Search Results

Search found 5505 results on 221 pages for 'customer showcase'.

Page 194/221 | < Previous Page | 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201  | Next Page >

  • DataContract Known Types - passing array

    - by Erup
    Im having problems when passing an generic List, trough a WCF operation. In this case, there is a List of int. The example 4 is described here in MSDN. Note that in MSDN sample, is described: // This will serialize and deserialize successfully because the generic List is equivalent to int[], which was added to known types. Above, is the DataContract: [DataContract] [KnownType(typeof(int[]))] [KnownType(typeof(object[]))] public class AccountData { [DataMember] public object accNumber1; [DataMember] public object accNumber2; [DataMember] public object accNumber3; [DataMember] public object accNumber4; } In client side, Im calling the operation like this: DataTransfer.Service.AccountData data = new DataTransfer.Service.AccountData() { accNumber1 = 100, accNumber2 = new int[100], accNumber3 = new List<int>(), accNumber4 = new ArrayList() }; cService.AddAccounts(data); Also, here is the decorations of the generated AccountData obj (WCF proxy): [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="AccountData", Namespace="http://schemas.datacontract.org/2004/07/DataTransfer.Service")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Runtime.Serialization.KnownTypeAttribute(typeof(DataTransfer.Client.CustomerServiceReference.PurchaseOrder))] [System.Runtime.Serialization.KnownTypeAttribute(typeof(DataTransfer.Client.CustomerServiceReference.Customer))] [System.Runtime.Serialization.KnownTypeAttribute(typeof(int[]))] [System.Runtime.Serialization.KnownTypeAttribute(typeof(object[]))]

    Read the article

  • Model Binding, a simple, simple question

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    I have a struct which works much like the System.Nullable type: public struct SpecialProperty<T> { public static implicit operator T(SpecialProperty<T> value) { return value.Value; } public static implicit operator SpecialProperty<T>(T value) { return new TrackChanges<T> { Value = value }; } T internalValue; public T Value { get { return internalValue; } set { internalValue = value; } } public override bool Equals(object other) { return Value.Equals(other); } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value.GetHashCode(); } public override string ToString() { return Value.ToString(); } } I'm trying to use it with ASP.NET MVC binding. Using the default customer model binder the property will always yield null. I can fix this by adding ".Value" to the end of every form input name, but I just want it to bind to the new type directly using some sort of custom model binder, but all the solutions I've tried seemed needlessly complex. I feel like I should be able to extend the default binder and with a few lines of code redirect the property binding to the entire model using implicit conversion. I don't quite get the binding paradigm of the default binder, but it seems really stuck on this distinction between the model and model properties. What is the simplest method to do this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • OLAP Web Visualization and Reporting Recommendations

    - by Gok Demir
    I am preparing an offer for a customer. They proide weekly data to different organizations. There is huge amount data suits OLAP that needed to be visualized with charts and pivot tables on web and custom reports will be built by non-it persons (an easy gui). They will enter a date range, location which data columns to be included and generate report and optionally export the data to Excel. They currently prepare reports with MS Excel with Pivot Tables and but they need a better online tool now to show data to their customers. Tables are huge and need of drill-down functionality. My current knowledge Spring, Flex, MySql, Linux. I have some knowledge of PostgreSQL and MSSQL and Windows. What is the easiest way of doing this project. Do you think that SSRP (haven't tried yet) and ASP.NET better suits for this kind of job. Actually I prefer open source solutions. Flex have OLAP Data Grid control which do aggregation on client side. JasperServer seems promising but it seems I need enterprise version (multiple organizations and ad hoc queries). What about Modrian + Flex + PostgreSQL solution? Any previous experience will be appreciated. Yes I am confused with options.

