages are still serving "level2" while some of them are "killing" end users with a need to solve "level3". Is there anyway, I can control this -- force it to use only "level2" and on all my pages? (of course, I'm using exactly the same piece of code to serve reCAPTCHA on all my pages) Note, that I'm not asking for something like in this question. I don't want to change what reCAPTCHA shows (to disable words in favor of only numbers for example). I only want to control, which "version" of puzzles (among described above) reCAPTCHA shows and I want to make it equal on all my sites.

    Read the article

  • CodeModel help needed for right-hand singleton.getinstance() assignment.

    - by antarti
    I've been able to generate 99% of what I need with the CodeModel API, but I am stumped here... Using the various "directXX" methods does not add import statements to the generated code, and I can work without the "directXXX" type of methods except for one place in a generated class. Suppose I desire a generated method like: /** * Copies data from this Value-Obj instance, to the returned PERSON instance. * * @return PERSON * */ public PERSON mapVOToPERSON() throws MappingException { Mapper mapper = (com.blah.util.MapperSingleton.getMapperInstance()); return mapper.map(this, PERSON.class); } You can see the right hand of the Mapper assignment in parens. Emitting the entire package+class was the only way I could find to just declare "SomeSingleton.someMethod()" on the right hand side and have the generated code compile. Without the MapperSingleton being added to the object model, there is no import generated... Questions: 1) Is there a way to force an import to be generated? 2) How to declare an expression that gives me the right side of the Mapper assignment within the object model (so that an import of MapperSingleton gets generated. Any help appreciated...

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net - Help with datagrid/checkboxes/double submit

    - by Gareth D
    We have a simple datagrid. Each row has a checkbox. The checkbox is set to autopostback, and the code-behind has an event handler for the checkbox check-changed event. This all works as expected, nothing complicated. However, we want to disable the checkboxes as soon as one is checked to prevent a double submit i.e. check box checked, all checkboxes are disabled via client side javascript, form submitted. To achieve this I we are injecting some code into the onclick event as follows (note that the alert is just for testing!): Protected Sub DgAccounts_ItemCreated(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridItemEventArgs) Handles DgAccounts.ItemCreated If e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.Item Or e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.AlternatingItem Then Dim chk As CheckBox = CType(e.Item.FindControl("chkItemChecked"), CheckBox) chk.Attributes.Add("onclick", "alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();") End If End Sub When inspecting the source of the rendered page we get the following: <input id="DgAccounts__ctl2_chkItemChecked" type="checkbox" name="DgAccounts:_ctl2:chkItemChecked" onclick="alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'DgAccounts$_ctl2$chkItemChecked\',\'\')', 0)" language="javascript" /> It all appears in order, however the server side event does not fire – I believe this is due to the checkbox being disabled, as if we just leave the alert in and remove the call to disable the checkbox it all works fine. Can I force the check-changed event to fire even though the check box is disabled?

    Read the article

  • Expanders inside listbox leaving blank space on collapse

    - by siz
    We have a rather complex UI that is presenting some problems for us. I have a ListBox that contains a set of DataItems. The DataTemplate for each item is an Expander. The header is text, the content of the Expander is a ListBox. The ListBox contains SubDataItems. The DataTemplate for each SubDataItem is an Expander. Here is a simplified XAML in which I reproduce the issue: <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Items}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Expander Header="{Binding Header}"> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding SubItems}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Expander Header="{Binding SubHeader}"> <Grid Height="40"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SubText}" /> </Grid> </Expander> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </Expander> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> There is a problem with how the layout is produced. If any Expander corresponding to the SubDataItem is expanded, the ListBoxItem containing this ListBox (the Expander.Content in the parent DataTemplate) correctly requests more space. So I can expand all SubDataItems and correctly see my data. However, when I collapse, the space I previously asked to expand, remains blank, instead of being reclaimed by the ListBoxItem. This is a problem because if I have say 10 SubDataItems and happen to expand all of them at the same time and then collapse, there is a significant amount of white space wasting my real estate. How can I force WPF to resize the ListBoxItem to the correct state?

    Read the article

  • Is there a project setting that controls getting to Game Center's Sandbox?