    Read the article

  • WPF MVVM ViewModel constructor designmode

    - by Snake
    Right, I've got a main wpf window: <Window x:Class="NorthwindInterface.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ViewModels="clr-namespace:NorthwindInterface.ViewModels" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Window.DataContext> <ViewModels:MainViewModel /> </Window.DataContext> <ListView ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Customers}"> </ListView> </Window> And the MainViewModel is this: class MainViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged = delegate { }; public MainViewModel() { Console.WriteLine("test"); using (NorthwindEntities northwindEntities = new NorthwindEntities()) { this.Customers = (from c in northwindEntities.Customers select c).ToList(); } } public List<Customer> Customers { get;private set; } Now the problem is that in designermode I can't see my MainViewModel, it highlights it saying that it can't create an instance of the MainViewModel. It is connecting to a database. That is why (when I comment the code the problem is solved). But I don't want that. Any solutions on best practices around this?

    Read the article

  • IIS7 Web.Config Custom Errors

    - by Michael
    Using GoDaddy to host my site (I know that's my first problem)! :-) Trying to setup customer error messages for my site. GoDaddy allows you to setup a 404 in their control panel, but I can't override this, or setup any additional error redirects, specifically a 500-server error. Here is my web.config file: <configuration> <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Redirect to WWW" stopProcessing="true"> <match url=".*" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^mysite.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.mysite.com/{R:0}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> </system.webServer> <system.web> <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php"> <error statusCode="404" redirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php?error=404" /> <error statusCode="500" redirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php?error=500" /> </customErrors> </system.web> </configuration>

    Read the article

  • playframework auto-test Jenkins CI wait for completion?

    - by notbrain
    I am trying to set up Jenkins CI for a playframework.org application but am having trouble properly launching play after the auto-test command is run. The tests all run fine, but it seems as though my script is launching both play auto-test and play start --%ci at the same time. When the play start --%ci command runs, it gets a pid and everything, but it's not running. FILE: auto-test.sh, jenkins runs this with execute shell #!/bin/bash # pwd is jenkins workspace dir # change into approot dir cd customer-portal; # kill any previous play launches if [ -e "server.pid" ] then kill `cat server.pid`; rm -rf server.pid; fi # drop and re-create the DB mysql --user=USER --password=PASS --host=HOSTNAME < ../setupdb.sql # auto-test the most recent build /usr/local/lib/play/play auto-test; # this is inadequate for waiting for auto-test to complete? # how to wait for actual process completion? # sleep 60; wait; # Conditional start based on tests # Launch normal on pass, test on fail # if [ -e "./test-result/result.passed" ] then /usr/local/lib/play/play start --%ci; exit 0; else /usr/local/lib/play/play test; exit 1; fi

    Read the article

  • Agile and Scrum burning me down please help me figuring out the truth

    - by jadook
    hi all, in the last while I installed MS-TFS 2008 then started to get myself prepared to use Agile Process Guidance template shipped with the TFS. with little googling I passed through Mike Cohn materials: I watched his conference in youtube "sponsored by google: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fb9Rzyi8b90 http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jeT0pOVg0EI Read his book "Agile Estimating and Planning" Watching the video series in his website: http://www.mountaingoatsoftware.com/presentations-tag/video-recorded I was very happy while absorbing and eating the techniques he is using with the teams and how agile and scrum is such a great software process/methodology until I saw Mike answering a question regarding an architect role and talking about the requirements document... at that point everything start falling apart due to the following: Last year I had been assigned to make full analysis "including requirements gathering" for big project "very high priority project". within 2 months of hardwork, dedication and commitment I delivered the whole analysis with full satisfaction of the customer and my BOSS and ZERO amendments. Later on, the project entered the architecting, development ... phases. due to the fact that the system included many competitive and exciting features I requested patenting it and its going in the process... so imagine you are the kind of person who used to love facing all kind of challenges and returning with excellent experience and results for the stakeholders and yourself, How fairly agile and scrum processes will credit and admit your talent and passion while the scrum master/coach treat the team as one unit that accomplish user stories and converge through trial and error approach??!!!! with that dark thoughts about agile and scrum I found many people "anti agile" and on top of them is "Crispin Rogers Johnson": http://agile-crispin.blogspot.com/ that guy made anti statement for everything Mike Cohn used to talk about. I really don't know what to do next! so any guidance will be appreciated. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Team Foundation Server - A programmer's guide

    - by Filip Ekberg
    In addition to my Previous topic on How to use SVN, Branch? Tag? Trunk? I would like to get in-depth on how a programmer should/could use TFS. The things that are most interesting to me is not how to set up the server, rather how you use it on a daily basis. In the area of software engineering where your responsibility not only lies on code but achitecture, documentation and other fields, you need to have a collection of your work, prefferably on the same place. So these are my point of interest which I would like to get more knowledge about How would you strucuter a TFS Workspace / Project to support lots of different customers / projects and maybe different projects per customer? Splitting up the folder strucutre on the above project into different pieces such as, Code, Documents - Architecture, Requirements and other, what more could there be and what would be a nice commonly used folder structure? An easy to browse repository; Again the folder structure here is important however this point is more aimed at different Explorers for the repository, not only the built in Team Foundation Explorer. These are just a couple of the points that I would like to know more about, suggestions on Beginners guides, in-depth guides and links covering the above would be very much helpful, please feel free to add other important knowledge-points to this as well.

    Read the article

  • Limiting choices from an intermediary ManyToMany junction table in Django

    - by Matthew Rankin
    Background I've created three Django models—Inventory, SalesOrder, and Invoice—to model items in inventory, sales orders for those items, and invoices for a particular sales order. Each sales order can have multiple items, so I've used an intermediary junction table—SalesOrderItems—using the through argument for the ManyToManyField. Also, partial billing of a sales orders is allowed, so I've created a ForeignKey in the Invoice model related to the SalesOrder model, so that a particular sales order can have multiple invoices. Here's where I deviate from what I've normally seen. Instead of relating the Invoice model to the Item model via a ManyToManyField, I've related the Invoice model to the SalesOrderItem intermediary junction table through the intermediary junction table InvoiceItem. I've done this because it better models reality—our invoices are tied to sales orders and can only include items that are tied to that sales order as opposed to any item in inventory. I will admit that it does seem strange having the intermediary junction table of a ManyToManyField related to the intermediary junction table of another ManyToManyField. Question How can I limit the choices available for the invoice_items in the Invoice model to just the sales_order_items of the SalesOrder model for that particular Invoice? (I tried using limit_choices_to= {'sales_order': self.invoice.sales_order}) as part of the item = models.ForeignKey(SalesOrderItem) in the InvoiceItem model, but that didn't work. Am I correct in thinking that limiting the choices for the invoice_items should be handled in the model instead of in a form? Code class Item(models.Model): item_num = models.SlugField(unique=True) default_price = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=2, blank=True, null=True) class SalesOrderItem(models.Model): item = models.ForeignKey(Item) sales_order = models.ForeignKey('SalesOrder') unit_price = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=2) quantity = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=4) class SalesOrder(models.Model): customer = models.ForeignKey(Party) so_num = models.SlugField(max_length=40, unique=True) sales_order_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, through=SalesOrderItem) class InvoiceItem(models.Model): item = models.ForeignKey(SalesOrderItem) invoice = models.ForeignKey('Invoice') unit_price = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=2) quantity = models.DecimalField(max_digits=10, decimal_places=4) class Invoice(models.Model): invoice_num = models.SlugField(max_length=25) sales_order = models.ForeignKey(SalesOrder) invoice_items = models.ManyToManyField(SalesOrderItem, through='InvoiceItem')

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net application timeout

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I have an application I have just deployed which, for complicated reasons, stores all the data from the database in a module the first time any data from the specific table is required (i.e. when a customer requests to view a product for the first time, all the product data is stored in the ProductManager class (of which an instance is stored in a shared property of the SiteContent class, making the ProductManager easily accessible from any page). Now forget that you are probably now glaring at me for using this approach.. I am sure it has its inefficiencies but I have only been studying .Net for a year or so now so I am still learning. One thing I have noticed is that I can go on the site once, then revisit it 5 minutes later and it will load all the data into the ProductManager class again. It seems this is a .Net application timeout thing - since the session timeout is set to 30 minutes and, when I am logged in on the administration frontend, it logs me out after 5 minutes (ish). Does anyone have any idea how to change this? Is there any way I can change this in the code without having to contact the hosting company? If not in the code is there any way to change this in the web.config? Thanks in advance. Regards, Richard