    - by CBGraham
    This is different from the others; it's cool. I know that your Bundle Identifier needs to match your iTunes Connect's version. I know you need to make a new AppleID through your dev app and not through Game Center. Most people get this fixed when they force quit their app and game center and launch theirs first. I am not one of those people. If I take the GKTapper tutorial and use my game's Bundle Identifier as the only change, things are good. On launch, it asks me if I want to use an existing or make a new account. But more importantly, it says * Sandbox *. (Before I log in, mind you; this is not an account problem at all.) Once inside I can see my achievements. If I load my game, I has a sad. On launch I get the same dialog, but it does not say Sandbox. My game is two weeks away from being done after many long months. Moving everything in to a new project is possible, but a pain. So the question is: What magic setting does GKTapper or a new project have that my game that I started in June does not that lets you get to Game Center's Sandbox?

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

    - by user193655
    I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

    Read the article

  • Does Monitor.Wait ensure that fields are re-read?

    - by Marc Gravell
    It is generally accepted (I believe!) that a lock will force any values from fields to be reloaded (essentially acting as a memory-barrier or fence - my terminology in this area gets a bit loose, I'm afraid), with the consequence that fields that are only ever accessed inside a lock do not themselves need to be volatile. (If I'm wrong already, just say!) A good comment was raised here, questioning whether the same is true if code does a Wait() - i.e. once it has been Pulse()d, will it reload fields from memory, or could they be in a register (etc). Or more simply: does the field need to be volatile to ensure that the current value is obtained when resuming after a Wait()? Looking at reflector, Wait calls down into ObjWait, which is managed internalcall (the same as Enter). The scenario in question was: bool closing; public bool TryDequeue(out T value) { lock (queue) { // arbitrary lock-object (a private readonly ref-type) while (queue.Count == 0) { if (closing) { // <==== (2) access field here value = default(T); return false; } Monitor.Wait(queue); // <==== (1) waits here } ...blah do something with the head of the queue } } Obviously I could just make it volatile, or I could move this out so that I exit and re-enter the Monitor every time it gets pulsed, but I'm intrigued to know if either is necessary.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Session flush behaviour [ and Spring @Transactional ]

    - by EugeneP
    I use Spring and Hibernate in a web-app, SessionFactory is injected into a DAO bean, and then this DAO is used in a Servlet through webservicecontext. DAO methods are transactional, inside one of the methods I use ... getCurrentSession().save(myObject); One servlet calls this method with an object passed. The update seems to not be flushed at once, it takes about 5 seconds to see the changes in the database. The servlet's method in which that DAO's update method is called, takes a fraction of second to complete. After the @Transactional method of DAO is completed, flushing may NOT happen ? It does not seem to be a rule [ I already see it ]. Then the question is this: what to do to force the session to flush after every DAO method? It may not be a good thing to do, but talking about a Service layer, some methods must end with immediate flush, and Hibernate Session behavior is not predictable. So what to do to guarantee that my @Transactional method persists all the changes after the last line of that method code? getCurrentSession().flush() is the only solution? p.s. I read somewhere that @Transactional IS ASSOCIATED with a DB Transaction. Method returns, transaction must be committed. I do not see this happens.

    Read the article

  • Login fails when recreating database with Code First

    - by Mun
    I'm using ASP.NET Entity Framework's Code First to create my database from the model, and the login seems to fail when the database needs to be recreated after the model changes. In Global.asax, I've got the following: protected void Application_Start() { Database.SetInitializer(new DropCreateDatabaseIfModelChanges<EntriesContext>()); // ... } In my controller, I've got the following: public ActionResult Index() { // This is just to force the database to be created var context = new EntriesContext(); var all = (from e in context.Entries select e).ToList(); } When the database doesn't exist, it is created with no problems. However, when I make a change to the model, rebuild and refresh, I get the following error: Login failed for user 'sa'. My connection string looks like this: <add name="EntriesContext" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL);Database=MyDB;User Id=sa;Password=password" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> The login definitely works as I can connect to the server and the database from Management Studio using these credentials. If I delete the database manually, everything works correctly and the database is recreated as expected with the schema reflecting the changes made to the model. It seems like either the password or access to the database is being lost. Is there something else I need to do to get this working?

    Read the article

  • Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

    - by Michal Bachman
    I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201  | Next Page >