    Read the article

  • Deploy multiple instances of an EAR (representing versions) to Glassfish

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I basically want to be able to deploy multiple versions of the same EAR file to the same server (Glassfish instance?) , and have a unique path to each version separating them. From my reading on this it appears that multiple EARs deploy to the root of the web server namespace so that they can coexist if they do not have colliding context-root's of WAR's. In my case I'd rather have that instead of everything going under "/", I'd like to be able to brand a given EAR-file build to ALWAYS deploy under a given path like "/foo-20100319" or "/foo-CUSTOMER-20010101". This can easily be done with a single WAR file just by renaming it. I do not need or want them to disturb each other. It is my understanding that this remapping is outside the scope of the application.xml file, so I found that http://docs.sun.com/app/docs/doc/820-7693/beayr?a=view says that I can specify web-uri and context-root, but I am not certain that what I wish to do, can be specified with these in Glassfish. How should I approach this? I have full control over the build process. (I have found http://stackoverflow.com/questions/877390/deploying-multiple-java-web-apps-to-glassfish-in-one-go but I am not certain how to apply this to what I need).

    Read the article

  • WCF configuration and ISA Proxies

    - by Morten Louw Nielsen
    Hi, I have a setup with a .NET WCF Service hosted on IIS. The client apps are connecting to the service through a set of ISA proxy's. I don't know how many and don't know about their configuration etc. In the client apps I open a client to the service and make several calls via the same client. It works great in my office, but when I deploy at the customer (using the ISAs), after some calls, the connection breaks. In a successfull case, the client will maximum live a few seconds, but is that too much? I think there might be several proxyes. Maybe it's using load ballancing. pseudo code is something like this: WcfClient myClient = new WcfClient(); foreach (WorkItem Item in WorkItemsStack) myClient.ProcessItem(Item); myClient.Close(); I am thinking whether I have to do something like this foreach (WorkItem Item in WorkItemsStack) { WcfClient myClient = new WcfClient(); myClient.ProcessItem(Item); myClient.Close(); } Any one with experience with this field? Kind Regards, Morten, Denmark

    Read the article

  • How important is PhD research topic to getting a job?

    - by thornate
    EDIT: This has been closed and I realise that I may not have been specific enough with the original title. I ask two questions here: The general one (Does a PhD help get a job?) which has been asked elsewhere, and the specific one (Is it possible to get work outside of the specific research field?). Assume I've already decided going to do the phd. I'm just stressing about the research topic. Well, I'm one year out of university (Mechatronics engineering and Software Eng double bachelors), worked for a few months then got retrenched (yay economy!). It's looking less and less likely that I'll get a job worth having with the job market as it is, so I'm thinking about going back to uni to do a PhD. I figure that by the time I'm done, the job market will have improved and hopefully I'll have something on my resume that is more attractive than spending three years doing customer support for accounting software. So, my question is to people who've done PhD's. Would you say that they were worth the effort? How important is the research topic to future job-seeking success? The idea I have is a computer-sciencey/neural-networks/data-mining thing which I think is very interesting, but not a field I want to be in forever. My potential supervisor claims that employers don't care so much about the topic of the research but rather the peripheral skills that are developed through a PhD; time managment, self-restraint, planning and whatnot. How does this mesh with people's real world experience? I'd appreciate any advice before signing my life on the line for the next three years. See also: Should developers go to grad school? Best reason not to hire a PhD? How to find an entry-level job after you already have a graduate degree?

    Read the article

  • Custom Error Handling

    - by Michael
    Using GoDaddy to host my site (I know that's my first problem)! :-) Trying to setup customer error messages for my site using IIS7. GoDaddy allows you to setup a 404 in their control panel, but I can't override this, or setup any additional error redirects, specifically a 500-server error. Here is my web.config file: <configuration> <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Redirect to WWW" stopProcessing="true"> <match url=".*" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^mysite.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.mysite.com/{R:0}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> </system.webServer> <system.web> <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php"> <error statusCode="404" redirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php?error=404" /> <error statusCode="500" redirect="http://www.mysite.com/oops.php?error=500" /> </customErrors> </system.web> </configuration>

    Read the article

  • Pattern for sharing data between views (MVP or MVVM)

    - by Dovix
    What is a good pattern for sharing data between related views?. I have an application where 1 form contains many small views, each views behaves independently from each other more or less (they communicate/interact via an event bus). Every so often I need to pass the same objects to the child views. Sometimes I need this same object to be passed to a child view and then the child passes it onto another child itself contains. What is a good approach to sharing this data between all the views contained within the parent form (view) ? I have looked into CAB and their approach and every "view" has a "root work item" this work item has dictionary that contains a shared "state" between the views that are contained. Is this the best approach? just a shared dictionary all the views under a root view can access? My current approach right now is to have a function on the view that allows one to set the object for that view. Something like view.SetCustomer(Customer c); then if the view contains a child view it knows to set it on the child view ala: this.childview1.SetCustomer(c); The application is written in C# 3.5, for winforms using MVP with structure map as a IoC/DI provider.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Sql Timeout

    - by Petoj
    Well we have this Asp.Net application that we installed at a customer but now some times we get a SqlException that says "Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding." now the wired thing is that the exception comes instantly when i press the button, this does not happen every time i press the button so its random.. any idea what i could try to pinpoint the problem? We are using the EnterpriseLibrary Database block if that matters... Stack trace: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData() at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData() at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteDbDataReader(CommandBehavior behavior) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Database.DoExecuteReader(DbCommand command, CommandBehavior cmdBehavior) at Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Database.ExecuteReader(DbCommand command)

    Read the article

  • WPF/Silverlight AutoCompleteBox with ability to add new values to list.

    - by WillH
    Hi, I would like to use autocompletebox with a list of values, but also add new values to the list if a user enters one that isn't present. I currently have a string property in my view model called 'Comment'. Currently this is bound to a textbox in the view - user types a comment and the view model is updated. Simple. To save time, my customer would like it to autocomplete from previous values, so the way I thought to do this is something like: ViewModel public string Comment; public ObservableCollection<string> CommentsList { ... } (populate the CommentsList when the viewmodel is created) View <AutoCompleteComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding CommentsList}" SelectedItem="{Binding Comment, Mode=TwoWay/> So when the user selects a value, it saves the value in the Comment property. This works fine if the user selects an item in the list, but if the user types in a new value, the comment property is not updated (it is null because the selected item was not in the list). Is this possible with autocompletebox? Thanks in advance, Will

    Read the article

  • XMLRPC java insert issue

    - by Sanjai Palliyil
    I am trying to insert customer details into OpenERP server using XMLPRC and java. I am able to do an authentication. But when i call the execute method to insert the record by passing the parameters, am getting Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException on line res_create = client_1.execute("execute", params_create); Please find my code below res = client.execute("login", params); String url_1 = "http://agilewebdevelopment.net:8514/xmlrpc/object"; XmlRpcClientConfigImpl config_1 = new XmlRpcClientConfigImpl(); try { config_1.setServerURL(new URL(url_1)); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { System.out.println("First"); e.printStackTrace(); } System.out.println(res); HashMap<String, Object> vals = new HashMap<String, Object>(); vals.put("name", "Mantavya Gajjar"); vals.put("ref", "MGA"); XmlRpcClient client_1 = new XmlRpcClient(); client.setConfig(config_1); Object[] params_create = new Object[]{"erp_performance", "1", "admin", "res.partner", "create", vals}; Object res_create = null; try { res_create = client_1.execute("execute", params_create); } catch (XmlRpcException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Any helps is appreciated

    Read the article

  • XAML ContextMenu gets bound to wrong row in a DataGrid

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I have a XAML based ContextMenu bound to the rows in a datagrid. It works just fine - until the grid is scrolled! This is the context menu for one of the controls in the visual tree or a DataGrid row. <data:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Customer Details" Width="*"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Background="Transparent"> <!-- allows click in entire cell --> <controlsInputToolkit:ContextMenuService.ContextMenu> <controlsInputToolkit:ContextMenu> <controlsInputToolkit:MenuItem Header="{Binding CompletedOrderId,StringFormat='Create Reminder for order #\{0\}'}" CommandParameter="{Binding}"> <controlsInputToolkit:MenuItem.Command> <command:CreateReminderCommand/> </controlsInputToolkit:MenuItem.Command> <controlsInputToolkit:MenuItem.Icon> <Viewbox> <Image Width="19" Height="18" Source="../images/reminders.png" VerticalAlignment="Center"/> </Viewbox> </controlsInputToolkit:MenuItem.Icon> </controlsInputToolkit:MenuItem> <controlsInputToolkit:ContextMenu> <controlsInputToolkit:ContextMenuService.ContextMenu> ...... The ICommand is CreateReminderCommand and the CommandParameter is bound to the data item for the row itself. This works just fine - I can right click on a row and it will show me the correct text in the menu item 'Create Reminder for order 12345'. Then I scroll the datagrid down a page. If I keep right clicking on items then suddenly I'll see the wrong order number for a row. I think what must be happening is this : The DataGrid is reusing instances of MenuItem that it has previously created. How can I force a refresh of the ContextMenu when it is displayed for an item that changes? There's no 'Update method on the ContextMenu or ContextMenuService.

    Read the article

  • How do i bind an image to a <asp:Image /> tag in Form View

    - by Ranhiru
    First i have a getProfileImage.aspx which accepts a CusID and TN as query strings and display n image. So getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=10&TN=Y will show the image fine in the browser :) But... Now i am presented with a Form View and i want to bind the src of the image to get the image from the getProfileImage.aspx page... The following code works fine :) 10 is the customer ID and the image is working fine... <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" Height="151px" ImageUrl='~/getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=10&TN=N' /> But now i want to Bind the CusID value... <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" Height="151px" ImageUrl='~/getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=<%# Bind("CusID") %>&TN=N' /> This simply does not work :( The getProfileImage.aspx is called with CusID=<%... where the way i see it the <%# Bind("CusID") % is not parsed by ASP which would have returned 10... <%# Bind("CusID") %> The above tag alone will work... but inserting it to the middle of the tag seems to break it... Any suggestions ? Thanx a lot in advance :)

    Read the article

  • Linq to XML: create an anonymous object with element attributes and values

    - by Phil Scholtes
    I'm new to Linq and I'm trying to query a XML document to find a list of account managers for a particular user. (I realize it might make more sense to put this in a database or something else, but this scenario calls for a XML document). <user emailAddress='[email protected]'> <accountManager department='Customer Service' title='Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> </user> I trying to create a list of objects (anonymous type?) with properties consisting of both XElement attributes (department, title) and values (email). I know that I can get either of the two, but my problem is selecting both. Here is what I'm trying: var managers = _xDoc.Root.Descendants("user") .Where(d => d.Attribute("emailAddress").Value == "[email protected]") .SelectMany(u => u.Descendants("accountManager").Select(a => a.Value)); foreach (var manager in managers) { //do stuff } I can get at a.Value and a.Attribute but I can't figure out how to get both and store them in an object. I have a feeling it would wind up looking something like: select new { department = u.Attribute("department").Value, title = u.Attribute("title").Value, email = u.Value };

    Read the article

  • paypal address1 HTML name doensnt work?

    - by ajsie
    i use this code to send the customer to the paypals payment page: <form action="https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type='hidden' name='cmd' value='_cart' /> <input type='hidden' name='upload' value='1' /> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="[email protected]"> <input type="hidden" name="currency_code" value="SEK"> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://freelanceswitch.com/payment-complete/"> <input type="hidden" name="item_number_1" value="01 - General Payment"> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_1" size="45"> <input type="hidden" name="amount_1" size="45"> <input type="hidden" name="item_number_2" value="01 - Bonus Payment"> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_2" size="45"> <input type="hidden" name="amount_2" size="45"> <!-- PREPOPULATING FIELDS --> <input type='hidden' name='address1' value='Open Bridge street 19' /> <input type='hidden' name='address2' value='Easter heaven garden 12' /> <input type='hidden' name='first_name' value='Peter' /> <input type='hidden' name='last_name' value='Hansen' /> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit"> </form> everything works except the address1 and address2 in PREPOPULATING FIELDS. the fields for the Billing Address Line 1 and Billing Address Line 2 are empty. anyone knows why?

    Read the article

  • How to import data to SAP

    - by Mehmet AVSAR
    Hi, As a complete stranger in town of SAP, I want to transfer my own application's (mobile salesforce automation) data to SAP. My application has records of customers, stocks, inventory, invoices (and waybills), cheques, payments, collections, stock transfer data etc. I have an additional database which holds matchings of records. ie. A customer with ID 345 in my application has key 120-035-0223 in SAP. Every record, for sure, has to know it's counterpart, including parameters. After searching Google and SAP help site for a day, I covered that it's going to be a bit more pain than I expected. Especially SAP site does not give even a clue on it. Say I couldn't find. We transferred our data to some other ERP systems, some of which wanted XML files, some other exposed their APIs. My point is, is Sql Server's SSIS an option for me? I hope it is, so I can fight on my own territory. Since client requests would vary a lot, I count flexibility as most important criteria. Also, I want to transfer as much data as I could. Any help is appreciated. Regards,

    Read the article

  • Developmnet process for an embedded project with significant Hardware change

    - by pierr
    Hi, I have a good idea about Agile development process but it seems it does not fit well with a embedded project with significant hardware change. I will describe below what we are currently doing (Ad-hoc way , no defined process yet). The change are divided to three categories and different process are used for them : complete hardware change example : use a different video codec IP a) Study the new IP b) RTL/FPGA simulation c) Implement the leagcy interface - go to b) d) Wait until hardware (tape out) is ready f) Test on the real Hardware hardware improvement example : enhance the image display quaulity by improving the underlie algorithm a)RTL/FPGA simulation b)Wait until hardware and test on the hardware Mino change exmaple : only change hardware register mapping a)Wait until hardware and test on the hardware The worry is it seems we don't have too much control and confidence about software maturity for the hardware change as the bring up schedule is always very tight and the customer desired a seemless change when updating to a new version hardware. How did you manage this kind of hardware hardware change? Did you solve that by a Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL)? Did you have a automatical test for the HAL layer? How did you test when the hardware platform is not even ready? Do you have well documented process for this kind of change? Thanks for your insight.

    Read the article

  • WCF Certificates without Certificate Store

    - by Kane
    My team is developing a number of WPF plug-ins for a 3rd party thick client application. The WPF plug-ins use WCF to consume web services published by a number of TIBCO services. The thick client application maintains a separate central data store and uses a proprietary API to access the data store. The thick client and WPF plug-ins are due to be deployed onto 10,000 workstations. Our customer wants to keep the certificate used by the thick client in the central data store so that they don't need to worry about re-issuing the certificate (current re-issue cycle takes about 3 months) and also have the opportunity to authorise the use of the certificate. The proposed architecture offers a form of shared secret / authentication between the central data store and the TIBCO services. Whilst I don’t necessarily agree with the proposed architecture our team is not able to change it and must work with what’s been provided. Basically our client wants us to build into our WPF plug-ins a mechanism which retrieves the certificate from the central data store (which will be allowed or denied based on roles in that data store) into memory then use the certificate for creating the SSL connection to the TIBCO services. No use of the local machine's certificate store is allowed and the in memory version is to be discarded at the end of each session. So the question is does anyone know if it is possible to pass an in-memory certificate to a WCF (.NET 3.5) service for SSL transport level encryption? Note: I had asked a similar question (here) but have since deleted it and re-asked it with more information.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201  | Next Page >